Term
Which two conditions can "physiologically" elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
A. Rickets, hyperparathyroidism
B. Obstructive jaundice, biliary cirrhosis
C. Growth, third trimester of pregnancy
D. Viral hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis |
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Definition
| C. Growth, third trimester of pregnancy |
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Term
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases?
A. Muscular dystrophy
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Pulmonary emboli
D. Infectious mononucleosis |
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Definition
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Term
A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test would be most indicative of this disease?
A. Creatinine
B. ID isoenzymes
C. Glucose
D. Amylase |
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Definition
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Term
A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. BUN
D. Glucose |
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Definition
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Term
The principle excretory form of nitrogen is:
A. Amino acids
B. Creatinine
C. Urea
D. Uric acid |
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Definition
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Term
A cardiac glycoside tat is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the force and velocity of myocardial contraction is:
A. Digoxin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Lithium
D. Phenytoin |
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Definition
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Term
Respiratory alkalosis is commonly caused by:
A. Starvation
B. Emphysema
C. Hyperventilation
D. Hypoxia |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most important buffer pair in plasma:
A. Phosphate/biphosphate pair
B. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
C. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
D. Sulfate/bisulfate |
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Definition
| C. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair |
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Term
90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
A. Transferrin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Albumin
D. Cryogobulin |
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Definition
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Term
Increased concentration of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Alcoholic cirrhosis
C. Chronic active hepatitis
D. Multiple myeloma |
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Definition
| A. Hepatocellular carcinoma |
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Term
High levels of which lipoprotein class are associated with decreased risk of accelerate atherosclerosis?
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
A. Lactic dehydrogenase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (ICD)
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Alkaline phosphatase |
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Definition
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Term
Most of the carbon dioxide present in the blood is in the form of:
A. Dissolved CO2
B. Carbonate
C. Bicarbonate
D. Carbonic acid |
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Definition
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Term
The solute that contributes to the total serum osmolality is:
A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Urea |
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Definition
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Term
Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion selective electrode is the standard method because:
A. Dilution is required for flame photometry
B. There is no lipoprotein interference
C. Of advances in electrochemistry
D. The absence of the internal standard |
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Definition
| C. Of advances in electrochemistry |
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Term
At blood pH 7.4 what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?
A. 15:1
B. 20:1
C. 25:1
D. 30:1 |
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Definition
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Term
Gastrin:
A. Is secreted by the liver and stomach
B. Is secreted when gastric fluid pH is low
C. Stimulates gastric acid secretion
D. Inhibits section of instrinsic factor |
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Definition
| C. Stimulates gastric acid secretion |
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Term
Absorption of vitamin B12 in the stomach and gut requires the presence of:
A. Gastrin
B. Intrinsic factor
C. Secretin
D. Folic acid |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of liver disease?
A. Bilirubin
B. Jaundice
C. Hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis |
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Definition
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Term
Beer's law can be described as:
A. The intensity of the color is not proportional to the concentration of the substance
B. The intensity of the color is proportional to the concentration of the substance
C. The intensity of the color as nothing to do with concentration
D. Depth of the solution does not matter |
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Definition
| B. The intensity of the color is proportional to the concentration of the substance |
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Term
A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood?
A. 25 mL
B. 30 mL
C. 50 mL
D. 100 mL |
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Definition
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Term
How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?
A. D-positive
B. D-negative
C. Invalid
D. Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or blood donor |
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Definition
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Term
Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:
A. Prevent antibody formation
B. Prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions
C. Maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells
D. Check ABO compatibility |
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Definition
| A. Prevent antibody formation |
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Term
How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored?
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days |
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Definition
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Term
A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first etect this incompatibility?
A. Indirect antiglobulin
B. Immediate spin
C. None of them, unit is compatible
D. 37 C low-ionic strength solution |
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Definition
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Term
Leukocyte-poor red blood cells are indicated for patients with:
A. Febrile transfusion reactions
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemophilia A
D. Cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments |
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Definition
| A. Febrile transfusion reactions |
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Term
A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent:
A. Syphilis
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human T-cell Lymphotropic virus-I
D. Malaria |
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Definition
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Term
An antibody that is typically enhanced by treatment with proteolytic enzymes is:
A. Kidd
B. Duffy
C. M
D. N |
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Definition
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Term
Clinically significant antibodies occur in approximately:
A. 1% of the population
B. 5% of the population
C. 3% of the population
D. 6% of the population |
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Definition
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Term
Blood selection for exchange transfusions must:
A. Lack red cell antibodies corresponding to maternal antigens
B. Be less than 7 days old
C. Be filtered to prevent graft-versus-host disease
D. Be ABO compatible with the father |
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Definition
| B. Be less than 7 days old |
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Term
All of the following are characteristics of Kidd antibodies, except:
A. Ability to bind complement
B. Naturally occurring
C. IgG immunoglobulin
D. Exhibit dosage |
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Definition
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Term
All results for a patient's forward and reverse typing are negative. Which is not a reason for this discrepancy?
A. Elderly patient
B. Agammaglobulinemia
C. Rouleaux
D. Neonate |
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Definition
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Term
Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface?
A. A2, A1B
B. A1B, O
C. O, A1B
D. B, A |
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Definition
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Term
To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be:
A. Saline washed
B. ABO and D-compatible with the mother
C. Frozen and deglycerolized
D. Irradiated |
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Definition
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Term
Most 'naturally occurring' ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE |
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Definition
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Term
Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections can sometimes be associated with:
A. Anti-i antibodies
B. Anti-P antibodies
C. Anti-M antibodies
D. Anti-I antibodies |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is considered a permanent deferral?
A. Having had a blood transfusion in the past 12 months
B. Anyone who has risk factors for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or who has an immediate family member with CJD
C. Undergoing tattooing or ear piercing in the past 12 months
D. Pregnancy |
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Definition
| B. Anyone who has risk factors for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or who has an immediate family member with CJD |
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Term
Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusions of only a few mililiters of blood and gives no history of fever?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Circulatory overload
D. Febrile |
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Definition
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Term
Anaphylactic transfusion reactions are usually caused by antibodies against:
A. IgM
B. IgD
C. IgA
D. IgG |
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Definition
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Term
The antigens of the Cartwright blood group system are:
A. Coa and Cob
B. Doa and Dob
C. Dia and Dib
D. Yta and Ytb |
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Definition
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Term
A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Graft-versus-host disease |
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Definition
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Term
A person who inherits the Le, Se and H genes will have red cells that phenotype:
A. Le(a+b-)
B. Le(a-b-)
C. Le(a-b+)
D. Le(a+b+) |
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Definition
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Term
What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?
A. Heterophile antibody-based
B. Monoclonal-based
C. Alloantibody-based
D. Polyclonal-based |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies?
A. Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies
B. Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases
C. Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
D. Do not bind complement proteins |
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Definition
| C. Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents |
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Term
The most common form of chidhood leukemia is:
A. Acute lymphocytic
B. Acute granulocytic
C. Acute monocytic
D. Chronic granulocytic |
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Definition
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Term
The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis is:
A. Heat instability test
B. Sucrose hemolysis
C. Osmotic fragility
D. Kleihauer-Betke |
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Definition
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Term
Thallassemias are characterized by:
A. Structural abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule
B. Absence of iron in hemoglobin
C. Decreased rate of heme synthesis
D. Decreased rate of globin synthesis |
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Definition
| D. Decreased rate of globin synthesis |
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Term
Auer rods are most likely present in which of the following:
A. Chronic granulocytic leukemia
B. Acute granulocytic leukemia
C. Erythroleukemia
D. Megakaryoblastic leukemia |
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Definition
| B. Acute granulocytic leukemia |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT useful in distinguishing thalassema minor from iron deficiency anemia?
A. Free erythrocyte protoporphyrins
B. Serum ferritin
C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D. Osmotic fragility |
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Definition
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Term
What is the major morphologic difference between Hodgkin and other B cell lymphomas?
A. The extent of hte lymph node involvement
B. The presence of numerous reactive lymphocytes and only a few malignant cells in Hodgkin lymphoma
C. The presence of numerous tangible body macrophages in Hodgkin lymphoma
D. The preservation of normal lymph node architecture in Hodgkin lymphoma |
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Definition
| B. The presence of numerous reactive lymphocytes and only a few malignant cells in Hodgkin lymphoma |
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Term
What is the last erythrocyte precursor capable of cell division?
A. Orthochromic normoblast
B. Reticulocyte
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast |
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Definition
| D. Polychromatic normoblast |
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Term
What is the last granulocyte in the maturation sequence able to undergo mitosis?
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Band |
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Definition
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Term
A patient as a platelet count of 1200 x 10/L. Many platelets are giant and have abnormal shapes. A mild anemia is present. The bone marrow has increased megakaryocytes in clusters, iron stores are present. Which of the following is most likely?
A. Essential thrombocythemia
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Thrombocytosis secondary to blood loss.
D. Polycythemia vera |
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Definition
| A. Essential thrombocythemia |
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Term
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is decreased in:
A. Acute infections
B. Pregnant women
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria |
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Definition
| D. Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria |
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Term
Which of the following is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly?
A. Membrane defect of lysosomes
B. Dohle-lke bodies and giant platelets
C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
D. Mucopolysaccharidosis |
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Definition
| B. Dohle-like bodies and giant platelets |
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Term
Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
A. Membrane defect of lysosomes
B. Dohle-like bodies and giant platelets
C. Two-lobed neutrophils
D. Mucopolysacharidosis |
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Definition
| A. Membrane defect of lysosomes |
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Term
Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?
A. Membrane defect of lysosomes
B. Dohle-like bodies and giant platelets
C. Two-lobed neutrophils
D. Mucopolysaccharidosis |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a significant feature of erythroleukemia (Di Guglielmo's syndrome)
A. Persistantly increased M:E ratio
B. Megaloblastoid erythropoiesis
C. Marked thrombocytosis
D. Decreased stainable iron in the marrow |
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Definition
| B. Megaloblastoid erythropoiesis |
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Term
A bone marrow slide shows foam cells with vacuolated cytopalasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of:
A. Gaucher's disease
B. Myeloma with Russell bodies
C. Di Guglielmo disease
D. Niemann-Pick disease |
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Definition
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Term
The Retic count will be elevated in which of the following:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia |
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Definition
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Term
Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:
A. Acute pyelonephritis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Nephrosis |
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Definition
| B. Acute glomerulonephritis |
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Term
A gram-stained sputum smear revealed 25-50 squamous epithelial cell sand 10-25 PMNs per 100x field, as well as many lancet-shaped, gram positive cocci, many gram negative rods, and many gram positive cocci in pairs, clumps, and long chains. The technologist's best course of action would be to:
A. Inoculate appropriate media and incubate anaerobically
B. Inoculate appropriate media and incubate aerobically
C. Call the physician and notify him of this 'life threatening' situation
D. Call the nursing station and request a new specimen |
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Definition
| D. Call the nursing station and request a new specimen |
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Term
An antibiotic that inhibits cell wal synthesis is:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfonamide
D. Colistin |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following combinations of organisms would be appropriate as controls to test the functions listed?
A. Beta hemolysis - E. coli and S. pyogenes
B. Catalase - S. aureus and S. epidermidis
C. H2S production - Proteus mirabilis and Salmonella typhi
D. Indole - E. coli and Proteus mirabilis |
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Definition
| D. Indole - E. coli and Proteus mirabilis |
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Term
Which of the following organisms can grow in the small bowel and cause diarrhea in children, traveler's diarrhea, or a severe cholera-like syndrome through the production of enterotoxins?
A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella dysenteri |
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Definition
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Term
The bacterium most often responsible for acute epiglottitis is:
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Haemophilus aprophilus
D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci |
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Definition
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Term
A nonfermenting gram negative bacillus is isolated from a wound. The nitrate and oxidase are strongly positive. The organism produces a shiny blue-green pigment on sheep blood agar. This organism is a species of:
A. Alcaligenes
B. Moraxella
C. Flavobacterium
D. Pseudomonas |
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Definition
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Term
The most critical distinction between Staph aureus and other staphylococci is:
A. Phosphatase reaction
B. DNA production
C. Coagulase production
D. Hemolysis |
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Definition
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|
Term
Of the following bacteria, the most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within two to three months after surgery is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis |
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Definition
| D. Staphylococcus epidermidis |
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|
Term
Streptococcus is grouped using the:
A. George LAng grouping
B. Henderfield grouping
C. Lancefield grouping
D. Strep-Meyer grouping |
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Definition
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Term
The bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile, part of the normal fecal flora of animals and humans, usually nonhemolytic and a major cause of nosocomial infections is:
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. STreptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus aglactiae |
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Definition
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|
Term
What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?
A. Beta hemolysis
B. Gamma hemolysis
C. Alpha hemolysis
D. Kappa hemolysis |
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Definition
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Term
Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens.
A. Pseudomonas
B. Burkholderia
C. Ralstonia
D. Vibrio |
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Definition
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Term
An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alk/no change, good growth at 42 C and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Ralstonia pickettii
C. Burkholderia mallei
D. Burkholderia pseudomallei |
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Definition
| A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|
|
Term
Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified based on which characteristic?
A. Indole positive
B. Citrate positive
C. Methyl red negative
D. Urease positive |
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Definition
|
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Term
The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified based on a positive indole test is:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Enterobacter aerogenes
D. Escherichia coli |
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Definition
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Term
The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, H2S positive is:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Escherichia coli |
|
Definition
| C. Salmonella enteritidis |
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|
Term
The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative and H2S-positive is:
A. Proteus aerogenes
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Escherichia coli |
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Definition
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