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Clinical Assessment Test 2
N/A
93
Medical
Graduate
02/21/2011

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Describe the normal anatomy & physiology of the regions examined as part of the Head exam (3)
Definition

1. Parotid gland - superficial and behind the mandible

2. Submandibular gland - deep to the mandible, under the tongue

3. superficial temporal artery - passes upward and in front of the ear, readily palpable

 

Remember: Regions of the head take their name from underlying bones of the skull

Term
Anatomy of the eye
1. opening between eyelids
2. Clear, mucus membrane with 2 easily visible components: ___ & ___
3. firm strips of connective tissue within the eyelid
4. muscle that raises the upper eyelid.
5. pink gland that lies in the body orbit, lateral to the eyeball. produces tears
6. 2 other glands that produce tears?
7. two tiny holes that tears drain into? then through the ____ sac into the nose and through the ___ ducts.
8. muscles of the iris control ____ size.
9. muscles of the ____ control thickness of the lens, allowing the eye to focus on near objects.
10. ____ is the substance inside the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior cavity of the eyes. It drains between chambers through what canal? Purpose: to control ___ inside the eye.
11. structures of the fundus: (4) + optic nerves are found at the ____. Small depression in the retina surface that marks the point of central vision = _____.
12. transparent mass of gelatin behind the lens. maintains shape of eye.
Definition

1. Palpebral fissure

2. conjunctiva:

a. bulbar - covers most of anterior eyeball, meets cornea at the limbus

b. palpebral - lines the eyelids

3. tarsal plates

4. levator palpebrae

5. lacrimal gland

6. meiobian and conjunctival

7. lacrimal puncta, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal ducts

8. pupillary

9. cilliary body

10. aqueous humor, drains through canal of schlemm, controls pressure

11. retina, choroid, fovea, retinal vessels + optic disc and macula (blanks)

12. Vitreous humor

Term
The ___ is the entire area seen by the eye when it looks at a central point. It extends furthest on the ___ side and is limited medially by the __, __, and ___. Lack of retinal receptors at the optic disc produces an oval blind spot for each eye that is __ degrees temporal to the line of gaze. Visual fields of both eyes overlap in an area of ___ vision, laterally, vision is ____.
Definition

Visual field

temporal

medial limitations: nose, cheeks, brows

15 degrees

binocular, monocular

Term
Visual pathways: light reflected from an image must pass through the ___ and be focused on the sensory neuorns in the ____, then through the __, then through the ___ on each side, and then through a curving tract called the ____, the pathway ends in the ___ of the occipital lobe. The image projected is ___ & ___. Image from the upper nasal field strikes the ___ quandrant of the retina.
Definition

pathway: pupil, retina, optic nerve, optic tract, through optic radiation, visual cortex

image is upside down and reversed right to left

image from the upper nasal field strikes the lower temporal quadrant of the retina

Term
Describe the pupillary reactions: direct, consensual, near
Definition

Direct - light shone in eye contricts that pupil

Consensual - light shone in the one eye causes opposite eye to contract

NEar - pupils constrict when gaze focuses on an object nearing the nose and eyes accommodate (increased convexity of lens due to ciliary muscle contraction)

Term
Autonomic nerve supply to eyes:
1. CNIII fibers and production of pupillary constriction are part of the ____ nervous system
Definition
parasympathetic
Term
Parts of the external ear: (A) & (B)

A: cartilage covered by skin with a firm elastic consistency
1. prominent outer ridge?
2. Inner ridge parallel and anterior to (1.)
3. Inferior projection of ear lobe?
4. nodule eminence that points backward over entrance to ear canal

B: inward curving, 24mm long, surrounded by cartilage
1. contains glands that produce ___.
2. inner portion surrounded by bone and lined by thin hairless skin (no answer)
3. Lowest part of the mastoid part of temporal bone, behind/below ear canal (felt just behind the ear lobe)?
Definition

A: auricle

1. helix

2. antihelix

3. lobule

4. tragus

 

B: ear canal

1. cerumen

2. no answer

3. mastoid process

Term
____ - air-filled cavity that transmits sound via tiny bones called ossicles

___ - connects middle ear to nasopharynx

___ - separates middle and external ear:
1. held inward by the ___ (one of the ossicles), which has a short process and a handle
2. the ___ is where the eardrum meets the malleus, and where you can see the _____.
3. "floppy" part of the ear drum above the short process of the malleus?
4. The rest of the eardrum is the ____.
Definition

middle ear

eustachian tube

tempanic membrane (ear drum)

1. malleus

2. umbo, cone of light

3. pars flaccida

4. pars tensa

Term
Hearing pathway:

Phase 1: Known as the ____ phase, vibration is passed through the air of the external ear and transmitted through the ___ and ___ of the middle ear to the ___ (inner ear).

Disorder here will cause ___ hearing loss.

This pathway utilizes ___ conduction.


Phase 2: Known as the ____ phase, the cochlea senses the vibraion and sends nerve impulses to the brain through the ___ nerve (CN VIII)

Disorder here causes ___ hearing loss.
the ___ within the inner ear senses position and movement to maintain balance/equilibrium
Definition

Conductive

through the tempanic membrane and ossicles ot the cochlea

disorder = conductive hearing loss

air conduction

 

Sensorineural

cochlear

sensorineural hearing loss

labyrinth

Term
upper 1/3 of nose is supported by ____, lower 2/3 by ___.

Nasal air flow: enters nose thorugh the ___ on each side, then passes through a widened area called the ___ (only part of nose covered by hair-bearing skin instead of mucosa), then through the ____.

medial wall: formed by ___, which is made by bone and cartilage, is covered by mucosa which is highly vascular

lateral wall: contains ____, which are covered by highly vascualr mucus membrane and protrude into the nasal cavity. What is the purpose of these? below each one is a groove called a ____, that is named for the turbinate which it is below (superior, middle, infereior).
The ___ duct drains into the inferior one, the ___ sinuses drain into the middle one.

The ___ are air-filled cavities within the bones of the skull. Only the ___ and ___ are accessible for clinical examination.
Definition

bone, cartilage

aterior naris (nostrils), vestibule, narrow nasopharynx

 

medial wall: nasal septum

 

lateral wall: turbinates (clean, humidify, and control temp of inspired air). meatus. nasolacrimal duct, paranasal sinuses

 

paranasal sinuses - frontal and maxillary

Term
NECK:

2 triangles bound by the sternomastoid:
Anterior: Name the borders
Posterior: Name the borders

3 great vessels of the neck?

5 midline structures of neck:

Parts of thyroid:
1. the __ lies across the trachea and below the cricoid
2. ___ curve posteriorly and around sides of trachea
Definition

Anterior: mandible above, sternomastoid laterally, midline of neck medially

Posterior: sternomastoid anteriorly, trap posteiorly, clavicle inferiorly

 

Great vessels: carotid artery and internal jugular vein (deep to scm), external jugular passes diagonally over scm

 

Midline structures: hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, tracheal rings, thyroid gland

 

thyroid:

isthmus, lateral lobes

 

 

 

Term
Lymph Nodes:

1. in front of ear
2. behind ear
3. below chin
4. below mandible, lateral to chin
5. where mandible meets scm
6. anterior to scm
7. posterior to scm
8. deep to scm
9. just above clavicle
Definition

1. preauricular

2. posterior auricular

3. submental

4. submandibular

5. tonsillar

6. anterior cervical

7. posterior cervical

8. deep cervical

9. supraclavicular

Term
ROS questions for Head
Definition

headache/facial pain

head injury hx?

dizziness

lightheadedness

 

Term
ROS questions for eyes
Definition

vision

glasses/CL

last exam

pain

redness

excessive tearing

dryness

diplopia

blurred vision

flashes/floaters

glaucoma, cataract, macular degeneration hx

color blindness

Term
ROS questions for ears
Definition

hearing loss

hx of infection

trauma

vertigo

discharge

pain/earache

tinnitus

itching

fullness

Term
ROS questions for nose
Definition

frequent URIs

sinus infections

allergies

congestion

nosebleed

snoring

speech changes

Term
ROS questions for mouth
Definition

last dental exam

dental caries

sore motuh (stomatitis)

sore tongue (Glossitis)

bleeding gums

denturs

ulcers

 

Term
ROS questions for throat
Definition

soreness

hoarseness

voice changes

dysphagia

choking

Term
ROS questions for neck
Definition

HX of thyroid disease

goiter/mass

adenopathy (lumps/bumps0

pain

limited ROM

stiffness

tenderness

Term
EYE PE:

When testing visual fields, begin with your fingers in the ___ field. What should you do if you notice a defect?

Observe eyeslids, sclera, and conjunctiva for:
1. jaundice of sclera = ____.
2. conjunctival inflammation
3. benign growth of conjunctiva = ____ (surfer's eye)
4. conjunctival degeneration = ____
5. sharply demarcated yellowish collection of cholesterol under skin of eyelid or around eye = ____
6. iris lesions
7. papillary inequality
8. "shaking" of eyes on horizontal movement = ____
9. improper alignment of eyes in relation to one another = ____.

What 3 things should you watch for when testing EOM with the H pattern?

What 7 abnormalities should you look for during fundoscopy?
Definition

fields: temporal

 

1. icterus

3. pterygium

4. pingueculae

5. xanthelasmas

8. nystagmus

9. strabismus

 

EOM: paralysis, disconjugate gaze, lid lag

 

Fundoscopy: opacities in ocular media, disc cupping, vessel narrowing, AV nicking, papilledema, retinal exudates or hemorrhages, macular changes

Term
1. Homonymous hemianopia
2. macular sparing
3. hemianopia
Definition

1. visual field loss on the same side of both eyes - ex: right field loss OU

2. visual field loss wihtout involving the macula

3. visual field loss that respects the vertical midline

 

Term
1: drooping of upper eyelid. causes: myasthenia gravis, damage to CNIII, damage to sympathetic nerve supply (horner's syndrome)
2. margin of lower lid is turned outward, exposing palpebral conjunctiva, causes lid to not drain well and tearing occurs. most common in elderly
3. inward turning of lid margin, lower lashes then irritate conjunctiva and lower cornea
4. harmless, yellow triangular nodule in bulbar conjunctiva on either side of iris, appears with aging.
5. painful, red infection of sebaceous glands at margin of eyelid
6. subacute, non-tender, painless nodule invovling a meibomian gland, usually points inside the lid
7. slightly raised, yellowish, well circumscribed plaque of cholesterol appearing along eyelids, may accompany lip disorders
Definition

1. ptosis

2. ectopion

3. entropion

4. pinguecula

5. stye

6. chalazion

7. xanthelasma

 

Term
4 common causes of corneal opacities:

1. thin gray/white arc or circle close to edge of cornea. accompanied by aging by also in younger blacks (suggests hyperlipoproteinemia)
2. superficial gray/white opacity, secondary to old injury or inflammation
3. triangular thickening of bulbar conjunctiva that grows slowly
4. can be nuclear or peripheral, thickening of cornea
Definition

corneal arcus

corneal scar

pterygium

cataract

Term
Weber v. Rinne Test
Definition

Weber - for lateralization

Put tuning fork on top of pt's head

Unilateral conductive loss - sound is heard in IMPAIRED ear.

 

Rinne test - if BC>AC, sensorineural hearing loss

Term
What are some causes of conductive hearing loss?
Definition
acute otitis media, perforation, obstruction (wax)
Term
Local tenderness of sinuses with fever and discharge may suggest what problem?
Definition
acute sinusitis
Term
Name the cranial nerves and how you would test them

CNI, II, III, V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
Definition

I - olfactory - have pt test one nostril at a time usuing strong-smelling substances (Anosmia or intact)

II - Optic nerve - lesions would impair vision or part of the field or direct light reflex

III - oculomotor nerve - lesions would impair movement of upper lid or consensual light reflex or

 

IV - trochlear - controls superior oblique eye muscle

 

V - trigeminal - major sensory nerve of face: Opthlamic sensory (V1), Maxillary sensory and autonomic (V2), Mandibular motor, sensory, proprioceptive, parasympathetic (V3)

 

VI - abducens - controls lateral rectus eye muscle

 

VII - facial - ask pt to smile, raise eyebrows, wrinkle forehead. note asymmetry.

 

VIII - vestibularcochlear

 

IX - glossopharyngeal - touch posterior pharynx and watch for gag reflex

 

X - Vagus - ask pt to say ah and watch for failure of one side of soft palate to rise or for uvular asymmetry

 

XI - accessory - have pt turn head to side and resist your hand - weakness on one side or bilaterally suggests lesion

 

XII - hypoglossal - ask pt to stick out tongue - watch for deviation or atrophy

 

Term
What is the most active joint in the body?

What CN innervates it?
Definition

TMJ

 

CN5

Term
Muscles of active breathing and quiet breathing
Definition

Active: intercostals, rectus abdominus, external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominus

 

Quiet - from passive recoil of lungs

Term
ROS questions for pulmonary
Definition

change in postion help or hurt?

is cough productive?

can pain be reproduced?

how long to resolve?

associated symptoms

anyone else have similar symptoms?

History/family history of pulmonary problems

onset: gradual or acute

duration

time of day, relation to weather/allergens

severity

efforts to treat

dyspnea

fever

wheezing

sputum

hemoptysis

TB

night sweats

pneumonia

bronchitis

asthma

last CXR?

smoking

oxygen use?

Term
Pulmonary PE steps
Definition

Inspect

Palpitate: thoracic expansion, tactile fremitus (99), percuss chest, auscultate breath sounds

Term
Causes of increased and decreased fremitus
Definition

increased: consolidation

 

decreased: pleural effusion, pneumothorax, asthma

Term
Causes of abnomral chest expansion
Definition

pulmonary fibrosis

pleural effusion

lobar pneumonia

pleural pain

unilateral bronchial obstruction

Term
Describe what could be wrong if you hear each of these lung sounds:

flat (soft intensity, high pitch)
Dull (medium intensity, as in liver)
Resonant (loud intensity, low pitch)
Tympanic/hyperresonate (loud intensity, high pitch)
Resonant --> dullness
Resonant --> hyperresonant
Definition

flat - suggest pleural effusion

dull - lobar pneumonia

resonant - normal or chronic bronchitis

tempanic - gastric bubble, large pneumothorax

resonant--> dull - consolidation, atelectasis, pleural effusion, neoplasm

Resonant-->hyperresonant - pneumothorax, emphysema

Term
Discuss possible pathologies for each sound:

crackles, wheezes, ronchi, stridor, pleural rub
Definition

crackles/rales - air bubbles in secretions - pneumonia, CHF, pulmonary fibrosis

wheezes - air flows through narrowed airways- asthma, COPD, anaphylaxis, FB, inflammation

Ronchi - snoring quality - suggest secretions in larger airways - chronic bronchitis

Stridor - insipriatory wheeze - partial obstruction of larynx or trachea

Pleural rub - rub from pleuritis

Term
What are some causes of pleural effusion?
Definition

tumor that is changing in protein levels in lungs causing fluid to accumulate; CHF; cancer.

 

Effusion can be blood or pus but is always fluid.

 

Settles at the bottom of the affected lobe. shouldn't move between lobes

Term
What pulmonary problem?

air enters pleural cavity and negative pressure is diminished with inspiration collapsing ipsilateral lung. puts pressure on contralateral lung due to mediastinal shift. reduced venous return due to vena caval distortion
Definition
pneumothorax
Term
What pulmonary problem?

slowly progressive disorder in which the distal air spaces enlarge and become hyperinflated. often associated wtih chronic bronchitis.

Percussion: diffusely hyperresonant
Breath sounds: decreased or absent
Tactile fremitus: decreased
Adventitious sounds: none
Definition
COPD
Term
What pulmonary problem?

Abnormal thoracic expansion
Percussion: dull
Adventitious sounds: crackles
Definition
pneumonia
Term
What pulmonary problem?

Lobar obstruction causes collapse of affected lung tissue into an airless state. Trachea may be shifted toward involved side.

Breath sounds: absent, except when it's the upper right lobe involved
Adventitious sounds: none
Tactile fremitus: absent, except when it's in the upper right lobe, then it is increased
Definition
atelectasis
Term
What pulmonary problem?

Descent of diaphragm during inspriation
Decreased intrathoracic pressure
Injured segment moves inward
Mediastinum shifts to contralateral side
On exhalation, injured segment moves outward
Definition
Paradoxical movement
Term
6 tops causes of sore throat that aren't due to pharyngeal ulcers
Definition

1. viral pharyngitis - systemic symptoms

2. bacterial pharyngitis

3. tonsilitis

4. allergic pharyngitis - no fever, due to post nasal drip

5. pharyngitis secondary to sinusitis

6. mono

Term
These are the most common causes of what?

herpangia
herpes simplex
fusospirochetal infection
candidiasis
herpes zosteer
chickenpox
Definition
pharyngeal ulcers
Term
RADT
Definition
rapid antigen detection test - strep test
Term
___ is most common in pts under 25, usually presents wtih fever over 100, chills, tender cervical adenopathy, exudate, and rapid onset during winter or early spring.

Presence of cough, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, coryza, anterior stomatitis, ulcerative oral lesions, viral exanthum, and diarrhea mitigate against this diagnosis.
Definition
streptococcal pharyngitis
Term
Low-grade fever, myalgia, conjunctivitis, coryza, malaise, or fatigue suggest a bacterial or viral?
Definition
viral
Term
Pt presents with sore throat that becomes worse with swallowing and physical exam of oropharynx is negative. what should you suspect?
Definition
thyroiditis
Term
infants and children with fever, URI, loss of appetite, difficulty swallowing and stridor probably have what?
Definition
retropharyngeal abscess - MEDICAL EMERGENCY - order CT
Term
What cranial nerves control the EOM?
Definition

LR6 - SO4 - ATR3

 

Lateral rectus (cnVI)

Superior oblique (CNIV)

All the rest (CNIII)

Term
Lesion of the trigeminal nerve would produce what certain kind of pain? And what muscle movements could be affected?
Definition

lancinating paroxysmal pain

temporal and masseter muscles

Term
Most common visual complaint?

Other common complaints? (3)

Correct diagnosis requires knowing pt's age and whehter the problem is unilateral or bilateral, gradual or sudden onset, constant or intermittent

___ symptoms are ALWAYS more serious than ____ symptoms
Definition

blurred vision

diplopia, unilateral photopsia (flashes/floaters) = PVD, blurring associated with pain

 

visual symptoms >non-visual, even if non-visual are associated with pain

Term
Common causes of visual problems in younger and older pts
Definition

younger: refractive errors (mainly), sometimes migraine

 

elderly: cataracts, glaucoma, PVD, macular degeneration, TIA, diabetic retinopathy (impaired night vision)

Term
Common refractive errors

1. near sightedness (most common in teenagers)
2. loss of accomodation (most common ~40 y/o
3. far sightedness (less common)
Definition

myopia

presbyopia

hyperopia

Term
___ is most common cause of blindness after age 55.

Symptoms include: sudden onset, painless, unilateral blurred vision, trouble reading
Definition
macular degeneartion
Term
viral ___ is the most common cause of red eye. symptoms include conjunctiva hyperemia, tearing, watery discharge, starts in one eye but spreads to the other, common wtih URI


bacterial ___ symptoms include sudden onset in one eye and spreads to the other eye within 2 days. tearing, mucopurulent discharge (causing matting of the lids, most prominent when awakening)

allergic ___ is associated with sneezing, blepharitis, itching. most commonly seasonal, can be perennial
Definition

conjunctivitis

 

 

Term
Probable eye diagnoses:

Elderly person who has difficulty driving at night because of the glare or difficulty in daytime due to sunlight... think ____.

Eldery + blurred vision + halos around lights + eye pain + HA (?) = ___

Red eye + pain = _____ or ____ (would also include photophobia)
Definition

cataract

glaucoma

iritis or corneal abrasion

Term
Causes of chest pain/discomfort:

Myocardium: ___ or ___
Pericardium: ____
Aorta: ____
trachea/primary bronchi: ____
parietal pleura: ____
Chest wall/musculoskeletal/skin: ___ or ____
esophagus: ____
Definition

angina pectoris or MI

pericarditis

dissecting aortic aneurysm

bronchitis

pericarditis, pneumonia

costochondritis or herpes zoster

acid reflux

 

Term
What is Levine's sign and what does it suggest?
Definition
clenched fist over sternum - angina pectoris
Term
____ is sensation of numbness or tingling. commonly in lips or extremities.
Definition
parastesias
Term
Most common cause of acute cough? Time?
Most common cause of subacute cough?
Chronic cough - how long?
Definition

viral URI - <3 weeks for acute cough

postinfection, bacterial sinusitis, asthma - 3-8 weeks

Chronic >8 weeks

 

Term
Smoking facts:
__% of US adults smoke
__% start by age 18
Accounts for 1 in __ deaths each year in US

5 A's for assessing readiness to quit
Definition

23%

90%

1 in 5

 

A's:

Ask about tobacco use

Advise to quit through clear, personalized messages

Assess willingness to quit

Assist quitting

Arrange follow up and support

Term
Regular resting respiration rate: __-__ breaths per minute
Definition
14-20
Term
3 primary headaches.

What is secondary headache?

__% of americans experience some form of headache each year

Most common type of headache?

___ headaches are most serious because they likely indicate __, ___, or ____.
Definition

primary: migraine, tension, cluster

secondary: secondary to sinusitis, stroke, tumor, infection, fever

80%

tension-type or muscle-contraction type

 

Acute is most serious - due to subarachnoid hemorrhage, TIA, or "thunder clap headache"

Term
What is an organic disorder and when should it be suspected as the cause of headache?
Definition

impaired brain fxn due to damage

Suspected when: pt has isolated severe headache, consistently localized pain that prevents sleep, headaches associated with straining, headaches accompanied by neurologic signs, change in usual headache pattern, chronic progressively severe headache

Term
Fxn of cough?

Common causes of acute cough (3)

Common causes of chronic cough in adults and children
Definition

Fxn: clear the airway

Acute: infection, allergies, post nasal drip

 

Chronic:

Adults: chronic bronchitis, postnasal drip, asthma, acid reflux, COPD, heart failure, TB, lung tumor, habit

Children: Recurrent viral URI, reactive airway disease, asthma, viral bronchitis, allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, enlarged adenoids

Term
___ is the most common cause of acute cough in all ages
___ is the most common cause of chronic cough in kids
___ is A common cause of acute cough in school-aged kids
Definition

viral infection

viral bronchitis

mycoplasma pneumonia (walking pneumonia)

Term
___ is a common cause of cough in kids aged 3 mos - 6 years.
Is marked by "barking cough" and wheezing
Definition
croup
Term
___ is the medical term for ear pain
otitis ___ is common ear infection in adults
otitis __ & __ otitits are common ear infection in kids

Earache in kids is usually a ___ infection. In adults it's usually ____.
Definition

otalgia

otitis externa

otitis media & serous otitis

kids - primary infection, adults - secondary (referred)

 

 

Term
Symptoms of ____ include painful pinna, bilateral pain, frequent history of URI

Symptoms of ___ include blocked feeling in ear, pain, fever, discharge, relief with perforation

Symtpoms of ___ include pain, impaired hearing, fullness, tinnitus
Definition

otitis externa

otitis media

serous otitis

Term
Acute shortness of breath:
causes:

1. Marked by episodic precipitation, characterized by bilateral wheezing and decreased resp flow rate.

2. has two varieties: ___ is marked by tachypnea, inspiratory stridor, and localized wheezing. ___ is marked by severe resp distress, cyanosis, gasping, loss of consciousness

3. marked by anxiety, numbness and tingling in perioral and extremities

4. marked by chest pain, could be one of 4 things

5. marked by fever, chills
Definition

1. asthma

2. upper airway obstruction - incomplete and complete

3. hyperventiliation

4. spontaneous pneumo, PE, MI, chest trauma

5. penumonia

Term
Chronic/Recurrent shortness of breath:

Most common cause in children = ____
Most common causes in elderly (3)
Often seen in what populations?
Definition

in kids = asthma

in elderly = COPD, CHF, asthma

 

commonly seen in smokers, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, COPD

Term
If ____ is the cause of SOB, symptoms will include: intensification with effort, daily productive cough, shallow/rapid respiration, postural changes have little or no effect.

If ____ is the cause of SOB, symptoms will include: intensification wtih recumbency, shallow respirations though not rapid, Rate of recovery much slower
Definition
pulmonary, cardiac
Term
Pulmonary diagnostic studies
Definition
EKG, chest x-ray, hemoglobin, thyroid fxn, creatine, spirometry, pulmonary fxn test
Term
Common cheif compaints for head and neck (from ppt)
Definition

facial pain

headache

sinus pain

neck pain

lumps and bumps

increased hair grwoth (hirsutism)

hair loss (alopecia)

lopsided face

Term
What are these symptoms of?

tired jaw muscles in morning
morning headaches
excessive wear of teeth
sensitive teeth
broken/chipped teeth
sounds of griding
Definition
bruxism and TMD
Term
State which structures each lymph node drains and what enlargement might indicate:

preauricular
posterior cervical
supraclavicular
submandibular
anterior cervical
Definition

preauricular - scalp and skin - scalf infection, mycobacterial infection, cancers of these areas

 

posterior cervical - scalp, neck, upper thorax - same as preauricular

 

supraclavicular - GI tract, GU tract, pulmonary - abdominal/thoracic neoplasm, thyroid/laryngeal disease, mycobacterial/fungal infections

 

submandibular - oral cavity - mono, URI, mycobacterial infection, toxoplasma, CMV, dental disease, rubella, cancer

 

Anterior cervical - larynx, tongue, oropharynx, anterior neck - same as submandibular

Term
what disease causes goiter
Definition
both hypo and hyperthyroidism
Term
Facial features and conditions in a person with Down Syndrome
Definition

Facial - epicanthal folds, flat nasal bridge, flat occiput, gibbus neck, microcephaly, protruding tongue, small motuh, speckled irides

 

Conditions: hearing loss, sleep apnea, thyroid problems, depression, B12 deficiency, anemia, infection, metabolism problems, AAI, intracranial lesion

Term
About __% of ear pain is related to infection.
Definition
50
Term
___ separates the middle from external ear
___ separates middle and inner ear
Definition

tympanic membrane

oval/round windows

Term
Common ear cc's
Definition
pain, drainage, infection, itching, vertigo, tinnitus, hearing los
Term
A pt present with intense ear pain and a red, bulging tympanic membrane. Diagnosis?
Definition
acute otitis media
Term
CC's for nose/sinuses
Definition
pain, epistaxis, itching, congestion, purulence, snoring, apnea
Term
CC's for lips mouth tongue and throat
Definition

difficulty swallowing (dysphagia)

painful swallowing (odynophagia)

cough

sore throat

lump in my throat

hoarseness

burning - glossitis, stomatitis, cheilits

Term
Why is it important to palpate the apices of the lungs? What diseases hide there?
Definition
TB and pancoasts tumors
Term
Bronchophony, egophony, whispered pectoriloquy
Definition

bronchophony - put stethoscope on area of interest - say "99". if it is heard clearly, suggests consolidation

 

egophony - put stethoscope on area of interest - say "e" - if it sounds like "ay" then suggests consolidation

 

whispered pectoriloquy - whisper "99" - if you can hear it, consolidation

Term
Death is preceded by ___ breathing, progressing to __ breathing.
Definition
cheyne-stokes, then biots
Term
6 things to palpitate in the chest
Definition

chest wall tenderness

chest wall crepitus/crackling

thoracic expansion

tactile fremitus

axillary/epitrochlear nodes

hands and nails for cyanosis, clubbing, deformities

Term
Increased vibration = increased/decreased fremitus?
Definition
increased
Term
3 normal breathing sounds
Definition

vesicular - soft, low pitched. fades 1/3 of way through exhalation - heard over main part of lung (bronchi, bronchioles, lobes)

bronchovesicular - 1-2 intercostal spaces - only heard over main bronchi

bronchial - only heard over trachea

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