Term
Self-motivation is primarily derived from:
a. the organization b. within a person c. external sources d. a person's manager |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following does the text mention as a postitive consequence of employee turnover?
a. greater productivity due to greater motivation on the part of new recruits b. the repalcement of ineffective or unethical staff. c. money saved on officer salaries during periods positions are vacant d.higher quality service delivery due to reduced scope of services. |
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Definition
b. the replacement of ineffective or unethical staff |
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Term
In the Two-Factor Hygiene/Motivation Theory, hygiene factors are:
a. intangible rewards thatcan cause dissatisfaction if lacking b. intangible rewards that can create satisfaction. c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking. d. tangilbe rewards that can create satisfaction. |
|
Definition
c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking |
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Term
Self-actualizationrefers to
a. affection and self-love b. self-respect c. freedom from fear d. achieving you potential |
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Definition
d. achieving yoru potential. |
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Term
Reinforcement theory holds that
a. positive reinforcement decreases a given behavior. b. negatife reinforcement increases a given behavior. c. positive reinforcement increases a given behavior. d. positive reinforcement should not be used in law enforcement. |
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Definition
c. positivie reinforcement increases agiven behavior. |
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Term
Which of the following indicates a morale problem?
a. above average productivity b. consistent interest and enthusiasm c. lack of respect d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Tangible rewards include
a. retirement plans b. bonuses. c. vacations d.all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Techniques for determining causes of low morale include
a. an open door policy b. listening to employees c. conducting employee problem surveys d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Perks include
a. salary b. tickets to sporting events c. job security d. all of these |
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Definition
b. tickets to sporting events |
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Term
External needs include
a. status b. perks c. security d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
The top motivational factorin the Hierarchy of Needs is
a. self-esteem b. social needs c. self-actualization d. none of these |
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Definition
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Term
In which of the following areas are morale problems likely to be a police manager's responsibility?
a. total department b. single division c. individual officer d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
A social need would be
a. water b. affection c. self-respect d. shelter |
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Definition
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Term
According to Maslow, every human has ___basic needs.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 9 |
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Definition
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Term
It is usually true that
a. a satisfied need is still a motivator b. single needs are often totally satisfied c. employee wants are constantly changing d. all of these |
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Definition
c. employee wants are constantly changing |
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Term
In the Two-Factor Hygiene/Motivation Theory, motivator factors are
a. intangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking b. intangible rewards that can create satisfaction c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking d. tangible rewards that cna create satisfaction |
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Definition
a. intangible reards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking |
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Term
Of the following, the mostliekly to be self-fulfilling is
a. increased wages b. personal task achievement c. fringe benefits d. status symbols |
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Definition
b. personal task achievement |
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Term
According to expectancy theory,
a. good work on the job will lead to low job performance b. high job performance will lead to low job rewards c. good work on the job will lead to high job performance, which leads to job rewards d. none of these |
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Definition
c. good work on the job will lead to gigh job performance, which leads to job rewards |
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Term
At the base of the hierarchy of needs are ___ needs, which include air, food, water and sleep.
a. esteem b. social c. security d. physiological |
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Definition
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Term
Of the following hierarchy needs, which could be related to motivation?
a. self-actualization b. social needs c. security d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a component of contingency theory?
a. people have a basic need to feel competent b. competence motivation is most likely to exist when task and organizaiton "fit" c. feeling competent continues to be motivating even after competence isachieved d. people msut feel that their competence is recoginized in oroder to derive full benefit from it |
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Definition
d. people must feel that their competence is recognized in order to derive full benefit from it. |
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Term
According to McDonald, what do managers do MOST often?
a. threaten people who exhibit bad behavior b. reward good behavior c. ignore bad behavoir d. ignore bood behavior |
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Definition
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Term
It is usually true that
a. level of morale is related to level of motivation b. listening is not relatedto morale c. work benefits have little to do with morale d. those who work toward meeting goalsare more apt to have low morale. |
|
Definition
a. levela of morale is related to level of motivation |
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Term
A factor that would tend to raise morelae level is
a. employee input b. improved communications. c. the manager setting a good example d. all ofthese |
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Definition
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Term
In comparing the Two-Factor Theoryto the Hierarchy of nedds, motivaiton factors are most closely related to
a. basic physical needs b. social needs c. esteem and status needs d. safety and security needs |
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Definition
c. esteem and status needs |
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Term
The Pygmalion effect is a type of
a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. contingency theory c. external motivator d. negative reinforement |
|
Definition
a. self-fulfilling prophecy |
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Term
Companieswith the leaset employee turnover and the highest morale are those that have successfully communicated by the company's
a. vacation and personal leave policies b. mission and goals c. termination policies d. promotion policies |
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Definition
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Term
Promotions should be based on
a. management qualities b. senioritu c.technical skills d. all of these |
|
Definition
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Term
Benefits packages traditionally amount to ____ of an employee's total cas compensation
a. less than 5 percent b. between 25 and 28 percent c. approximately 45 percent d. more than 60 percent |
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Definition
b. between 25 and 28 percent |
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Term
A recent survey of police academy recruits revelaled that 40 percent planned to leave their currnet agecy within ___of graduation.
a. three months b. six months c. three years d. seven years |
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Definition
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Term
The individual most able to raise or lower individual and department morale is
a. the manager/supervisor b. the poilce chief c. the mayor d. the newest rookie |
|
Definition
a. the manager/supervisor |
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Term
Internal motivators include
a. belief in individual and departmental goals b. opportunity to make a contribution c. self-respect d. all of these |
|
Definition
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Term
Morale is a constant concern for police adminsitrators. According to the text, who is most responsible for morale of police officers.
a. police captains b. police chiefs c. city managers d. managers |
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Definition
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Term
Skinner's reinforcement theory suggests that
a. hygiene factorsare important b. motivaitonfactors are relevant c. positivie rewards lead to good behavior d. desired behavior cannot be obtained |
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Definition
c. positive rewards lead to good behavior. |
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Term
When managementand supervisors' treatment of an employee largely determines that employee's performance, this is an instance of
a. internal motivators b. encouragement c. the Pygmalion effect d. expectation. |
|
Definition
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Term
Job enlargement involves giving additional responsibilities,where as job enrichment refers to
a. giving officers betters quality jobs b. giving officers more jobs c. giving officers everything they need to do theirjob d. giving officers more and better jobs |
|
Definition
a. giving officers better quality jobs. |
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Term
Which of the following statements about discipline is true?
a. Discipline must always be positive b. the only type of behavior is self-discipline c. Discipline is training for controlled behavior d. the most effective discipline is negative |
|
Definition
c. discipline is training for controlled behavior |
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Term
The purpose of discipline is to
a. reward unacceptable behavior b. promote desire behavior c. establish authority over employees d. use positive approaches to behavior only |
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Definition
b. promote desired behavior |
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Term
A good discipline philosophy involves
a. using negative discipline at all times b. using nonparticipative approaches to rules and regulations c. using positive discipline at all times d. using both positive and negative discipline approaches |
|
Definition
d. using both positive and negative discipline approaches |
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Term
An angency's _____ is the foundation on which most discipline must be based
a. policy and procedure manual b. mission statement c. budget d. touchstone value |
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Definition
a. policy and procedure manual |
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Term
It is usually true that
a. informed employees are apt to meet expectations b. employees wshouldhave input in determining rules c. the majority of officers want to conform d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
The PRICE Method of discipline
a. has themanager setgoals for the correction of employee behavior b. attempts to focus on a specific problem or problems c. feels it is unnecessary to evaluate performance d. all of these |
|
Definition
b. attempts to foucus on a specific problem or problems |
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Term
____ uses training to foster compliance with rules and regulations and performance at peak effciency.
a. Negative discipline b. Positive discipline c. Summary discipline d. Self-discipline |
|
Definition
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Term
The Balance of consequences approach to discipline
a. uses only positive behavior of the employee b. uses only negative behavior of the employees c. uses a combination of positive and negatie behavior d. gives more weight to negative than to positive behavior |
|
Definition
c. uses a combination of positive and negative behavior |
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Term
Which of the following is generally true?
a. discipline is a state of mind b. morale is a state of affairs c. morale concerns employees' attitudes d. state of mind and state of affairs are synonymous |
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Definition
c. morale concerns employees' attitudes |
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Term
Negative discipline involves
a. using reprimands and punishment to induce expected behavior b. using praise to achieve expected begavior c. using reprimands only in emergency situations d. using punishment, but not reprimands |
|
Definition
a. using reprimands and punishment to induce expected behavior |
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Term
Wrongful termination lawsuits arise from the due process clause of the ____ Amendment.
a. First b. Fourth c. Fourteenth d. Sixteenth |
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Definition
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Term
The cornerstone of use-of-force training should be ____ assessment.
a. cost b. liability c. threat d. balance |
|
Definition
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Term
The primary purpose of negative discipline is
a. to send a message to others that such behavior is not acceptable b. to help offenders correct behavior c. to punish wrongdoing d. both a and b |
|
Definition
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Term
The type of sexual harassment that involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit is ____ harassment.
a. hostile-environment b. negligent-environment c. nonsequiter d. quid pro quo |
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Definition
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Term
The primary objective of progressive discipline is a. to come down hard on emplyoees for first infractions so that further problems are avoided b. to give employees a chance to voluntaril improve their behavior or work c. to allwo cowerkers to set penalties for rule infractions. d. none of these |
|
Definition
b. to give employees a chance to voluntarily improve thier behavior or work |
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Term
Of the following disciplinary actions, which is considred most severe?
a. suspension b. demotion c. discharge d. written reprimand |
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Definition
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Term
The next most serious punishment after a warning or reprimand is
a. demotion b. dismissal c. termination d. suspension |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When administering negative discipline, managers should
a. focus on the person and not the behavior b. not threaten, argue or show anger c. ascribe intent to the behaviro by implyig it was done purposely. d. all of these |
|
Definition
b. not threaten, argue or show anger |
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Term
When supervisors accumulate the negative behaviors of a subordinate and then dump them all on the officer at the same time rather than correcting them as they occur, this is known as
a. the gunny sack approach to discipline b. summary discipline c. progressive discipline d. the comprehensive approach to discipline |
|
Definition
a. the gunny sack approach to discipline |
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Term
In effective discipline, punishment is
a. immediate, consistent and impartial b. delayed, inconsisent and biased c. immediate, unpredictable and based on individual circumstances. d. never appropriate |
|
Definition
a. immediate, consistent and impartial |
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Term
The ____ involves the use of a grid to examine problem behavior.
a. PRICE method b. on minute manageing technique c. stroke approach d. balance of consequences analysis |
|
Definition
d. balance of consequences analysis |
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Term
Individuals who demonstrate ability but do just enough to get by are known as
a. 10/80 employees b. marginal performers c. decoupling employees d. change behavior performers |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following type of individuals is often silent and unresponsive, and seldom offer their own ideas or opinions?
a. complainers b. pessimists c. passives d. avoiders |
|
Definition
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Term
Which of the following individual types attack verbally or physically, using threats or demands to get their way?
a. bullies b. snipers c. imploders d. avoiders |
|
Definition
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Term
Which of the following individual types yell and scream, and are often overemotional?
a. bullies b. snipers c. imploders d. exploders |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Wrongful termination lawsuits have ____ in the past decade.
a. declined sharply b. declined only slightly c. remained constant d. increased |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A fair disciplinary system would include
a. an appeals providion b. immediate and impartial enforcement of rules c. reasonable but necessary rules and regulations governing employee behavior d. all of these |
|
Definition
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Term
A sustained complaint is a complaint in which
a. the complaint is a truthful description of what actually occurred but there are no legal grounds for disciplinary action. b. the complaint is carried to a higher court. c. the facts support the complaint d. the evidence does not support the complaint |
|
Definition
c. the facts support the complaint |
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Term
A good rule to follow when investigating complaints is to
a. treat all complaints as minor b. delay action in order to prioritize major complaints c. turn all complaints over to the chief of police d. treat all complaints seriously |
|
Definition
d. treat all complaints serioulsly |
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Term
According to the data presented in Table 11.1 about complaints at a large urban police department, the most common complaint was
a. conduct unbecoming a police officer b. substandard officer performance c. unprofessional attitude or language d. violations regarding reports |
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Definition
a. conduct unbecoming a police officer |
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Term
A complaint may be
a. charge b. an accusation c. a criticism d. any of these |
|
Definition
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Term
A good investigation of a complaint
a. protects the accused b. satisfies the accuser c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When investigating complaints, managers should
a. collect positive facts only b. interview both accuser and accused c. collect negative facts only d. take only oral statements |
|
Definition
b. interview both accuser and accused |
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Term
In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment occurs when the government uses a police officer's statement in a criminaltrial against that officer?
a. Davis v. City of Dallas b. Garrity v. New Jersey c. Miranda v. Arizona d. City of Canton, Ohio v. Harris |
|
Definition
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Term
Most minor complaints are investigated by
a. the internal affairs division b. the first-line manager c.the middle manager d.a fellow officer of the same level |
|
Definition
b. the first-line manager |
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Term
An exonerated complaint is one in which
a. the complaint is a truthful description of what actually occurred but ther is no legal grounds for disciplinary action b. the complaintis carried to a higher court c. the facts supported the complaint, which was, in fact, illegal d. the complaint was false. |
|
Definition
a. the complaint is a truthful description of what actually occurred but there is no legal grounds for disciplinary action. |
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Term
External complaints usually arise from
a. fellow employees b. city managers c. citizens d. none of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Concerning civilian review boards, it is generally true that
a. all communities have them b. police have usually suported these boards c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Internal complaints are usaully associated with
a. working ocnditions b. management style c. either a or b d. neither a nor b |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Inter complaints should
a. be handled lightly b. treat the employee as a chronic complainer c. always be investigated and resolved wherever possible d. never be resolved by explanation of decision to employee |
|
Definition
c. always be investigated and resolved wherever possible |
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Term
A good way to reduce employee complaints is to
a. improve communications b. listen to what employees say c. improve working conditions d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following does the Pinch Model illustrate?
a. any complaint can come from the public b. any complaint can come from an employee c. any small complaint can turn into a larger one d. the key is in keeping things quite so as not to upset the public |
|
Definition
c. any small complaint can turn into a larger one |
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|
Term
Concerning the grievance process
a. the process is an employee's rights b. it is seldom necessary because managers' hold a certain amount of unquestionable authority c. roughtly 10% of grievances involve management decisions d. all of these |
|
Definition
a. the process is an employee's right |
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Term
Grievances can be against
a. higher ranking employees b. the chief executive manager c. first-line managers d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Non-contractual grievances are usually resolved
a. at the middle manager level b. at the first-line manager level c. by the chief of police d. by the internal affairs division |
|
Definition
b. at the first-line manager level |
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Term
The self_inrimination clause ofthe ____ Amendment prohibits forcing individuals to provide evidence against themselves in a criminal matter
a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Sixth d. Fourteenth |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Complaints can be reduced through
a. effective training b. effective supervision c. effective recruitment and selection d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When investigating complaints against specific employees, the primary purpose should be to
a. correct the problem behavior b. keep the investigation as secret as possible to avoid negative publicity c. coerce the offending employee into resignation d. make an example of the offending employee |
|
Definition
a. correct the problem behavior |
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Term
Complaints that should be accepted include those from
a. arrestees b. anonymous sources c. juveniles d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of mediation?
a. greater officer satisfaction with complaint process b. greater citizen undertstanding of policing c. reduced police accountability d. a more efficient complaint process |
|
Definition
c. reduced police accountability |
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|
Term
Grievances concerning rules, regulations, policies and procedures center primarily on violations of
a. safety codes b. civil rights c. the Garrity protection clause d. city ordinances |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The final step in the grievance chain of command is
a. the courts b. a hearing c. arbitration d. the chief of police |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Communication is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who
a. are satisfied and communicate b. are satisfied and do not communicate c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
|
Definition
b. are satisfied and do not communicate |
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Term
If a complaint leads to an internatl affairs investigation in which criminal behaior on the part of the officer is suspected.
a. the criminal investigation should be conducted first, includign the Miranda warning if applicable b. the administrative investigation should be conducted first, including the Miranda warning if applicable. c. the criminal investigation should be conducted first, includding a Garrit warning if applicable d. the administrative investigation should be conducted first, including a Garrity warning if applicable. |
|
Definition
a. the criminal investigation should be conducted first, includign the Miranda warnign if applicable. |
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Term
If investigative facgs are insufficient to support an accusation, the complaint or grievance is
a. exonerated b. unfounded c. sustained d. not sustained |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Demographic analysis shows 75 percent of all complaints against the police are made by
a. white, married males over the age 40 b. nonwhite, unmarried males under the age of 30 c. nonwhite, unmarried femalesunder the age of 40 d. nonwhite, married males over the age of 40 |
|
Definition
b. nonwhite, unmarried males under the age of 30 |
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Term
Officers most likely to receive complaints against them were
a. those assigned to patrol duties b. those assigned to the investigative division c. those over age 45, with more than 12 years of police experience d. those with a college degree |
|
Definition
a. those assigned to patrol duties |
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|
Term
Stress
a. is always harmful b. may be helpful or harmful c. is completely diferent from conflict d. is emotionally but not moentarily serious |
|
Definition
b. may be helpful or harmful |
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|
Term
Stree is
a. tension b. pressure c. anxiety d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is true of stress?
a. continued exposure to stress decreases its severity b. stress is an abnormal bodily reaction to fear c. stress can lead to depression d. all of these |
|
Definition
c. stress can lead to depression |
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|
Term
The police job is
a. a high stress profession b. no more or less stressful than anyother job c. the highest stress job in the United States d. among the lowest stress jobs in the United states |
|
Definition
a. a high stress profession |
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|
Term
Stress that is severe and intense but lasts only for a limited amount of time is known as
a. traumatic stress b. cumulative stress c. acute stress d. chronic stress |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Minority officers often feel stress
a. because of the pressure to be role models b. because of the risk of being mistaken as criminals c. because they are less likely to be criticized d. because they feel they neglected |
|
Definition
b. because of the risk of being mistaken as criminals |
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|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a mechanisms for reducing stress described in the text?
a. eating chocolate. b. exercising regularly c. changing your mental attitude d. making friends |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Among the programs designed to reduce stress in police organizations, which technique can be useful not only in reducing stress, but in reducing resignations and improving employee relationships?
a. prevention programs b. training c. stress exposure management training d. testing and selection |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Psychological hardiness refers to an individual's ability to
a. navigate a high stress profession b. the ability to successfully cope with stress c. successfully utilize employee assistance programs d. deal with mass disaster |
|
Definition
b. the ability to successfully cope with stress |
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|
Term
In a survey of police officer stressors, the incidnet receivign the highest mean stress ranking was
a. shift work b. riot control c. seeing a child beaten or abused d. poor supervisor support |
|
Definition
c. seeing a child beaten or abused |
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|
Term
Boredom, defensiveness and hostility are ____ symptoms of stress.
a. physical b. psychological c. behavioral d. psychosomatic |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Women police officers may
a. receive less respect than male counterparts b. have fewer stressors than male officers c. encounter less hostility than males d. receive more positive reactions from fellow officers |
|
Definition
a. receive les respect than male counter parts |
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|
Term
PTSD is
a. a mental illness b. a normal reaction to an abnormal amount of stress c. synonymous with stress d. all of these |
|
Definition
b. a normal reaction to abnormal amounts of stress. |
|
|
Term
The percentage of all illness related to stress is approximately ____ percent.
a. 26 b. 48 c. 65 d. 85 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The physical sysmptom most likely to be associated with stress is
a. fatigue b. anger c. paranoia d. drug or alcohol abuse |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Burnout is the ___ stage of stress.
a. first b. second c. third d. final |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Abdominal pain, headaches, and increased pulse rate are ____ symptoms of stress.
a. physical b. psychological c. behavioral d. psychosomatic |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Police organizations can assist members to reduce stress by providing
a. annual physical examinations b. periodic psychological fitness-for-duty evaluations c. in-service health and fitness training d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Minority police officers are likely to
a. suffer no more or less stress than majority officers b. suffer greater stress than majority officers c. suffer less stress than majority officers d. none of these |
|
Definition
b. suffer greater stress than majority officers |
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|
Term
All of the following are behavioral symptoms of stress except
a. stomach pains b. anger c. sleep problems d. nail biting |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Stress may be increased by
a. alcohol abuse b. drug abuse c. smoking d. all of these |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Chronic stress is also known as ____ stress.
a. acute b. traumatic c. cumulative d. transitional |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following statements about officer suicide is NOT true
a. Officers experiencing marital problems are five times more likely to commit suicide b. Officers facing suspension are seven times more likely to commit suicide c. Retired officers are tentimes less likely to commit suicide than their peers d. Alcohol plays a role in more than one-third of officer suicides |
|
Definition
c. Retired officers areten times less likely to commit suicide than their peers. |
|
|
Term
Since the first recorded police death in 1794, there have been ____ law enforcement officers killed in the line of duty.
a. less than 2,000 b. between 3,500 and 4,000 c. approximately 7,000 d. more than 14,000 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Women currently constitute about ____ percent of all sworm law enforcement officers nationwide.
a. 4 b. 14 c. 24 d. 34 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Argumentatieness, inability to concentrate and rage are____ symptoms of stress.
a. physical b. psychological c. behavioral d. psychosomatic |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A CISD should tkae place ____ after a critical incidnet.
a. immediately b. within 24 to 72 hours c. one week d. two weeks |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The main difference between police tasks and tasks performed in industry is that
a. police tasks are known in advance b. industry tasks are known in advance c. no police tasks are known in advance d. none of these |
|
Definition
b. industry tasks are known in advance |
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|
Term
The alrgest division in most departments is the a. narcotics unit b. detective unit c. uniforemd patrol unit d. juvenile unit |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In police departments performace expectations should be the responsibility of
a. the top police executive b. the deputy police commander c. the middle level police manager d. all levels of police managers |
|
Definition
d. all levels of police managers |
|
|
Term
The Kansas City Study of Preventive Patrol found that increaseing routine preventive patrol
a. decreased crime rates b. decreased citizen fear of crime c. had a deterren effect in surrounding communities d. produced no measurable change |
|
Definition
d. produced no measureable change |
|
|
Term
About ___ ercent of criminals are estimated to commit up to 70 % of all serious crimes.
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 36 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Police logs can provide basic information for
a. assignment of personnel where needed b. types of incidents c. times of incidents d. all of these |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time between the occurrence of an incident and its report to the poice is refered to as the
a. lag time b. response time c. hang time d. proportionality index |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Factors in determining patrol area size should be
a. street numbers b. square miles c. lack of commmunity participation d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Response time is important because it increases the chances of
a. making an arrest b. contacting scene witnesses c. preserving evidence d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Deployment by random patorl means being assigned
a. by fixed rotation b. by each shift commander c. according to the amthematical theory of probabilty d. none of these |
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Definition
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Term
Shift assignments should be based on
a. officers' requests b. management's professional opinions c. data d. random assignment |
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Definition
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Term
In recent years, 10 and 12 hour shifts have frequently resulted in
a. easier schedulign b. lower officer satisfaction c. special treatment for specific units d. general economic savings |
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Definition
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Term
In the police profession, work productivity is
a. less measurable than in industry b. more measureable than in industry c. measured the same as in industry d. not measurable to any degree |
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Definition
a. leass measurable than in industry |
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Term
Which of the following is an advantage of random patorl?
a. reduction of set patrol patterns b. increased freedom of the police c. greater visibility d. all of these |
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Definition
a. reduction of set patrol patterns |
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Term
One sympotm of low productivity
a. low absenteeism b. unreasonable grievances c. increased reasonable complaints d. low crash rates |
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Definition
b. unreasonable grievances |
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Term
which of the following is not a strategic goal of the Department of Homeland Security
a. protection b. productivity c. recovery d. prevention |
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Definition
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Term
A goal of random patrol is
a. to reduce response time b. to mainatain set patrol pattern habits c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
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Definition
a. to reduce response time |
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Term
Which of the following statements about aggressive patorl is NOT true
a. it focuses on prevention of crime b. it focuses on the detection of crime c. it is reactive d. none--all are true |
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Definition
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Term
The most common method of patorl is ___ patorl
a. foot b. automobile c. motorcycle d. air |
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Definition
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Term
Studies have found that two-officer patorl units are
a. safer than single-officer units b. less likely to generate a complaint from a citizen c. less cost-effective than single-officer units d. all of these |
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Definition
c. less cost-effective than single-officer units |
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Term
Law enforcement productivity has traditionally been measured by
a. the value of recovered property b. the reduction of crashed and crime c. arrests, stops and traffic citations d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Citizen police academy participants, citizen patrols and reservists are primarily, if not solely.
a. certified professional officers b. paraprofessionals c. volunteers d. police academy dropouts |
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Definition
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Term
The budge is a critical document for
a. operations b. planning c. administration d. all of these |
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Definition
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Term
Variance reports
a. should be made annually b. are an automatic red-flag that the budget was prepared incorrectly c. should be made known to everyone who directly or indirectly influences the costs d. all of these |
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Definition
c. should be made known to everyone who directly or indirectly influences the costs |
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Term
Most police budgetign is
a. an annual process b. are a continuous process c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
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Definition
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Term
Bottom line budget philosophy holds that
a. shifiting funds from one category to another must be approved b. funds may be expended beyond the total approved c. there is no limit on funding d. funds may be expended up to the total amount approved regardless of category |
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Definition
d. funds may be expended up to the total amount approved regardless of category |
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Term
Budget preparation responsibility may be assigned to
a. the records division b. a finance officer c. a spearate police division d. any of these |
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Definition
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Term
The "all levels" police budget approach means that
a. all department categories must expend equally b. all levels of personnel should be involved in budget preparation c. all levels msut approve expenditures d. all of these |
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Definition
b. all levels of personnel should be involved in budget preparation |
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Term
discretionalry budgets are
a. for the propose of allocating the unexpected funds. b. for special needs that arise c. funds left over from the prior year d. funds for officer perks |
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Definition
b. for special needs that arise |
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Term
A basic starting point for budget preparation is
a. the prior year's budget b. the average of the alst five years' budgets c. knowing the total available revenues d. all of these |
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Definition
a. the prior years budget |
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Term
Some communities operate on a ___ philosophy, which permits departments to shift funds from one category to another as long as the toatl budget amount is not exeeded
a. zero-balance b. horizontal-flow c. bottom-line d. full-sum |
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Definition
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Term
The U.S. Supreme court has ruled that asset forfeiture is governed by the ___ Amendment
a. First b. Fourth c. Sixth d. Eighth |
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Definition
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Term
Cutback budgeting requires
a. the contingency funds be used to cover costs b. that not all factors can be measured in dollars c. utilizing the same revenue to provide more services d. doing less for more |
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Definition
c. utilizing the same revenue to provide more services |
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Term
A direct budget cost would be
a. utilities b. training c. insurance d. salaries |
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Definition
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Term
Program budgeting
a. requires much paperwork b. is perceived by many managers as unproductive c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
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Definition
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Term
Personnel costs account for ___ percent of the average total police budget
a. 25 b. 40 c. 65 d. 80 |
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Definition
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Term
Most departments have ___ types of budgets
a. two b. four c. six d. nine |
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Definition
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Term
Subordinates should submit their ideas relating to budget items to
a. their most immediate supervisor b. their supervisor's supervisor c. the poilce chief d. those of equal rank |
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Definition
a. their most immediate supervior |
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Term
The federal governement's fiscal year begins in
a. January b. April c. July d. October |
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Definition
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Term
The process in which financial information about an agency is recorded, classifed, summarized, interpreted and then communicated to managers and other interested parties is known as
a. depreciation b. accounting c. variance analysis d. performance budgeting |
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Definition
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Term
The financial statement that shows the financial position of an agency at a specific date by summarizing the agency's assets and liablities is known as
a. a balance sheet b. an activity-based cost analysis c. an audit trail d. a line-itme budget |
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Definition
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Term
the quatermaster system helps officers maintain
a. ammunition b. fuel for patrol cars c. timesheets d. uniforms |
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Definition
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Term
Variance budge analysis involves
a. proactive budgeting b. the difference between actual costs and amount budgeted c. the difference between estimated costs and actual budget d. none of these |
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Definition
b. the difference between actual costs and amount budgeted |
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Term
A ___ grant is awarded to states or localities based on population and crime rates
a. formula b. discretionalry c. utility d. blended |
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Definition
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Term
Costs that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated are called ____ costs
a. Common b. Sunk c. Fixed d. Variable |
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Definition
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Term
An historical cost that has already been incurred and is thus irrelevant for decision-making purposes is called a ___ cost.
a. common b. sunk c. fixed d. variable |
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Definition
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Term
Many agencies have begun charging for traditional services, including
a. credit card fraud b. larceny arrests c. burglary investigations d. DUI arrests |
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Definition
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Term
When managers at each level are responsible for the budget they need based on input from their subordinates, it is known as ___ budgeting
a. all-levels b. flexible c. holistic d. democratic |
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Definition
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Term
A budgeting system inwhich dollars are allocated based on productivity is called
a. activity-based costing b. performance budgeting c. program budgeting d. zero-based budgeting |
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Definition
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Term
Most budget itmes are:
a. a continuous item b. derived from written commitments c. short term for current years d. designed to address staff issues |
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Definition
c. short term for current years |
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Term
The leading federal funding agency for law enforcement programs is the
a. DOJ b. DEA c. FBI d. ATF |
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Definition
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Term
The budgeting system that requries justification of all expenditures, not aonly those that exceed the prior year's allocations, is called
a. activity-based costing b. performance budgeting c. program budgeting d. zero-based budgeting |
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Definition
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Term
The budget is usually divided into two classes of expenses
a. fixed and variable b. common and general c. long-term and short-term d. mandatory and compulsory |
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Definition
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Term
Of the total amount budgeted for salaries and wages, firnge benefits usually receive about ____ percent of the allocation
a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 75 |
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Definition
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