Term
Which of the following financial statements are typically prepared for a law firm?
a. Income Statement, Statement of Change in Owners Equity, Accounts Receivable Analaysis
b. Balance sheet, Cash Flow Statement, Work in Progress report
c. Income Statement, Cash Flow statement, Balance Sheet
d. Income Statement, Fixed Asset Listing, Cash flow analysis |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a snapshot in time?
a. Income statement
b. Cash flow statement
c. Balance sheet
d. Statement of change in owners equity |
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Definition
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Term
Which would appear on a balance sheet for a firm that uses the Modified Cash Basis of Accounting?
a. Profit sharing accrual
b. Client disbursements receivable
c. Accumulated depreciation
d. loans payable
e. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
One of your partners is conduct a seminar in Vegas. His air fare to Vegas if $1,000, his hotel was $500 and the cost of the materials was $250. While in Vegas he takes one of his favorite clients out to dinner. The cost of the meal was $350. He presented the client with a new Ipad as a gift which cost $550. How much of this expense is tax deductible.
a. $2650
b. $2475
c. $2125
d. $1950 Meal and entertainment are only 50% deductible, the limit on gifts is $25 |
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Definition
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Term
A firm has sufficient contact with another state to require filing in Income Tax return in that state. This is know as:
a. Lexus
b. Nexus
c. Texas
d. Solar Plexus |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is considered a hard cost?
a. Photocopy expense
b. Court reporter fee
c. Filing Fee
d. Fax expense
e. Photocopy fee paid to Ikon Document Services |
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Definition
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Term
Which is not characteristic of a Capital Lease?
a. Bargain purchase option
b. Ownership Transfers at conclusion of lease agreement
c. Lease term is equal to at least 75% of the economic life of the leased property.
d. Present value of the minimum lease payments are equal to at least 90% of the fair market value of the leased property
e. At least one of the lease signers must have been born a U.S. citizen |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not part of the RULES acronym?
a. Revenue Recognition
b. Leverage of lawyers
c. Expense control
d. Utilization/Productivity
e. Speed of billing and collection |
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Definition
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Term
When is a Contingent fee now allowed under the Model Rules
a. When probability of success is dim
b. When billing rates are discounted
c. In divorce cases
d. In criminal cases
e. In personal injury cases |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is true about Partnerships and taxes?
a. Partners receive a W-2 and the partnership files a Form 1120
b. Federal and State taxes are withheld from partners' draws
c. Partner receive a K-1 and the firm files a Form 1065
d. Partners are responsible for their own estimated tax payments |
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Definition
| c and d [a and b apply to corporations] |
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Term
When may funds not be disbursed from the Client Trust Account?
a. Before a prescribed number of days after receipt of the funds.
b. Before specific written instructions have been received from the client.
c. Before the funds to be disbursed have been collected by the firm's bank
d. When ownership of the funds held in the Trust account is under dispute |
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Definition
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Term
For federal income tax purposes, an LLC is treated like a:
a. partnership
b. corporation
c. professional corporation
d. S corporation |
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Definition
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Term
You are preparing your revenue bidget for the year. Attorney A's billing rate is $225. Attorney B's rate is $250. Each had 2000 billable hours in the previous year. They each anticipate a 10% increase in hours this year. Their realization rate is 95%. What should you budget for revenue?
a. 902,500
b. 992,750
c. 950,000
d. 1,045,000 |
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Definition
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Term
The method mostly commonly used to depreciate assets because of the ability to rapidly write-off assets is called:
a. Straight-line depreciation
b. ACRES
c. Declining balance depreciation
d. Modified accelerated cost recovery system otherwise known as MACRS |
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Definition
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Term
A 401(k) plan is considered a:
a. a defined benefit plan
b. a defined contribution plan
c. an IRA plan
d. a waste of money |
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Definition
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Term
___________ are critical to an enterprise because they support core operations, such as order processing, billing and payroll
a. Transaction processing systems
b. Operational tattoos
c. Intranets
d. key operative environments |
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Definition
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Term
__________ tools help determine the probable future outcome for an event or the likelihood of a situation occurring.
a. tarot cards
b. predictive analysis
c. network processing
d. internet |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) ________________ acts as an interface between application programs and physical data files
a. splitter
b. bar code reader
c. adaptive file system
d. database management system |
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Definition
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Term
Voice, data, video and radio waves can all be sent over an IP network by digitizing the content into:
a. zeros and ones
b. internet protocols
c. packets
d. VoIP |
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Definition
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Term
| True or False. Wi-Fi networks usually consist of a router, which transmits the signal, and more or more adapters, which receive the signal and are usually attached to computers |
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Definition
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Term
How long before the beginning of the fiscal year should you begin your budget planning?
a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months |
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Definition
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Term
Which types of costs must be estimated to budget operating expenses?
a. Office operations and general business
b. Office operations, Occupancy and general business
c. Office operations, professional activities and general business
d. Office operations, general business, occupancy, professional activities and technology |
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Definition
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Term
Partners want to start a business development program next year and hire a consultant to help with launching the new program. Where do you put these expenses in next year's budget?
a. Business development goes in general business and consultant goes in professional activities
b. Business development goes in professional activities and consultant goes in general business
c. Both go in office operations
d. Both go in general business |
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Definition
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Term
As an internal account control, budgets are an effective high level control for top management?
True or False. |
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Definition
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Term
A SWOT analysis reveals an opportunity for your firm to expand in the Southwest. The managing partner asks you to prepare a preliminary budget. Which is the best option to draft?
a. Capital budget
b. Cash requirements budget
c. Master budget
d. Operating budget |
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Definition
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Term
What does a comp-ratio measure?
a. how far over/under the average salary a salary is
b. the weight of the compensable factors
c. the extent that actual pay is consistent with pay policy
d. the distance of a salary from the pay policy line
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three compensation theories?
a. Relative, market, reinforcement
b. Reinforcement, expectancy, equity
c. Intrinsic, reinforcement, extrinsic
d. Variable, expectancy, equity |
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Definition
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Term
| What makes an employee 'entitled' to a salary increase? |
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Definition
| Seniority, education, credentials |
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Term
| Name two goals of a performance-based compensation system? |
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Definition
| Ascertain training needed to improve performance; ability to enhance company overall |
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Term
Which of the following are components of a Total Compensation System
a. annual salary
b. casual dress policy
c. profit-sharing contributions
d. company car
e. a and c
f. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are intrinsic rewards?
a. company-sponsored health plan
b. free parking for employees
c. learning a new job
d. dental plan
e. working close to home |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the difference between a job analysis and a work analysis? |
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Definition
| skills required for a job v. duties involved performing job |
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Term
What are the two non-quantitative methods of evaluations jobs?
a. accountability and market pricing
b. market pricing and rank profiling
c. Hay Profile method and market pricing
d. job classification and ranking |
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Definition
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Term
What are the four acceptable criteria for evaluation jobs?
a. experience, responsibility, managing others, working conditions
b. skill, working conditions, effort, responsibility
c. education required, experience, skills, managing others
d. abilities required, experience, education required, responsibility |
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Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
The lessee reports the leased asset on their balance sheet |
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Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
Payments are reported fully as rent expense |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Capital or operating lease?
Ownership of the property passes to the lessee by the end of the lease term |
|
Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
The lease term is at least 75% of the remaining life of the property |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Capital or operating lease?
Interest expense is measured and reported by the lessee |
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Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
Depreciation of the leased asset is not reported by the lessee |
|
Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
At the inception of the lease, the lessee records both an asset and liability. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Capital or operating lease?
The lessee reports a liability for the present value of all future payments anticipated under the lease agreement |
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Definition
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Term
Capital or operating lease?
The lessor continues to report the tangible asset covered by the lease on its balance sheet |
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Definition
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Term
What is one significant financial difference between a law firm organized as a partnership and one which is organized as a professional corporation:
a. IN a professional corporation, the entity is responsible for withholding taxes for shareholders; in partnership each partner is personally responsible for filing employment taxes
b. Income of the professional corporation is not subject to taxation until withdrawn from the corporation, whereas undistributed income in a partnership is fully taxed to the partner.
c. The capital contributions in a professional corporation are made on a pre-tax basis and those in a partnership are made on an after-tax basis |
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Definition
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Term
A firm has 10 years remaining on a 15 year lease when it spent $200,000 on leasehold improvements. The leasehold improvement should be amortized over:
a. The remaining life of the lease
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. The life of the improvement |
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Definition
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Term
What Ratio described the relationship between a firm's liabilities and its equities:
a. current ratio
b. debt ratio
c. profitability ratio
d. liquidity ratio |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following are examples of profitability ratios except
a. gross profit margin
b. operating profit margin
c. net profit margin
d. days sales outstanding |
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Definition
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Term
The type of accounting system used by most law firms is known as:
a. cash basis accounting
b. modified cash basis accounting
c. accrual basis accounting
d. GAAP |
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Definition
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Term
A collection of accounts is call a(n)
a. ledger
b. account
c. journal
d. trial balance |
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Definition
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Term
A law firm that files partnership 1096 forms?
a. PC
b. LLP
c. LLC
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
S corps are based on size. They can't have more than how many shareholders?
a. 55
b. 75
c. 86
d. no limit |
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Definition
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Term
| LLC's have members or shareholders? |
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Definition
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Term
| Corporations do not want to have any net income on 12/31/07? True or False? |
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Definition
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Term
| "Off the Shelf" software should be expensed or capitalized? |
|
Definition
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Term
| "Customized" software can be expensed or capitalized? |
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Definition
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Term
Please label the following a hard cost or soft cost?
Travel Expenses
In-House copies
Filing fees
Faxes
Court Reporter Fees
Online Legal Research |
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Definition
Hard
Soft
Hard
Soft Hard
Soft |
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Term
A firm's Profit and Loss statement is the same as a firm's:
a. Income Statement
b. State of Retain Earnings
c. Changed in a Financial Position
d. Equity Statement |
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Definition
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Term
A budget used for a specific level of activity and does not take into account variables such as increased or decreased activity is:
a. flexible or variable budget
b. continuous or rolling budget
c. long ranged budget
d. static budget
e. zero based budget |
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Definition
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Term
A Master budget Demonstrates the inflows and outflows of cash that are projected by the end of the budgeting period.
a. Is comprised of both an operating and a financial budget
b. May be prepared on an annual basis or it may cover multiple years
c. all of the above
d. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Revenue recognized when earned and expenses recognized when incurred is:
a. Accrual method
b. Cash basis accounting
c. Modified cash basis accounting
d. Revenue recognition |
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Definition
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Term
Partner's equity appears on the firm's:
a. cash flow statement
b. statement of net assets
c. income statement
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Amount remaining after liabilities are deducted from assets, the owners' interest in the business
a. Net Worth
b. Net Income
c. Net operating income
d. Capital account |
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Definition
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Term
A Partner pay system in which profits are equally split among all partners
a. Unitization
b. Parity
c. Pay grade
d. Merit pay |
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Definition
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Term
Is used to show how activities in the current year compare to the previous year, and they indicate amount of cash available to the firm with which to pay its debts
a. Statement of Revenue and Expenses
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Operating Profit
d. Statement of Net Assets |
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Definition
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Term
A partner asks you to analyze the firm's ability to pay its debts as of the moment he makes the request. You need to conduct a:
a. Current ratio
b. Acid-Test ratio
c. Debt Ratio
d. Leverage ratio |
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Definition
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Term
Net worth is also known as (choose all that apply)
a. Equity
b. Distributable Income
c. Amount remaining after liabilities are deducted from assets
d. OPerating Income
e. Amount owners can claim on the assets
f. Owners' interest in the business
g. Profit index |
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Definition
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Term
True or False with regard to contingent fee agreements
a. A contingent fee agreement should be in writing
b. A lawyer can enter into a contingent fee agreement for a property settlement in a domestic matter.
c. A lawyer may enter into a contingent fee agreement for the recovery of post-judgment child support and/or alimony |
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Definition
a. True
b. False
c. The answer on the page says True, but I believe it is false. |
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Term
| In some jurisdictions, with regard to maintaining a client fund account with a substantial balalnce, it is advisable to place that money in an interest-bearing account to benefit the client, unless the client specifically directs otherwise |
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Definition
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Term
What type of ratio indicates the percentage of the firm's assets that is provided by the partners?
a. Debt ratio
b. Liquidity ratio
c. Equity ratio
d. Profitability ratio |
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Definition
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Term
You are preparing a Balance Sheet for the firm's partners, You will include the following accounts:
a. Revenue, expense and liabilities accounts
b. Assets, liabilities, capital accounts
c. Revenue, assets and depreciation accounts
d. Assets, liabilities and expense accounts |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would not be considered a short-term asset?
a. prepaid rent
b. short-term investments
c. client disbursements receivable
d. computers |
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Definition
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Term
Which statement below best describes positive pay?
a. a compensation method based on merit
b. a method to prevent check fraud
c. a group incentive plan
d. a form of partner compensation |
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Definition
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Term
Whic of the following is included in imputed partner compensation?
a. leverage
b. bonus
c. premium fees
d. partner draw |
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Definition
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Term
The depreciation method used by most law firms is:
a. Declining balance method
b. MACRS
c. ACRS
d. Sum-of-the-years digit method |
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Definition
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Term
Smith and Jones are partners in a law firm. This means:
a. They share income but are not personally liable for the other's behavior
b. They are not taxed as individual but father the firm is taxed as a partnership
c. They are personally liable for the other's professional behavior
d. They are not personally liable for the debts of the partnership |
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Definition
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Term
Variance analysis:
a. Is not a task useful for law firms
b. Is most often performed by comparing actual results to budget
c. Should be performed annually
d. Makes upper management accountable for budget |
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Definition
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Term
RULES is an acronym which stands for the following:
a. Reliable, utilization, leverage, economy, success
b. Realization, Utilization, Leverage, Expense control, Speed of collections
c. Retainable, utilization, liquidity, economy, specific
d. Retainable, utilization, leverage, expense control, speed of collection |
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Definition
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Term
Which statement is true about a firm's balance sheet?
a. liquidity ratio
b. action plan
c. accounts payable
d. liabilities |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which statement is true about a firm's balance sheet?
a. the balance sheet presents an entity's financial position at a point in time
b. the balance sheet reflects the firm's revenue and expenses
c. the balance sheet represents an entity's operation results of a period of time
d. the balance sheet reports the change in cash balance over a period of time |
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Definition
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Term
According to Herzberg's Two Factor Theory:
a. intrinsic factors known as motivators influence job performance
b. extrinsic factors known as hygiene factors influence job performance
c. comparison of two people with each other influences job performance
d. operant conditioning influences job performance |
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Definition
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Term
Jane is having a difficult time t work with another employee at the company. Jane talks to Laura in theoffice. Laura is the employee of the company you can go to to confidentially for help in resolving office issues. Laura is consider the ________________________ of the office.
a. mediator
b. busy body
c. ombudsman
d. arbitrator |
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Definition
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Term
John has been with the firm for many years. Because of his seniority, he has moved through a series of promotion to a position requiring considerable managerial skill which he does not possess. It can be said that he has encountered:
a. the Horn Effect
b. Adverse Impact
c. The Standard Deviation Rule
d. The Peter Principle |
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Definition
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Term
Leadership theories that look at personal charactersitics and attributes of a leader are:
a. behavior theories
b. trait theories
c. situation theories
d. contingency theories |
|
Definition
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Term
A manager always hires young, attractive women as receptionist. This is an example of:
a. Quid Pro Quo
b. Disparate Treatment
c. Disparate Impact
d. Reverse Discrimination |
|
Definition
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Term
A difference between management and leadership is that:
a. management aligns people to vision and strategies; leadership establishes a structure for accomplishing plan requirements
b. management energizes people; leadership organizes people to solve problems
c. management establishes the vision; leadership establishes the detailed steps and timetables
d. management delegates responsibility and authority for carrying out the plan; leadership communicates the direction by words and deeds |
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Definition
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Term
Which legislation protect workers displaced in the merger of two corporations
a. Workers Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN)
b. Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA)
c. Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA)
d. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection PRocuedures (UGESP) |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following motives is not postulated by David McClelland as one of the three major needs in the workplace situation?
a. affiliation
b. power
c. compensation
d. achievement |
|
Definition
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Term
Under HIPAA, which of the following is NEVER considered a pre-existing condition?
a. Employee who is pregnant
b. employee with a mental illness
c. employee with a terminal illness
d. employee who is involved in a car accident 10 days after he left his last employer and which occurred 15 days prior to his start date at your firm |
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Definition
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Term
Under ERISA, when is the annual report (Form 5500) ona qualified benefit plan due to be filed with the DOL?
a. two months after eligibility of the plan
b. three months after establishment of the plan
c. seven months after the end of the plan year
d. one year after plan features have changed |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference between organizational development and organizational transformation?
a. OD can be traditional and came make transformational changes, OT shifts paradigms
b. OD can be traditional or transformational; OT is traditional
c. OD proceeds toward a change model of theorganization; OT maintains a stable learning organization
d. OD is traditional; OT is transformational |
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Definition
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Term
Neil decides to move his family to Utah to join a Mormon village where Neil can marry as many wives as he wants. Neil resigns his employment with his current company. The company offers Neil COBRA coverage and Neil elects to continue his coverage. AFter being on COBRA for 30 days, Neil and his family get into an accident. Neil becomes totally and permanently disabled Neil is now eligible for COBRA for:
a. Group rates onmedical insurance will be extended to him for up to 18 months following the loss of benefits
b. Group rates on medical insurance will be extended to him for up to 36 months following the loss of benefits
c. Group rates on medical insurance will be extended to him for up to 29 months following the loss of benefits
d. Group rates on medical insurance will be extended to him for up to 9 months following the loss of benefits |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is not part of the Progressive Disciplinary Process?
a. suspension with pay
c. suspension without pay
c. transfer or demotion
d. evaluation |
|
Definition
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|
Term
_______________ are often the issue when employees sue organization over such matters as discipline, pay raises and termination
a. performance management systems
b. critical incidents
c. progressive discipline
d. employment at-will |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What methods do not measure performance?
a. ranking and observation
b. rating, ranking and observation
c. observation and narratives
d. on-the-job training |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true?
a. rankings place an individual performance on a continuum
b. ratings are a comparative measure in which individuals performance is compared with the performance of others.
c. ratings objectivity may be difficult since differences between employees may be minimal
d. none |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| List the six steps of Progressive Discipline |
|
Definition
| Verbal Warning, written warning, suspension with pay, suspension without pay, transfer, termination |
|
|
Term
This type of performance appraisal system is easy and quick to use. The terms need to be clearly identified and are dependent upon the quality of the instrument. They can be difficult to validate
a. forced distribuition
b. ratings
c. rankings
d. results |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first step of the progressive disciplinary process?
a. written warning
b. confrontation
c. suspension with pay
d. verbal warning |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Some evaluators like to be viewed as "good guys" by co-workers and, therefore, hesitate to rate anyone poorly. This is known as:a. forced distribution
b. distribution error
c. leniency error
d. critical incident |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Results Measurements can be easily quantified.
a. true
b. false |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An emloyee manual with a description of discipline procedures can be considered an implied contract?
a. true
b. false |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The last step of progressive discipline is positive discipline which is a variation of progressive discipline.
a. true
b. false |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Courts may find exception to "at-will" employment in cases where the employee is terminated for refusal to:
a. follow arbitration procedures
b. speak with the company's ombudsman
c. violate public policy
d. adhere to attendance policy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SMART is used to guide the way in which some companies define standards. What does it stand for: |
|
Definition
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Time Driven/Tracked |
|
|
Term
A form of distance learning that is useful for law firms is:
a. Off-the-job training
b. On-the-job training
c. Docuconferencing
d. Hands on learning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List in order the five steps of effective training
Establish Objectives
Prepare Content/Determine Methods
Deliver Training
Conduct Needs Assessment |
|
Definition
1. Needs assessment
2. Establish objectives
3. Prepare content/determine methods
4. Deliver training
5. Evaluation |
|
|
Term
According to the employee Involvement Theory, the reward for employee involvement is:
a. Extra benefit time
b. monetary/non-monetary rewards
c. job advancement
d. empowerment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If one of your employees injures a third party (i.e., the copier repairmen), and it can be proven that you should have known about the employee's violent past, you can be successfully sued by this third party. This is known as:
a. Negligent hiring/negligent retention
b. Quid pro quo
c. Wrongful termination
d. Adverse impact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under FMLA, "key" employees may be denied reinstatement from a leave to prevent substantial and grievous economic injury to the employer's operation. Key employees must be (choose all that apply):
a. Salaried employees
b. Among the highest paid 10% of employees within 75 miles of the worksite
c. Notified by the employer of their status as key employees ahead of time if there is any possibility that the employer may deny them reinstatement after leave
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
FMLA is enforced by:
a. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
b. National Labor Relations Board
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Given a pay range with a minimum of $6/hour and a maximum of $10/hour, the midpoint is $8/hour (16/2). The compa-ratio for an employee who earned $9/hour would be
a. 75 or 75%
b. 81 or 81%
c. 89 or 89%
d. 1.13 or 113% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are types of arbitration except:
a. final offer
b. rights or grievance
c. mediation
d. interest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A company begins with 600 job applicants, narrow the field to 30 qualified applicants and schedule 30 interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.
What is the yield ratio of qualified applications to total applications
a. 5%
b. 18%
c. 20%
d. 30% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A company begins with 600 job applicants, narrow the field to 30 qualified applicants and schedule 30 interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.
What is the yield ratio of offers to final interviews?
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 33%
d. 50% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A company begins with 600 job applicants, narrow the field to 30 qualified applicants and schedule 30 interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.
What is the yield ratio of hires to offers
a. 10%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 73% |
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Term
A company receives 250 responses to its job advertisement. They interview 95 qualified applications, 20 of whom are African-American. Jobs are offered to two African-Americans from this group, but only one accepts the position.
What is the yield ratio of offers extended to African-Americans to qualified African-American candidates
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20% |
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Definition
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Term
A company receives 250 responses to its job advertisement. They interview 95 qualified applications, 20 of whom are African-American. Jobs are offered to two African-Americans from this group, but only one accepts the position.
What is the yield ratio of African-American new hires to qualified African American applicants?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20% |
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Definition
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Term
A benefit of job posting is that it:
a. provides a cost-effective way to reach the largest number of applicants at one time
b. provides an easy way to create a personnel database for job vacancies
c. allows individual to maximize career opportunities within an organization
d. allows employees to indicate interest in a position that is currently filled |
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Term
Which of the following statements characterizes a nondirective interview?
a. The interviewer asks all applicants the same questions
b. The interviewer deliberately creates a high level of anxiety
c. Each applicant is asked different questions about the same skill and ability area
d. The interviewer's next question is determined by the applicant's response to an open question |
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Term
Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without make a formal application
a. executive search firms
b. public employment agencies
c. employee referrals
d. career fairs |
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Term
Which of the following selection practices is illegal under federal law?
a. obtaining information from references without an applicant's permission
b. requiring a job-related test that has adverse impact on minority groups
c. determining if an applicant has ever filed a workers' compensation claim
d. requiring applicants to submit to a pre-employment drug test |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following selection practices is illegal under federal law:
a. Is English your native language
b. What religious holidays do you observe
c. Kalinowski? Is that Polish
d. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S. |
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Term
Which of the following interview questions has the potential to be discriminatory under federal law?
a. I notice you use a white cane. Are you legally blind.
b. Do you have any relatives who work for this company
c. The job requires you to live a 20-pound weight and place it on an overhead shelf. Can you do that several times an hour, all day long?
d. Are you over age 18 |
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Term
Which of the following pre-employment tests potentially has the best reliability and validity in measuring an applicant's integrity?
a. ability test
b. personality test
c. honesty test
d. polygraph test |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following selection practices is legal under federal law?
a. Taking age into consideration if an applicant volunteers the information
b. requesting applicants to take a polygraph test
c. rejecting an applicant on the basis of their credit records without telling them the name of the party that prepared the report
d. requesting proof of an applicant's education |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following statements about a reliable employment test is true?
a. it determines how the applicant handled previous work situations
b. it avoids linking the responses of successive questions
c. it must be job-related and measure what it purports to measure
d. it measures the sample of behavior with a high degree of consistency |
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Term
Interviews with future coworkers is an example of a:
a. stress interview technique
b. realistic job preview
c. specialized pre-employment test
d. method to establish equity |
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Term
To which employment act do the following four factors pertain: Skills, Effort, Responsibility, Working Conditions?
a. Age discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)
b. Equal Pay Act
c. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
d. American with Disability Act (ADA) |
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Term
You employ a cartoonist who is highly creative and produces work product based on his artistic skills and innovativeness. Under which exempt status category would this employee fall?
a. executive exemption
b. administrative exemption
c. professional exemption
d. computer employee exemption |
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Term
Which of the following employment laws protects an individual against discrimination
a. ADA
b. Pregnancy Discrimination Act
c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
From the date of hire, how many days does a new employee have to complete an I-9 form, verifying their eligibility status?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7 |
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Definition
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Term
Which legislation prohibits mandatory retirement based on age?
a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967)
b. Rehabilitation Act (1973)
c. Older Worker's Benefit Protection Act (1990)
d. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act |
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Definition
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Term
The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers to treat pregnancy:
a. under the provisions for protected classes
b. the same as any other temporary disability
c. under existing provisions for a long-term disability
d. as a reasonable ADA accommodations |
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Term
The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
a. age
b. disability
c. gender
d. national origin |
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Definition
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Term
Which federal agency was established to investigate charges of discrimination under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
a. National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)
b. Worker's Compensation Board
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
d. ADA Board |
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Definition
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Term
According to the Equal Pay Act, employers must:
a. reduce the pay of employees to equalize pay between the sexes
b. pay the rates set by union contracts even if there are inequities
c. Pay women and men the same pay for the same work
d. pay similarly for jobs requiring comparable skills and knowledge |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is an example of disparate treatment?
a. Members of a protected group are subject to stricter attendance rules
b. height restrictions are set for all security guards
c. a neutral staffing practice results in discrimination against protected groups
d. all employees are required to take an intelligence test |
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Definition
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Term
Vroom's expectancy theory states that:
a. employees dislike rigid controls and want to accomplish something
b. employees' effort is related to the likelihood of perceived success
c. employees work to meet their physical and social needs
d. employees are likely to quit their jobs if treated unfairly |
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Term
Which of the following could be an exception to the employment-at-will concept?
a. an employee is fired for engage in misconduct
b. an employer terminates an employee who does not have an employment contract
c. an employee is terminated for filing for worker's compensation benefits
d. an employer and employee agree to sever the employment relationship |
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Definition
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Term
The ADA applies to:
a. all employers, regardless of the size of the company
b. employers with 25 or more employees
c. employers with 15 or more employees
d. employers who contract with the federal government |
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Term
In voluntary arbitration, both parties must:
a. accept the decision of the arbitrator as binding
b. agree to consider the judgment of the arbitrator
c. agree to a time frame for settlement of the dispute
d. waive their rights to appeal the award |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following procedurally assists employers in complying with federal regulations against discrimination?
a. Executive Order 11246
b. Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection Procedures
c. Congressional Accountability Act
d. Title VII, Civil Rights Act |
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