Term
Infection of the external auditory canal.[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Otitis Externa:
1) Definition
2) Give examples of the following predisposing factors:
-1 mechanical trauma
-1 concomitant skin disease
-1 Seasonal factor
-1 Irritant
-1 Occupation
3) What are 4 possible pathologic organisms:
-state morphology and stain
-*which have affinity for moisture?
-*which seen in immunocompromised pts?
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Definition
1) Infection of the external auditory canal
2)
-mechanical trauma= ear cleaning
-concomitant skin disease=seborrhea
-Season=water exposure in summer months
-Irritants=hair spray/dye
-Occupation=professional swimmer?
3) Gram neg rods: Pseudomonas, E. coli (proteus). *Gram neg rods have affinity for moisture*.
Gram positive coccus: Staph aureus
Fungal (immunocompromised)
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Term
Pt presents with ear pruritis, exudate, decr hearing (due to debris), and pain after you pulled on the helix and pressed on the tragus. TM is red but motile.
...In the external ear canal there is visible debris/discharge...name the pathogen....
a) if there is copious green exudate
b) if there is yellow crusting
c) if there is scaling, cracked, weeping skin
[image]
d) if there is a fluffy, breadlike mold
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Definition
Otitis Externa due to the following pathogens:
1) pseudomonas
2) staph aureus
3) eczema
4) fungus
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Term
What is the tx for otitis externa?
Care, topicals (3), systemics for bacterial and fungal (2). |
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Definition
Care:
Remove debris and avoid further trauma/moisture.
Topical antimicrobials (eardrops):
Neomycin/polymixin B/hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic)
cipro+cortizone (Cipro HC Otic)
ofloxacin otic
Systemic:
antibiotics in severe cases.
Fluconazole for fungal infections. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
2 Complications of Otitis Externa |
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Definition
1) Mastoiditis: tender over mastoid
2) Malignant Otitis Externa: osteitis of bone underlying external auditory canal, most commonly seen in DM or immunocompromised pts. Common Pathogen: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. |
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Term
An otitis externa complication that occurs in patients who are immunocompromised or in those who have received radiotherapy to the skull base. In this condition, bacteria invade the deep soft tissues and cause osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. This is a life-threatening disorder with an overall mortality rate that approached 50% historically.
Sx: fever, severe pain, friable granulation |
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Definition
Malignant Otitis Externa - usual pathogen is P. aeruginosa
Tx: Hospitalization/IV ABX
[image]Figure 1: CT scan showing the soft tissue obliterating left external auditory canal left mastoid, infra-temporal fossa, skull base and involving the left TMJ. |
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Term
Bacterial Infection of the middle ear. |
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Definition
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Term
Acute Otitis Media
1) Define
2) Usually secondary to...
3) Effected Population, Highest incidence age group...
4) Pathology
5) Etiology (5 pathogens)
6) risk factors (6) |
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Definition
1) Bacterial infection of middle ear
2) 2º to viral URI
3) Under 8 yrs, highest incidence 6mos-3 yrs, children with lots of colds.
4) Neg middle ear pressure causes eustachian tube to collapse (cutting off middle ear ventilation & increasing neg pressure)-->accumulate fluid and mucus that become secondarily infected.
5) S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, GAS (S. pyogenes), viruses
6) URI, nasal allergies, male, day care, passive smoke exposure. |
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Term
3 y/o child presents with fever, earache, & unilateral hearing loss. Mother reports the kid had a cold that seemed to be getting better and then, kid got a fever and earache.
PE:
TM with erythema, injection, bulging, immobile.
conductive hearing loss.
mastoid tender to palpation.
**If, there were a sudden relief of pain and shit started draining out of ear, what would this be?** |
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Definition
Acute Otitis Media.
** Occasionally tympanic membrane ruptures….sudden relief of pain and shit drains out. Common. Heals well.** |
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Term
Acute, suppurative proccess in the middle ear creating pain and fever. TM immobile to pneumatic testing and often red and bulging. Commonly follows URI.
**For this to be classified as recurrent, what are requirements? |
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Definition
Acute Otitis Media
Recurrent Otitis Media: 3 times in 3 months OR >4 times per year WITH resolution btwn episodes. |
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Term
Amber fluid within the middle ear WITHOUT evidence of acute infection. TM immobile. Common in children. Usually don´t treat.
**When would you treat these cases?...Requirements, 2 treatments options. |
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Definition
Serous Otitis Media (Otitis Media with effusion)
*Persistance Otitis Media with Effusion: effusion persists for 4-6 months (could be due to angle of eustachian tubes). Kids may not be talking b/c decr hearing. May have nasopharyngeal obstruction/allergies.
Tx with drainage tubes or prophylactic ABX. |
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Term
Purulent middle ear infection. Perforation of TM present. Chronic otorrhea. Hearing loss. Pain uncommon except during acute exacerbations.
1) What is this?
2) As a result of...
3) Pathogens...
4) Tx |
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Definition
1) Chronic Otitis Media
2) Not common. As a result of trauma or recurrent otitis media.
3) Staph aureus, Pseudomonas, proteus species (like e. coli).
4) Tx: long term ABX or surgery to repain TM
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Term
Tx for acute otitis media.
*contraindication |
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Definition
-Oral Antipyretics and analgesics (*NO ASPIRIN for children with coexisting viral illnesses...Reye's)
Usually treat all cases with ABX (always when there is pain) to prevent 2º infections: meningitis and mastoiditis. Begin with 1º ABX, switch to alt if no response in 48-72hrs. If still no response: tympanocentisis to culture bacteria or provide immediate pain relief.
1º ABX: Amox or Amoxicillin/clavulanate x 10d
Alternatives: 3rd gen cephalosporins (cefdinir, ceftriaxone) or azithromycin
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Term
Invagination of the tympanic membrane that becomes pulled into the middle ear space because of negative pressure effect of eustachian tube dysfunction. Pockets initially self cleansing, although neck of pocket may narrow and trap squamous cells with keratin accumulation and retention; proliferation = expansion and ____(answer)______ formation. The _(answer)_______ sac is associated with enzymatic bony destruction due to cytokine-induced inflammatory changes, with activation of osteoclasts and lysozymes (osteomyilitis of temporal bone), destruction of the ossicles causing a conductive hearing loss, destruction of the semicircular canals (vertigo), cochlea (sensorineural hearing loss), and facial canal (facial palsy).
what is this?
what is this a complication of?
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Definition
Cholesteatoma
a complication of acute otitis media. |
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Term
Reversible hearing loss, mastoiditis, labryrinthitis*, osteomyilits of temporal bone, facial nerve paralysis, intracranial epidurals/subdural abcess/menningitis, cholestatoma are all possible complications of.... |
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Definition
acute otitis media
*FYI: Labryrinthitis: An inflammatory condition, caused by bacteria or viruses, that affects the labyrinth in the cochlea and vestibular system of the inner ear. Typically, it presents with sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo, and disequilibrium (problems with balance) and may affect one or both ears. It may be further classified as suppurative or serous. Suppurative (bacterial) labyrinthitis follows direct microbial invasion of the inner ear and usually presents with severe to profound hearing loss and vertigo. Serous (viral) labyrinthitis results from inflammation of the labyrinth only and usually presents with less severe hearing loss and vertigo than suppurative labyrinthitis, and the hearing loss often recovers. |
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Term
Inflammation of the nasal mucosa...
1) Name
2) due to...(2 + 5 less comon causes) |
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Definition
Rhinitis due to...
- viral (common cold), allergy, chronic bacterial sinusitis, polyposis, deviated septum, tumor, foreign body
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Term
Pt has stuffy/runny nose, mucosal edema, sneezing, PND, cough, sore throat. Pt is a smoker.
What is your dx and tx? |
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Definition
Dx: Viral rhinitis
Tx: stop smoking, liquids, vit C, salt water gargle, cough preps & decongestants (sprays no more than 3 days because of rebound congestion, switch to oral). |
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Term
Sneezing, nasal congestion, pruritis of nose/eyes/soft palate, dry mouth, decr smell/taste. Possible headache, lassitude, fatigue.
PE: mucosal edema, boggy/pale mucosa, allergic shiners, eye irritation.
1) what is the dx (state the types).
2) management: 3 parts |
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Definition
1) Allergic Rhinitis:
a) Seasonal: Sx occur at same time every year. Common onset btwn ages 10-20 and continues throughout life.
b) Perennial: Sx occur throughout year and can be induced by dust, dander, mold. Seasons may exacerbate. May have positive family Hx.
2) Management
a) avoidance
b) drug therapy:
Mild Sx: antihistamines (Benadryl, Claritin)
Mod Sx: intranasal corticosteroids, Singulair (leukotrine receptor antagonist)
Severe Sx: oral corticosteroids (3-5 days at a time)
c) Immunotherapy: Sx>1mnth or through many seasons even with meds. Req: + skin test, correlation to allergen, takes alot of meds.
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Term
inflammation of the mucosa of the paranasal sinuses (<30 d duration) usually following URI. As inflammation of the sinuses occurs, sinus ostial blockade may lead to mucus impaction, decreased oxygenation and sinus pressure. This environment favors bacterial superinfection most commonly with Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis and Haemophilus influenzae. |
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Definition
Acute Bacterial Sinusitis |
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Term
Acute Bacterial Sinusitis:
1) Pathogens in healthy vs. immunocompromised pts
2) May be a complication of....(4)
3) Which sinus most commonly affected?
4) Dx studies
5) Management
6) 4 complications |
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Definition
1) S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, GABHS, viruses.
Immunocomp: fungal
2) Allergic rhinitis, polyps, anatomical abnormality, NG tubes.
3) Maxillary
4) CT and culture
5) Keep hydrated (steam, liquids), stop smoking, amox, AM-CL, cephalosporins, resp-FQs (fluroquinolones), azithromycin x 10-14 d. Decongestants, antihistamines, analgesics. **Pretty much the same as otitis media.
6) Cellulitis, Osteomyelitis, Cavernous venous thrombosis, meningitis |
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Term
Pt presents with fever, perinasal swelling, tenderness upon palpation to maxillary sinuses. Posterior pharyngeal wall has fluid discharge drip.
Pt c/o Fever, congestion, PND, upper teeth pain, cough that worsens at night.
What is this and do you treat it? |
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Definition
Acute Bacterial Sinusitis.
tx with ABX x 10-14 d (less treated in kids) |
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Term
Pt presents with PND, nasal cavity pain, nasal congestion, dental pain, chronic cough, facial discomfort, headache for more than 12wks.
3 Dx studies and Dx?
Tx?
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Definition
Chronic Sinusitis
*determine that pt has inflamm of paranasal sinuses vs. nasal passages.
Dx by CT, MRI (complex cases), nasal endoscopy.
tx: decongestants, intranasal corticosteroids, nasal irrigation, ABX?, ENT referrel for endoscopic surgery. |
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Term
What is one of the most common complainst seen in clinical practice?
What is primary task of practitioner with this complaint? |
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Definition
Pharyngitis.
ID and tread GABHS or see if there is association of serious systemic illness. |
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Term
Viral pharyngitis is caused by what 2 viruses?
This is commonly know as... |
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Definition
Rhinovirus and coronavirus...common cold: congestions, rhinorrhea, fever, cough, nonexudative pharyngitis. |
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Term
Associated with triad of conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, and preauricular lymphadenopathy. Conjunctivitis produces little exudate and begins unilaterally. |
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Definition
Adenovirus: Viral Pharyngitis. |
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Term
May cause pharyngitis alone (herpangina) or a syndrome of pharyngeal vesicles and ulcers acoompanied by a vesicuopapular rash on hands and feet (hand foot and mouth disease)
Assoc anorexia, vomitting, diarrhea. |
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Definition
Viral Pharyngitis: Coxsackieviruses. |
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Term
Impressive pharyngitis gingivostomatitis involving the front of the mouth. Fever and poor oral intake. |
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Definition
HSV: treat with topical anesthetic. |
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Term
Exudative pharyngitis with erythema, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly. Pt c/o headache, fever, malaise, rash. Usually seen in childrens & young adults. |
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Definition
Viral Pharyngitis: EBV (infectious mononucleosis) |
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Term
Rapid agglutination and enzyme immunoassays, peripheral lymphocytosis with increased atypical lymphocytes (CBC) is characteristic diagnostic tests for what? |
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Definition
EBV (infectious mononucleosis). |
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Term
School age child presents in winter or spring with fever, sore throat (exudative), tender anterior cervical nodes. No cough or nasal congestion. Possible assoc Sx of headache, malaise, rash, abdominal pain, and vomiting.
Diagnostic tests?
Def Dx?
Tx?
Complications?
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Definition
GABHS: Bacterial pharyngitis
dx by throat culture (gold standard) or rapid antigen (90% specificity).
TREAT (within 9 days of onset to prevent RF/PSGN) if rapid antigen is pos (& awaiting culture) or if neg with high clinical suspician.
tx ABX:
1 time IM Pen G (painful!)
PO: pen v, amox, erythro, azithro, cephalos, clindamycin.
Complications: peritonsilar abcess, retropharyngeal abcess. |
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Term
When can a presumptive dx be made about GABHS pharyngitis? |
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Definition
Rash of Scarlet Fever: truncal, fine, maculopapular rash, most intense in groin and axillae. Result of bacterial exotoxin. |
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Term
Untreated GABHS can develop into... |
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Definition
1) Rheumatic fever with damage to heart valves.
2) Post-strep glomerulonephirits (PSGN) with acute renal failure. |
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Term
Besides GABHS, name 2 other causes for bacterial pharyngitis. State tx (just for one). |
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Definition
1) N. gonorrhoeae: tx with ceftriazone IM + doxy x 10 days (chlamydia tx)
2) Corynebacterium diphtheriae...pseudomembrane and have toxic clinical appearance. Foreign born pt. |
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Term
Most common disease of the periodontium (bones, gum, ligament) |
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Definition
Gingivitis:
caused by bacterial plaque, reversible, red/puffy/bleeding gingiva |
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Term
Bone moves away from the crown of the tooth in response to the bacterial presence. Extension of inflamm process initiated in gingiva. |
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Definition
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Term
Pt presents with chronic gingival inflamm, pocket formation, bone-loss, tooth mobility, and pathological migration of teeth. Irreversible.
State disease and management.
What progresses the disease rapidly? |
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Definition
Periodontitis:
Deep cleanings q 3-4 months with maintenance.
Arestin (Minocycline) in pockets.
Smoking progresses disease.
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Term
What are 6 dental disease that you should refer to appropriate dental professional?
CADET PEDS |
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Definition
Caries: root canal if decay has infected the nerve. You are not born with the bacteria that causes caries: S. mutans. Depends on bacteria + carbs= acid by product = caries. ¨baby bottle caries¨
Dental Abcess: accumulation of inflamm cells at apex of non vital tooth. Infection travels down nerve and into bone...EMERGENCY. Can also travel to skin (cellulitis) where tissue becomes hard and warm...
Trauma
Pericoronitis: inflamm lesions around partially developed tooth, most common mandibular 3rd molars. There is pain and bad taste. Tx: peridex/saline lavage
Dry Socket: post-op 3-4 days, no infection, dull radiating pain. tx: iododorm gauze soaked in eugenol.
Subperiosteal Infection: post op 1-2 months, infection, fever over 100º |
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Term
3 areas under the chin swolen and pustulent. Involves sublingual, submandibular, and submental fascial spaces. Difficulty breathing. |
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Definition
Luwig's Angina.
A medical emergency caused by a dental abcess that spread to bone than soft tissue (cellulitis). |
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Term
Upper tooth infetion spreads to cause preorbital enlargment with involvement of eyelids and conjuctiva. Infection can spread to brain.
Pt has fever, headache, chills, sweating. |
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Definition
Cavernous Sinus thrombosis.
A medical emergency caused by a dental abcess that spread to bone then soft tissue (cellulitis). |
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Term
chronic cheek biting on anterior buccal mucosa
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Definition
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Term
Man presents with lethery wrinkled white gums found in mandibular vestibule without pain or ulceration.
Dx and Tx |
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Definition
Smokeles Tobacco/Snuff Pouch Keratosis
Tx: quit, f/u in 6wks, if doesn´t go away or see little red dots...suspect CA and get biopsy. |
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Term
Macule w/ central ulceration covered by yellow-white fibrin membrane on non-keratinized mucosa: inner lips, cheeks, under tongue. Heals 7-14 days. |
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Definition
Apthous Ulcers (Canker sore) |
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Term
Intraoral carcinoma arising from preexisting leukoplakis or erythroplakia. Irregular, pebbled appearance. Hx: heavy drinker, smoker.
What is it, 2 most commonly found sites, and danger? |
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Definition
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
1st: tongue, 2nd: floor of mouth
Can spread easily to neck and throat through cervical lymphs.
[image][image] |
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Term
SPUTUM COLLECTION
1) Indications
2) 4 methods
3) Adequate specimen? 2 things to look for. #squamous/LPF* for satisfactory and rejected. |
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Definition
1) productive cough, fever, CXR
2) cough into sterile container (induce with inhalation of mist/hypertonic saline), via ET tube, fiberoptic bronchoscopy, tracheal aspiration (needle through cricothyroid membrane)
3) Look for PMN and inflamm cells.
<10 squams/LPF (low power field)=good.
>25 squams/LPF= rejected |
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Term
Atypical Sputum Examinations: what prep/stain do you use for the following...
1) Legionella
2) Mycobacteria (2)
3) Fungal
4) Histoplasmosis |
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Definition
1) Legionella: immunoflorescent stain
[image]
2) Mycobacteria (2): Ziel-Nihlson (flourescent) & acid-fast (more sensitive & quicker. MTb=blue)
[image][image]
3) Fungal: KOH prep
[image]Candida vulvovaginitis
4) Histoplasmosis: Wright Stain
[image]
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Term
A gross sputum examination reveals the following characteristics...what conditions/diseases do you see these characteristics in?
1) gray, white, viscous, worse in the morning. *with infection, what color does it become?
2) purulent, rust colored
3) copious yellow/green
4) purulent with foul odor |
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Definition
1) gray, white, viscous, worse in the morning= Chronic Bronchitis. *with infection, becomes yellow or green
2) purulent, rust colored=pneumococcus (S. pneumoniae)
3) copious yellow/green=bronchiectasis (chronic COPD, CF pts)
4) purulent with foul odor= lung abcess (anaerobic bacteria) |
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Term
What procedure uses a thin fiberoptic tube placed via nose or mouth with a camera at the tip? |
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Definition
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Term
PPD for TB
1) read within...
2) measure what area?
3) % of pts that have active disease and neg PPD?
4) positive PPD indicates...
5) Requierments for +PPD @ 5mm, 10mm, 15mm |
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Definition
1) read within 48-72 hrs
2) measure INDURATED area (not erythema)
3) % of pts that have active disease and neg PPD= 25%
4) positive PPD indicates exposure to TB, not necessarily active...TREAT and get CXR.
5) Requierments for +PPD @
5mm: recent exposure, abnml CXR, immunosuppressed pts
10mm:foreign born, underserved, IV drug users, long term facility residents, medical staff.
15mm: no known risk factors. |
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Term
Scan performed by inhalation of a radioactive gas or nebulized aerosol of radioactive particles. Then scan performed by injecting radiolabeled particles into blood which become lodged in pulm capillary bed in normal regions.
What test is this? Indications? What is abnml? Not sufficient in what pts? |
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Definition
Ventilation/Perfusion Scan (V/Q) scan.
Evaluate for PE or Pre-op lung function studies.
If blockage, certain areas in lung don't pick up radiolabelled particles (PE blood clot)= V/Q mismatch.
Not sufficient in pts with scarring of lung tissue (COPD) b/c there may be perfusion defect and abnml ventilation. |
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Term
What is the gold standard of a PE evaluation? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a bedside procedure to drain and diagnose an effusion? |
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Definition
Thoracentesis: quick way to dx cancer, infection, CHF. Also therapeutic. *CHF pts can drain their own catheters. |
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Term
4 types of pleural effusions:
1) white, milky-chylothorax, malignancy, emphysema. From lymphatics. *What is pseudo?*
2) from trauma, malignancy, PE (>100K RBC/mm3). *Hematocrit % Requirement?*
3) CHF, cirrhosis, renal failure, PE. *Tx?*
4) infectious, malignancy, PE. Most dangerous. Dark, turbid fluid. |
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Definition
1) Chylous: white, milky-chylothorax, malignancy, emphysema. From lymphatics. *pseudo: RA with crystals.
2) Hemorrhagic: from trauma, malignancy, PE (>100K RBC/mm3). *Requires more than 50% hemtocrit in fluid (to make sure it is not just a tint of blood).
3) Transudative: CHF, cirrhosis, renal failure, PE. *Tx: drain and forget about it.
4) Exudative: infectious, malignancy, PE. Most dangerous. Dark, turbid fluid. |
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Term
To qualify as an exudative effusions rather than transudative: |
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Definition
meet AT LEAST ONE of the following criteria:
-Pleural fluid TPr : serum TPr >0.5
-Pleural fluid LDH : serum LDH >0.6
-Pleural fluid LDH > 200 or more than 2/3 top normal for lab
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Term
PLeural Fluid Dx:
1) If WBC >1,000, suggests...
2) If WBC >10,000, suggests...
3) >50% lymphocytes, 2 differentials...
4) When would your differential include acute inflammation (PE, TB, pneumonia)?
5) When would your differential include pneumonia, TB, malignancy, rheumatoid effusion.
6) A right side pleural effusion and elevated pleural fluid amylase, what 2 suspects?
7) a pH<7.2 or pos gram stain indicates what? requires what? |
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Definition
1) Exudative Effusion: WBC >1,000 ?
2) Infection: WBC >10,000
3) TB, Malignancy >50% lymphocytes (B, T cells)
4) PMN predominance (neutrophils, esinophils, basophils)= acute inflammation (PE, TB, pneumonia)
5) Glucose<60= pneumonia, TB, malignancy, rheumatoid effusion.
Glucose is decreased with cancer, bacterial infections, or rheumatoid pleuritis.
6) Pancreatitis, Esophageal Rupture= A right side pleural effusion and pleural fluid amylase>serum
Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of esophageal rupture, pancreatic pleural effusion, or cancer.
7) Empyema** requiring chest tube drainage: pH<7.2 or pos gram stain
Pleural fluid pH is low in empyema (<7.2) and may be low in cancer.
**FYI: An empyema is a collection of pus within a naturally existing anatomical cavity, such as the lung pleura. It must be differentiated from an abscess, which is a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity.Usually an empyema starts with pneumonia, followed by a parapneumonic effusion. This effusion, which starts out sterile, then becomes infected. As the infection progresses, the thickness of the fluid increases, going from a broth type consistency to concrete. When the fluid is still free flowing, it can be treated with a thoracentesis or a chest drain. When it thickens, it can usually be treated with thoracoscopy |
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Term
What test would you use to ID cause of dyspnea, measure effect of disease or med like Albuterol, follow course of disease process?
What is required for adequate interpretation? |
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Definition
PFT (pulmonary function tests)
PFT is adequate for interpretation ONLY if pt exhales for 6 seconds
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Term
PFTs:
1) largest volume measured on complete exhalation after full inspiration
2) #1 above, but slowly. *What can this demonstrate?
3) #1 above, but with max force. *In what diseases is this low?
4) Volume of gas exhaled over 1st second during #3.
5) FEV-1%=
6) Average rate of flow during middle half of volume expire during FVC. *This is dependent on what?
7) Max flow obtained during FVC maneuver. |
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Definition
1) Vital Capacity (VC): largest volume measured on complete exhalation after full inspiration
2) Slow vital capacity (SVC): #1 above, but slowly. *Can demonstrate possible obstruction*
3) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): #1 above, but with max force. *lower in obstructive diseases*
4) FEV-1: Volume of gas exhaled over 1st second during #3.
5) FEV-1%= (FEV-1/FVC) x100
6) FEF 25-75%: Average rate of flow during middle half of volume expire during FVC. *This is dependent on pt's size.
7) Peak Flow: Max flow obtained during FVC maneuver. |
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Term
obstruction vs restriction (as per Dr. Maouelainin)
1) FEV-1.....incr/decr/nml
2) FVC........incr/decr/nml
3) FEV-1%...%/incr/decr/nml
4) TLC.........incr/decr/nml
5) FRC.........incr/decr/nml
6) Lung elasticity..........nml/elastic/stiff
7) Elastic Recoil............nml/low/high
8) Airway resistance......nml/low/high
9) Expiratory Flow rate...low/high
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Definition
Test
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Obstructive
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Restrictive
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FEV-1
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decreased
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decreased
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FVC
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normal or decreased
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decreased
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FEV-1 %
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< 75%
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nl or increased
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TLC
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normal
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decreased
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FRC
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normal or increased
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decreased
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Obstruction
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Restriction
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Normal or elastic lungs
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Stiff lungs
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Normal or low elastic recoil
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High elastic recoil
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High airways resistance
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Nomal airways resistance
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Low expiratory flow rates
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High expiratory flow rates
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[image] |
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Term
Lung Volumes:
1) volume inspired with each breath. Based on body weight. Normal is about 5 ml/kg of ideal body wt
2) : volume of gas remaining after a maximal expiration
3) : maximum volume of gas that can be inhaled above an inhaled tidal volume
4) maximum volume of gas that can be exhaled below Functional Residual Capacity
5) : Maximum volume inspired from resting volume. Give formula
6) maximum volume of gas that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration. (give formula)
7) : maximum volume of gas that the lungs can contain. *What do you need to obtain this? Give 2 formulas |
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Definition
Tidal volume (TV): volume inspired with each breath. Based on body weight. Normal is about 5 ml/kg of ideal body wt
Residual volume (RV): volume of gas remaining after a maximal expiration
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): maximum volume of gas that can be inhaled above an inhaled tidal volume
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV): maximum volume of gas that can be exhaled below FRC
Inspiratory capacity (IC): Maximum volume inspired from resting volume
IC = TV +IRV
Vital Capacity (VC): maximum volume of gas that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration.
VC = IRV + TV + ERV
Functional residual capacity (FRC): volume of gas remaining in the lung after a normal expired tidal volume
FRC = RV + ERV
Total lung capacity (TLC): maximum volume of gas that the lungs can contain. Need this number given or need body box to measure.
TLC = VC +RV
TLC = FRC + IC
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Term
Volume where the inward elastic recoil forces of the lungs are exactly equal to the outward forces of the chest wall.
¨Resting position¨
What is this?
What occurs here?
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Definition
Functional Residual Capacity
Volume where gas exchange occurs.
[image] |
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Term
A Bronchodilator response from an asthma attack defined as meeting what 3 criteria?
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Definition
Bronchodilator response defined as:
- 12% improvement in FEV-1 AND at least 200cc improvement
OR
- 12% improvement in FVC AND at least 200cc improvement.
OR
- 30-40%* improvement in FEF 25-75%
*Note: Dr. Schullman said 30%, Dr. Mauelaninin said 40%. |
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Term
Pulmonary Diseases that cause impaired gas diffusion:
1) loss of surface area for gas exchange (3)
2) thickening of aveolar/capillary membrane (2) |
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Definition
1) emphysema, pulm fibrosis, lung resection*
2) pulm fibrosis, edema fluid
*A lung resection is a surgical procedure to remove a portion of the lung or the whole lung. |
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Term
Usually acute infectious inflammation involving trachea, bronchi, and smaller bronchioles. Lower resp tract infection without infiltrates or consolidation on CXR |
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Definition
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Term
Acute Bronchitis
1) Etiology in pts without underlying lung disease
2) Etiology in smokers or pts with underlying lung disease |
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Definition
1) Virus in 80% of cases or mycoplasma or chlamydia
2) Bacterial agents: S. pneumonia, H. influenza, M. catarrhalis, B. pertussis |
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Term
Pt has dry hacking cough with little sputum that later became copious, purulent, or blood streaked. Pt had a URI a couple weeks ago, felt better, and then there was a gradual onset of this cough.
Assoc Sx: fever, chills, low sternal chest pain, cough, SOB, wheezing, runny nose, scratchy throat.
Pulse=norm/elev
Resp=norm/elev
URT sx may be present: conjunctival & mucosa injection
Accessory muscle use, nasal flaring, bulge/retract of IC spaces.
Fremitus=norm
Resp/diaphragmatic expansion=norm.
Percuss=resonance
Auscult=bronchovesicular pattern, ronchi, possible wheeze, no egophony. |
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Definition
Acute Bronchitis
Fever=elevated HR
Respirations could be elevated b/c of bronchospasm.
BP incr if pt is hypoxic during bronchospasm |
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Term
Pt has cough, low grade fever, predominante mucous membrane involvement, malaise, aches, pains.
Lung exam reveals ronchi, and nothing else notable.
What is condition and etiology? |
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Definition
Suggestive of Acute Bronchitis with viral or mycoplasmic origin. |
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Term
Pt is smoker and has chronic lung disease. Pt Has cough, high fever, productive mucopurulent cough, chest pain.
Lung exam reveals ronchi, and nothing else notable.
What is condition and etiology? |
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Definition
Acute Bronchitis with bacterial origin...suspect H. influenzae |
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Term
Managment of Acute Bronchitis:
1) Avoid use of what?
2) what can you recommend at night?
3) What can help alleviate bronchiole inflammation?
4) ABX? |
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Definition
1) avoid antihistamine: they will dry pt up.
2) cough suppressants at night: DXM ,codeine sulfate.
3) steroidal inhaler.
4) ABX rarely indicated: depends on pt age, PMH, and clinical picture.
Stay hydrated, get rest, stop smoking. |
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Term
Inflammatory process of the lung parenchyma typically infectious in nature. This is an LRI with CXR changes that can occur rapidly. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most common cause of death due to infectious disease, the 6th leading cause of death overall, and accounts for 3% of all hospitalizations in USA? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 3 major mechanisms that microbes gain entry to cause pneumonia?
What is the most common pathogen of pneumonia?
What are the 2 classifications of pneumonia? |
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Definition
#1) Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions
2) Aerosol inhalation (TB, fungal)
3) hematogenous spread (IV drug abuser or stab wounds)
S. pneumonia (CAP) most common pathogen in pneumonia.
2 classifications: CAP & nosocomial |
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Term
S. pneumoniae:
1) most common cause of...
2) morphology/gram stain
3) typically follows...
4) seen in pts with what disease... |
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Definition
1) CAP pneumonia
2) gram positive diplococci
3) follows URI
4) chronic cardiopulmonary disease. |
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Term
This is a gram-neg diplococci that causes CAP. Typically follows URI. Assoc ith COPD & heart disease pts |
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Definition
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Term
This is a gram-neg diplococci that causes CAP. Usually seen in elderly, pts with COPD, or pts on immunosuppressive therapy.
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Definition
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Term
These organsisms are mixed oral flora associated with periodontal disease and aspiration. They cause both CAP and nosocomial pneumonia with pts on ventilators.
The pneumonia is often more severe. |
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Definition
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Term
These are the 3rd most common cause of pneumonia. Usually Seen in epidemic outbreaks (not sporadic) and spread by droplets. No gram stain.
Give two examples. |
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Definition
Viruses (CAP)...adenovirus and influenza |
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Term
This is the most common cause of CAP in young adults. No gram stain (why?). |
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Definition
Mycoplasma (M. pneumoniae)
No gram stain b/c no cell wall. |
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Term
This causes mild CAP in teens and young adults. Sore throat/horseness common. No gram stain. Prodromal sx (myalgia, arthroalgia) last longer. |
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Definition
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Term
This is a ubiquitous, CAP-causing microbe that does not gram stain well (but is a gram neg rod). Found in contaminated soil, water, cooling systems. |
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Definition
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Term
Nosocomial Pneumonia
1) When do symptoms occur?
2) Freq seen in what pts (2)?
3) Common organisms (6) EPPSSK |
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Definition
1) >48 hrs after admission
2) ICU and mechanical ventilation pt
3) S. aureus, E. coli, P.aeruginosa, Klebsilla, Proteus, Serratia. |
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Term
Important Historical Data and Pneumonia:
1) Age: what etiology is more common in young vs. old?
2) Season: what is seen throughout (1), summer/fall (3), winter/spring (1)
3) What vaccines are important to ask about (what are their durations)
4) Social Hx: southwest, mississippi border, cruises
5) Occupation:
contruction/HVAC guys, hunters/farmers, bird handlers |
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Definition
1) young=viral & mycoplasma
old=bacterial
2) throughout: S. pneumonia
summer/fall: Mycoplasma, Legionella, viruses
winter/spring: influenza
3) Pneumococcal (Pneumovax)= 6 yr duration.
Influenza: give annually
4)
southwest: coccidiomycosis
MI border: histoplasmosis
Cruise: legionella
5)
Construction/HVAC=legionella
Hunter/farmer= Q fever*
Bird handlers=Psittacosis*
*Q fever is a worldwide, zoonotic (cattle, sheep, goats) disease caused by the gram-negative, obligate, intracellular bacterium Coxiella burnetii. The disease presents in 2 forms: acute infection (a self-limiting febrile illness with varying degrees of pneumonia and hepatitis) and chronic infection (mainly endocarditis).
*Chlamydophila psittaci is both a respiratory and an ocular pathogen acquired from domesticated or commercially raised birds, mammals, exotic imported birds, and feral animals.
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Term
Sudden onset of high fever, tachycardia, hypotensive, 1 set of shaking chills, cough productive of purulent sputum, rust-colored.
Pt may have or have had URI.
1) What is this?
2) prodromal sx?
3) CXR
4) Lung exam:
inspection
resp expansion
tactile frem
percussion
Auscultation: what is the hallmark sound? What sounds are less diagnostic (30% cases)?
5) IF...
Trachea displaced to contralat side.
Tactile Frem=decr/absent
Breath Sounds=decr/absent
Pleural friction rub might be present.
what is your dx?
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Definition
Bacterial Pneumonia= pneumococcal
2) uncommon to get prodromal sx
3) lobar consolidation on CXR
4) Lung exam:
inspection=resp distress
resp expansion=norm/decr (splinting)
tactile frem=incr over consolidation
percuss=dull over consolidation
Auscultaton= bronchial sounds over consolidation, rales/wet crackles (80% cases), broncho/ego/WP (<30%).
5) with pleural effusion.
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Term
Onset insidious and slow with classic prodromal sx of headache, myalgia, arthralgia, malaise, photophobia.
Typically follow URI.
Low grade/absent fever
cough with scanty mucus production
Minimal dyspnea
rare pleuretic chest pain
CXR with patchy/diffuse infiltrates
Rales/crackles on lung exam
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Definition
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Term
Bullous myringitis in TM is a finding of what? |
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Definition
Mycoplasmic pneumonia (atyp) |
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Term
Pneumonia Pathogens:
Gross inspection of sputum:
1) thick, yellow, foul smelling
2) thick, purulent, minimal odor
3) scanty, clear, mucopurulent
4) rust color
5) thick currant jelly
6) grossly bloody |
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Definition
1) thick, yellow, foul smelling= anaerobes
2) thick, purulent, minimal odor=bacterial
3) scanty, clear, mucopurulent=viral/atyp
4) rust color=pneumococcal
5) thick currant jelly=Klebsiella
6) grossly bloody=TB
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Term
What pnuemonia are you more likely to see leukocytosis (incr WBC) with a left shift and leukopenia with overwhelming sepsis? |
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Definition
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Term
Pharma tx of pneumonia
1) youth with mycoplasma
2) 2 other ABXs |
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Definition
1) macrolides/erythromycen
2) doxy or fluroquinolones (leviquin) |
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Term
38 y/o female with sudden onset of SOB, cough productive of thick rust color sputum, high fever, shaking chills x 1-day.
PE: fits of coughing, fever, resp 24, HR 100 regular, B/P 128/78. Skin warm, dry, rapid turgor. HEENT unremarkable.
Lung Exam: tact frem incr, dullness to percussion, and bronchial breath sounds with crackles and egophony in RLL.
1) Clin dx & etiological agent
2) labs to order (4) and results
3) Tx |
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Definition
1) bacterial pneumonia (pneumococcal or s. pneumonia) in RLL.
2) CXR=lobar consolidation
sputum culture/stain=gram positive diplococci
CBC=leukocytosis with left shift (younger)
Blood Culture=negative
3) f/u 24 hrs. ABX: macrolide/b-lactamase inhibitor: AM-CL or cephalosporin cefuroxime axetil, supportive care. |
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Term
What are the top 4 leading causes of mortality in the US? |
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Definition
1) Heart Disease
2) CA
3) Stroke
4) COPD |
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Term
Disease characterized by airflow limitation.
Sx: cough, dyspnea, sputum production.
1) What is the disease
2) List spirometry values for classification of mild and moderate.
3) #1 risk factor
4) genetic factor |
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Definition
1) COPD
2) mild: FEV-1% <70% & FEV1>80%
moderate: FEV-1% <70% & FEV1<80%
3) smoking
4) a1-antitrypsin deficiency=leads to destruction of airways.
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Term
What is the leading cause of hospitalizations for adults? Why are these numbers increasing? |
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Definition
COPD
Smoking habits and aging population=increase in prevalance. |
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Term
chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways with episodic or chronic airway obstruction.
Sx: wheezing, SOB, cough, chest tightness
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Definition
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Term
Influenza
1) Types
2) Resevior
3) Transmission
4) incubation
5) Time of year most prevalent
6) Sx and recovery time
7) people at risk for complications |
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Definition
1) A,B,C viruses
2) humans, swine, birds
3) airborne
4) incubation 3-7 days
5) Winter/Spring occurence
6) fever, headache, myalgia, soar throat, cough with recovery in 2-7 days
7)6mos-3yrs, >65yrs, pregnancy, immunocompromised people, chronic diseases |
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Term
Pneumococcal Pneumonia
1) Pathogen
2) Resevior
3) Transmission
4) incubation
5) Occurence season
6) sx
7) other illnesses that the pathogen causes
8) ethnic populations at risk
9) immunization and booster recommendations: for geriatrics, adults with chronic disease, children, alaskan natives/nat americans |
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Definition
1) S. pneumoniae
2) Humans - upper resp tract
3) Droplet, direct oral, indirect by touching soiled articles with resp discharge.
4) 1-3 days
5) winter/spring
6) fever, chills, dyspnea, productive cough, pleuretic chest pain.
7) URIs, otitis media, sinusitis, meningitis, bacteremia, pneumonia
8) Af Amer, Alaskan natives, native americans
9) immunization: (pneumococcal polysacchride vaccine PPV):
>65yrs, no booster needed
adults w/ chronic condition every 5yrs.
al natives/nat americans>2y/o.
children 2-23 mnths |
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Term
COPD:
1) Anatomic definition
&
2) Clinical Definition |
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Definition
1) Anatomic definition= Emphysema: permanent enlargement of gas-exchanging units in assoc with destruction of aveolar walls and without obvious fibrosis
&
2) Clinical Definition=Chronic bronchitis: condition assoc with excessive mucous sufficient to cause cough > 3mnths/yr for 2 cnsecutive years, excluding other causes. Think cigarettes
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Term
Obstructive or restrictive?
1) FEV1%<70%
2) Decreased TLC |
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Definition
1) Obstructive
2) Restrictive |
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Term
permanent enlargement of gas-exchanging units in assoc with destruction of aveolar walls and without obvious fibrosis |
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Definition
Emphysema
anatamical definition of COPD |
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Term
condition assoc with excessive mucous sufficient to cause cough > 3mnths/yr for 2 cnsecutive years, excluding other causes. Think cigarettes
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Definition
Clinical Definition of COPD=Chronic bronchitis: |
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Term
State and Justify FEV-1%, FVC, and FEV-1 in obstructive lung disease as defined by Dr. Schulman.
State three obstructive lung diseases.
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Definition
FVC=normal, in more severe cases it is reduced
the person can get the air out, it just takes longer, but FVC doesn´t measure time, just volume, so it is normal.
FEV-1= reduced (<80% predicted)
the person cannot get as much air out in the 1st second of the test.
FEV-1%<70%
Since FEV-1% is the ratio of FEV-1:FVC, if FVC remains the same, but FEV-1 decreases, then the ration will decrease.
Asthma, Emphysema*, Chronic Bronchitis*
*Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis are SUBTYPES of COPD* |
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Term
What is the difference between Centriacinar and Panacinar Emphysema |
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Definition
Centrianicar: initial dilation of respiratory bronchioles.
Panacinar: initial distention of peripheral structures (aveolus and associated duct).
[image]
[image] |
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Term
Lg Airways:
Increase in the size/# of mucous glands, goblet cells, smooth muscle, focal squamous metaplasia.
Ciliary abnormalities.
Partial destruction of bronchial cartilage.
Incr in neutrophils (inflamm).
Small airways:
lumen occlusion by mucus and inflamm cells
fibrosis in walls |
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Definition
Chronic Bronchitis (Obstructive) |
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Term
Emphysema vs Chronic Bronchitis
1) Major sx
2) appearance
3) PO2
4) PCO2
5) Elastic Recoil of Lung
6) Diffusing capacity
7) Hematocrit
8) Cor pulmonale |
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Definition
Emphysema vs Chronic Bronchitis
1) Major sx....dyspnea vs. cough/sputum
2) appearance...thin, wasted vs. obese, cyanotic
3) PO2...decr vs. very decr
4) PCO2...norm/decr vs. norm/incr
5) Elastic Recoil of Lung...der vs. norm
6) Diffusing capacity...very decr vs. norm/slight decr
7) Hematocrit...norm vs. sometimes incr
8) Cor pulmonale*...infreq vs. common
*Cor pulmonale is failure of the right side of the heart brought on by long-term high blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries and right ventricle of the heart
Chronic Bronchitis: mostly central cells destroyed. Periphery is OK for gas exchange. Pulmonary HTN occurs early. When hypoxemia, hypercarbia, and acidosis develop in chronic bronchitis, they cause pulmonary artery vasoconstriction, which increases pulmonary vascular resistance and, again, results in pulmonary hypertension that leads to irreversible vascular changes. If untreated, the increased pulmonary artery pressure will eventually “overload” the right ventricle.
Emphysema: In emphysema, the capillary bed is progressively and irreversibly destroyed, which eventually raises pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary artery pressure. Persistent and worsening pulmonary hypertension, in turn, finally results in cor pulmonale. Cor pulmonale usually appears only in the very advanced stages of emphysema.
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Term
Cough is frequently the 1st sx of this disease. Cough and sputum may precede development of airflow limitation for many years.
Dyspnea
FEV1 post bronchodilator<80% predicted in combination with FEV-1%<70% |
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Definition
COPD - with this condition, pulmonary function will NEVER be normalized. Permanent. |
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Term
The condition results from an imbalance between proteinases and antiproteinases in favor of proteinases.
What condition?
What inhibits proteolytic enzymes in the lung? |
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Definition
Emphysema
Alpha-1-antitripsin |
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Term
what disease is associated with a barrel chest, paradoxical indrawing of lower intercostal spaces, incr respiratory rate with simple activities, wheezing, hyperressonance on percussion, lack of breath sounds on auscultation. |
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Definition
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Term
COPD
1) FEV-1% (%)
2) FEV1, FVC, Residual Volume, TLC, Funct Res capacity, DLCO incr/dec
3) ABGs (explain CO2 narcosis) |
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Definition
1) FEV-1%<70%
2) decr FEV1, FVC, DLCO (CO2 Diffusing Capacity).
incr RV, TLC, FRC
3) decr pO2, incr pCO2.
CO2 narcosis= with pCO2>70%, CO2 acts like a narcotic and you fall asleep and die...you must do something quickly! - give pt Albuterol and recheck with spirometry after 15 min.
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Term
COPD Therapy
1) smoking
2) Bronchodilators:compare b2 agonists and anticholinergics (state 2 drugs)
*combo of the two |
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Definition
1) quit smoking
2)
b2 agonists: short and long acting
anticholinergics:
ipratroprium bromide (4-6hrs) and
tiotropium bromide=Spareeva (1 inhalation=24 hrs).
min adv rxns.
Slower onset and longer duration that b2 agonists.
*Combination=20-40% additional bronchodilation. |
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Term
Theophylline
*dosage and usage. |
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Definition
Long acting bronchodilator and anti-inflammatory for COPD.
Keep dose low at 5-8ug/mL so that drug interactions don't raise it above 20 ug/mL. |
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Term
Tiotropium
1) class
2) duration
3) administration
4) tx for... |
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Definition
COPD Therapy
New generation anticholinergic. Long duration (24 hrs). Inhaled as dry powder. Tx for COPD maintenance stages II-IV |
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Term
Managemnt of COPD: All Stages
1) Avoid noxious agents (name 3)
2) Vaccinations (name 2) |
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Definition
1) Avoid cigs, air pollution, occupational exposures
2) Influenza and Pneumococcal Vaccine |
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Term
Management of COPD:
For the following stages, state the FEV-1%, FEV-1, and Sx. Also state recommended tx
1) Stg I: Mild COPD
2) Stg II: Moderate COPD
3) Stg III: Severe COPD
4) Stg IV: Very Sever COPD |
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Definition
1) FEV-1%<70%
FEV-1 >80%
W or w/o Sx
Tx: short-acting bronchodilators as needed.
2) FEV-1%<70%
50%<FEV-1 <80%
W or w/o Sx
Tx: Prn short-acting bronchodilators, reg tx with long acting bronchodilators, rehab
3) FEV-1%<70%
30%< FEV-1 <50%
W or w/o Sx
Tx: PRN short-acting bronchodilators, reg tx with long acting BDs, inhaled glucocorticosteroids if repeated exacerbations.
4)FEV-1%<70%
FEV-1 <30%
Presence of resp failure or RHF
Tx: see stg III + long-term O2 therapy if resp failure, surgical tx.
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Term
ABX for acute exacerbations of COPD (*will not eliminate organisms)
1st line
2nd line |
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Definition
1º: amox, cefaclor, bactrim
2º: azithro, clarithro, fluoroquinolones |
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Term
What is the most common pathogen for TB in the US?
State its shape, motility, living arrangement, incubation pd, growth time, and staining procedure |
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Definition
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Non-motile rod, intracellular aerobe, 3-18wk incubation, slow generation time, ACID-FAST
[image] |
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Term
Mycobacterium avium complex and Mycobacterium kanaasii cause what and what pts? |
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Definition
TB-like sx in AIDS pts....these are not TB (they are atypical and don't stain acid-fast). |
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Term
What are the key differences between TB infection and disease?
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Definition
Disease reveals CXR lesions, sputum smears positive, symptomatic, infectious (airborne droplets) |
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Term
The chances of TB transmission depend on what 4 factors? |
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Definition
organism # & conc, length of exposure, immune status of individual |
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Term
Describe the pathogenesis of TB.
Make sure to talk about how no infection results, primary TB, latent TB, reactivation, and progressive primary TB. State which stages are symptomatic.
**Which phase is biggest problem in USA?? |
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Definition
Droplet pass mucocillary clearance and carried into lung...ingested by aveolar macrophages...
...opt 1: macrophages kill bacilli & NO INFECTION results.
...opt 2: PRIMARY TB: bacilli multiply and escape macrophages. Some remain local, others disseminate via blood/lymphatics. PPD prob negative/asymptomatic at this point....can go 2 ways
#1....LATENT TB=infection: in immunocopetent pts, bacilli encased, forming granulomas. May have radiographic findings. POsitive PPD. Asymptomatic
....reactivation of LATENT TB: when immune system wanes as pt ages or develops DM. Granulomas breakdown. Bacilli in lungs migrate to apex (high O2). Sx: cough, nightsweat, fever.
#2...PROGRESSIVE PRIMARY TB=disease: in immunocompromised pts. Symptomatic
**Reactivation is biggest issue in USA. |
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Term
Insidious onset with rapid progression. Sx: fever, anorexia, weight loss, wasting, night sweats, chronic cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis.
What is this condition?
When and what do you hear upon lung auscultation?
What do you see in lung inspection?
CXR signs?
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Definition
TB.
Postussive apical rales
Signs of resp distress
POssible consolidation. |
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Term
Describe the Mantoux test and reading in FULL:
What are 2 causes of false positives? |
|
Definition
=TB skin test...
-0.1mL purified protein derivative (PPD)
injected intradermally injection via tuberculin synringe/27 gauge on volar surface of forarm.
-Read in 48-72 hrs areas on INDURATION (not erythema)
+PPD 5mm: recent exposure, radiographic evidence of old TB, HIV+, organ transplants, immunosuppressed, PREDNISONE>1mnth.
10mm: immigration from endemic area<5yrs, IV druggies, hospital workers, institutionals, DM, Chronic Renal Failure, Silicosis, Gastrectomy, lymphomas/leukemia, CA of ENT/lung, weight loss >10% body weight.
15mm: no risk factors.
False positive PPD: BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) Vaccine or Non-TB mycobacteria (MAC, M. Kansasii)
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Term
What would be a positive PPD for....
1) Organ transplant pt
2) Hospital Worker
3) a person who just lost more than 10% of their ideal body weight.
4) Silicosis*
5) HIV
6) Hx of old TB
7)Immigrant from endemic area that moved here 4 yrs ago
8) hospital workers
9) Lymphoma, Leukemia, ENT, Lung Cancers
10) jailed up
11) heroin addict
12) Person on prednisone* for 2 months
13) DM |
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Definition
1) Organ transplant pt= 5mm
2) Hospital Worker=10mm
3) a person who just lost more than 10% of their ideal body weight=10mm
4) Silicosis*=5mm
5) HIV+=5mm
6) Hx of old TB=5mm
7)Immigrant from endemic area that moved here 4 yrs ago=10mm
8) hospital workers=10mm
9) Lymphoma, Leukemia, ENT, Lung Cancers=10mm
10) jailed up=10mm
11) heroin addict=10mm
12) Person on prednisone* for 2 months=5mm
13) DM=10mm
*Silicosis: Chronic lung diseases caused by exposure to a mineral dust or a metal. The major pneumoconioses include asbestosis, silicosis, coal workers' pneumoconiosis (black lung disease), and chronic beryllium disease.
*Prednisone is a synthetic corticosteroid drug that is particularly effective as an immunosuppressant, and affects virtually all of the immune system. It is used to treat certain inflammatory diseases and (at higher doses) cancers, but has significant adverse effects.
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Term
What is the standard method of TB testing for healthcare workers?
Describe the 3 possible results.
What is a true conversion? |
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Definition
2-step testing.
PPD planted than replanted in 1-3 wks.
(-)(-)=(-)
(+)=(+)
(-)(+)= booster phenomenon awoke immune system, not a recent converter.
True converter= incr in >/=10mm induration within 2 year pd. |
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Term
CXR for TB. What TB stage are the following findings?
1) Infiltrates, nodules, cavitary disease, miliary lesions
2) Cavitation
3) Inflitrate in middle or lower lobes, possible hilar/paratracheal adenopathy, segmental atelectasis, pleural effusion
4) Ghon (calcified primary focus) & Ranke (calcified hilar lymph node) complexes |
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Definition
1)REACTIVATION: Infiltrates, nodules, cavitary disease, miliary lesions
2) PROGRESSIVE PRIMARY: Cavitation
3) PRIMARY TB: Inflitrate in middle or lower lobes, possible hilar/paratracheal adenopathy, segmental atelectasis, pleural effusion
4) LATENT TB: Ghon (calcified primary focus) & Ranke (calcified hilar lymph node) complexes
[image]
1=ghon focus
2=hilar lymph node infected with TB
[image]this arrow shows a cavity of TB
**MILIARY: Its name comes from a distinctive pattern seen on a chest X-ray of many tiny spots distributed throughout the lung fields with the appearance similar to millet seeds, thus the term "miliary" tuberculosis. Miliary TB may infect any number of organs including the lungs, liver, and spleen. It is a complication of 1-3% of all TB cases
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Term
In the dx of TB, what % of cases have positive sputum smears for AFB? What does a positive sputum smear mean for infectivity?
What is used for a DEFINITIVE Dx of M.tb? (Give percent sensitivity). What is the problem with this method (and an alternative to the problem). |
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Definition
Only 50% of TB cases have positive sputum smears for AFB. Positive smears=more infectivity.
Sputum Culture used for def dx and is positive in 80% of cases. BUT, it can take days to weeks, depending on growth medium. Nucleic acid amplification is faster. |
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Term
Tx of latent TB in immunocompetent and immunocompromised hosts.
When do you do LFTs? |
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Definition
Immunocompetent:
Isoniazid (INH) + Pyridoxine (Vit B6) x 9mnths
*LFTs if HIV, preggers, liver disease, alcohol.
Immunocompromised (or can't do 9 mnths):
Rifampin (10mg/kg to max 600mg) x
4mnths
OR
Rifampin or rifabutin with pyrazinamide (PZA) x 2mnths.
*check LFT baseline, and at 2,4,6 weeks |
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Term
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Definition
start with 4 drug therapy in areas with greater than 4% drug resistance
Isolate pt or N95 respiratory masks. Discontinue if recieved meds for 10-14d, not coughing, or AFB smears neg |
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Term
a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways due to increased hyperresponsiveness.
Sx: recurrent wheezing, coughing, SOB.
Often reversible spontaneously or with tx.
FEV-1% reduced |
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Definition
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Term
In Asthma FEV-1% is increased or decreased? |
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Definition
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Term
Name 3 asthmatic PREFORMED inflammatory mediators and 2 effects.
What is airway remodelling? (Cause and reversibility) |
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Definition
Histamine, Serotonin, Proteolytic Enzymes
Effects: direct bronchoconstriction (smooth muscle stimulation) and disruption of epithelial layer (swelling, edema)
Airway remodelling caused by inadequate tx of asthma with solely bronchodilators...you need to tx with anti-inflammatories as well. THis is irreversible! |
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Term
Pt presents with acute episode of wheezing, SOB, chest tightness, chest pain, sputum production, and cough (which may be present without wheezing)
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Definition
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Term
Name triggers of asthma
environmental
infections
drugs
diseases |
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Definition
allergens, sdtress, changes in weather, exercise, cold air, strong emotion
viral infections, chemicals, drugs (b-blockers, NSAIDS), additives (sulfites), GERD, endocrine (pregnancy) |
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Term
Wheezing without response from bronchodilators. Pt sounds fine when he talks, but when silent, a stridor/wheeze returns. |
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Definition
Laryngeal Asthma
(vocal cords should open with inspiration/expiration)
*this is not really asthma: just a misnomer* |
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Term
Dx of Asthma
1) Hx
2) Physical Exam:
2a) Lung Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation (*what does it mean if nothing heard during attack?)
2b) RR, HR, speech
3) PFTs:
3a) During attack, FEV-1%=?. What does this qualify as? When does it improve?
3b) 3 bronchodilator responses
3c) Peak flow variability for dx.
3d) 3 Bronchoprovovation Tests
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Definition
hx: reccurrent attacks triggerred by asthma triggers with return of functions betwn episodes. Helpful if FH of asthma.
2) Phys Exam:
a) Airtrapping (incr AP diam), accessory muscles, hyperress on percussion, Wheezing. *No wheezing during attack=large mucous plug)
b) tachypnea, tachycardia, speech fragmented
3) PFT-
3a) FEV-1%<75%=obstructive lung disease. Improves with bronchodilators.
3b)Meet 1 of 3
*12% in FEV-1 AND >200cc improvement
*12% in FVC AND >200cc improvement
*30% FEF 25-75% improvement
3c) Peak flow meter (cheaper than spirometry) >20% variatiability.
3d) Nonspecific (methacholine, histamine, carbachol), cold air challenge, exercise challenge. |
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Term
What is the best anti-inflammatory agent to give asthmatics? Why? How do they work on a cellular level? |
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Definition
Corticosteroids: Inhaled -
-most common
-don´t cross into blood= high potency but low absorption = less adv rxns.
-Block production of arachidonic acid metabolites (no PGD2, no leukotrienes) by blocking phospholipase A2 enzyme...prevents inflamm cell influx and activation in airway. |
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Term
Which 2 asthma drugs (1class) prevent the degranulation and release of mast cell mediators and therebye prevent airway inflammation?
Used more commonly in what age group and why?
What are 2 negatives about these drugs?
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Definition
Mast cell inhibitors: Cromolyn, Nedocromil
Used more commonly in children to avoid inhaled steroid use which is shown to slow, not stunt, growth.
Cause cough and tastes bad. |
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Term
What anti-inflammatory agent would you use to treat an asthmatic with RA?
What do you need to monitor while pt is on this drug? |
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Definition
Zileuton: prevents production of all leukotrienes
*RA: can't give steroidal.
**This drug can cause liver function impairment...monitor LFTs** |
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Term
What is the most potent class of bronchodilators for asthma tx and preferrred administration route?
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Definition
B2 selective agonists. inhaled. |
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Term
Which family of drugs are potent bronchodilators but their toxic effects of GI and cardiac systems limit usefulness in treating asthmatics? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a commonly used inhaled anticholinergic agent to cause bronchodilation (relaxion of smooth muscle) in asthmatics?
-When/how is it most useful?
-What disease is it more useful in treating? |
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Definition
Ipratropium Bromide
-Most useful as additive withe B2-agonist in severe acute asthma attack
-More useful in treating COPD |
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Term
Asthma Summary:
•Asthma is a chronic disease characterized by _________ and ___________.
•Asthma may present with ______ and _______, or less typical symptoms of chest pain, cough, or sputum production
•Asthma responds well to a “________” of increasing _________ agents and using __________ agents as “rescue” for symptoms
•Control of asthma symptoms can be optimized with good _________ and _________.
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Definition
•Asthma is a chronic disease characterized by inflammation and bronchospasm
•Asthma may present with wheezing and dyspnea, or less typical symptoms of chest pain, cough, or sputum production
•Asthma responds well to a “step approach” of increasing anti-inflammatory agents and using bronchodilator agents as “rescue” for symptoms
•Control of asthma symptoms can be optimized with good patient education and monitoring |
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Term
Decreased lung compliance, reduced TLC, reduced diffusing capacity, and hypoxemia (early on with excercise, later at rest as well) is characteristic of what type of lung disease? |
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Definition
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Term
A 57 y.o. smoker presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion and dry cough over 6 months. He has worked as an accountant all his life, has no pets and denies known occupational exposures.
Physical exam:
fine bilateral inspiratory crackles
+1 digital clubbing,
ABG: pH = 7.42, PO2 = 57 mmHg, PCO2 = 39 mmHg
Lab Tests: Unremarkable ANA and RF both positive at 1:40 titer.
PFT’s:
FVC 64% predicted
FEV1 62% predicted,
FEV1/FVC 80%
TLC 60% predicted,
DLCO 38% predicted
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Definition
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis-
-insidious onset on Sx in middle aged and older pts
-associated with tobacco (75%)
-HRCT (high res CT): peripheral/subplueral abnmlities
-CV seroligies (ANA, RF) low titer and non-specific
-Surgical lung biopsy for Dx
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Term
In the following collagen vascular diseases (state the full name), which lung diseases do you see (can choose more than 1).
Collagen Vascular Diseases
1) SLE
2) RA
3) PSS
4) SS
5) PM/DM
6) MCTD
Choices of Lung Diseases
a) pleural disease
b) insterstitial pneumonia
c) atelectasis
d) parenchymal nodules |
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Definition
Collagen Vascular Diseases:
1) SLE (lupus): Pleural Disease, Atelectasis, ISpneumonia
2) RA (rheuma arth): IS pneumo, Pleural disease, parenchymal nodules
3) PSS (progressive systemic sclerosis): IS pneumonia
4) SS (sickle cell): IS pneumo
5) PM/DM (polymyositis/Diabetes): atelectasis, IS pneumo
6) MCTD ( mixed connective tissue disease): IS pneumonia
Choices of Lung Diseases
a) pleural disease
b) insterstitial pneumonia
c) atelectasis
d) parenchymal nodules |
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Term
This disease is the prototype of interstitial lung disease. Sx have insidious onset in middle aged and elderly individuals. There is associated with tobacco use. High Res CT (HRCT) shows peripheral/subpleural abnmlities. Blood has low titer ANA, RF. There is no proven effective therapy and poor prognosis= 50% have 5-yr survival. |
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Definition
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis |
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Term
A 32 y.o. female presents with one week of raised, red, tender skin lesion on her legs, knee and ankle pain (anthralgias), and dry cough.
PE: temperature is 100ºF; lungs are clear to auscultation.
CXR displays bilat hilar adenopathy (BHA).
What is the dx? (*What is the rash?)
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Definition
Sarcoidosis with Lofgrens Syndrome
Characterised by:
*Erythema Nodosum
Anthralgias
Bilat hilar adenopathy Fever |
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Term
This disease is characterized by development of non-caseating granulomas in 1 or more organs.
Unknown etiology, tho may be hypersensitivity rxn.
Onset in young adults, females>males, blacks>whites (in US).
Labs reveal hypercalcemia, elevated LFTs, elevated ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme)*.
What is this? What is the most common organ involved in 90% of cases? What is a good Dx method?
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Definition
Sarcoidosis:
Can involve any organ, but resp system most common (90%)
Dx by biopsy, for lung=bronchoscopy.
ACE* Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme: ACE is ordered when you have sx such as granulomas, chronic cough or SOB, red watery eyes, and/or joint pain that may be due to sarcoidosis or to another disorder. This is especially true if you are between 20 and 40 years of age, when sarcoidosis is most frequently seen. |
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Term
This disease appears more frequently in white smokers.
Presentation of dyspnea, cough, spontaneous PTX.
CXR: upper/middle lobe ILD, no costophrenic angle involvement.
CT scan: upper lobe cysts w/ small peribronchial stellate nodules.
What is the Dx?
What is the pathology? (state cells, granules, and antigen stain)
What is the Tx |
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Definition
Pulmonary Langerhans' Cell Histiocytosis
Pathology: Langerhan's cells with Birbeck granules and positive staining for CD1a antigen.
Tx: d/c cigs, ¿corticosteroids? |
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Term
Interstitial lung disease with onset 20+ years after exposure (often occupational exposure: miners, insulators, boiler workers, ship yard workers, pipe fitters, sheet metal workers, and spouses of stated occupations).
What is this and what are 4 other manifestations (2 benign, 2 malignant) of this exposure? |
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Definition
Asbetosis.
Other manifestations of asbestos:
1) Pleural Plaques - benign pleural thickening; marker of asbestos exposure.
2) Benign asbestos pleural effusion
3) Lung CA
4) Mesothelioma: highly fatal malignancy 30-40 years after exposure onset. No therapy. Unrelated to pleural plaques. |
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Term
Rare disorder of surfactant metabolism resulting in accumulation of abnorml lipids and proteins in aveolar spaces.
2º cases (10%) causes: hematologic malignancies, acute silica exposure.
CXR: bilat peripheral airspace disease (batwint/butterfly) resembling pulm edema.
HRCT: crazy paving= patchy ground-glass and interstitial opacities.
BAL (bronchoaveolar lavage): milky white, PAS(?) positive, lipid macrophages.
What is the DX and TX? |
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Definition
Dx: Pulmonary Aveolar Proteinosis
Tx: Whole lung lavage via ET tube
New GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor) |
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Term
A 47 y.o. male presents with acute onset of dyspnea, dry cough, fever and myalgias.
PE: T=101°, bilateral inspiratory crackles
CXR: Bilateral fine reticular markings greatest in the mid lung fields.
PMH:
-2 hospitalizations for pneumonia within the last year, with complete response to a course of azithromycin.
SH: 40 pack-year of smoking history and works as a laborer on a local farm
LAB:
-Stains and cultures of sputum and bronchoalveolar lavage specimen = clear.
-Transbronchial biopsy shows loosely formed granulomas.
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Definition
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
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Term
Immunologic disease of the lung due to repeated or prolonged exposure to variety of organic dusts in suseptible individual.
Pathology=mononuclear cell infiltration and loosely formed granulomas. Biopsy not req for Dx.
Reticulo-nodular CXR infiltrates may normalize btwn acute episodes.
**WHAT IS THIS?**
What are 2 common antigens?
Therapy?
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Definition
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
acute - repeate acute ¨pneumonia¨
subacute- slow onset, less systemic sx
chronic- slowly progressive w/ chronic interstitial abmlties
Common antigens: Farmer's lung, bird-fancier's lung
Therapy: avoidance, corticosteroids prn. |
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Term
Pt presents with recent history of flu-like symptoms which progressed to dyspnea and dry cough.
CXR: patchy infiltrates
You knew what this was and confirmed your dx with surgical lung biopsy.
You treated with corticosteroids for 6-12mnth. Pt has recovered.
Causes: 80% idiopathic, 20% collagen vasc disorders, viral infections, drugs, transplant, radiation therapy.
What is it? |
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Definition
Bronchiolitis Obliterans Organizing Pneumonia (BOOP) |
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Term
What are 2 pulmonary renal syndromes? |
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Definition
Wegeners Granulomatosis and Goodpastures Syndrome |
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Term
Pt presents with hemoptysis as well as lower and upper airway sx.
Glomerulonephritis involved.
CXR: multiple nodules, masses, infiltrates, cavitation.
Dx confirmed by c-ANCA presence.
Tx: cyclophosphamise + corticosteroids. |
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Definition
Wegeners Granulomatosis - a pulmonary renal syndrome |
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Term
Pt presents with hemoptysis and renal dysfunction.
CXR: diffuse aveolar hemorrhage.
Dx by prescence of Anti-GBM antibody.
Tx: plasmapheresis + corticosteroids + cyclophosphamide.
What is it? |
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Definition
Goodpastures syndrome: a pulmonary renal syndrome. |
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