Term
What are the five most common congressional grants of subject matter jurisdiction? |
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Definition
- Federal Question
- Diversity Jurisdiction
- Supplemental Jurisdiction
- Removal Jurisdiction
- Legislative Jurisdiction
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Federal Questions Jurisdiction
What is the well-pleaded complaint rule? |
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Definition
Federal Question Jurisdiction exists only when the federal law issue is presented in the plaintiff's complaint |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Federal Questions Jurisdiction: Well-pleaded complaint rule
How is jurisdiction determined? |
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Definition
Considering only the necessary elements of the plaintiff's cause of action and not potential defenses.
Not enough to establish jurisdiction that a plaintiff alleges some anticipated federal law defense.
Federal question must be on the face of the complaint. Actions for declaratory relief, which by their nature anticipates a future action cannot be brought under federal question jx unless it provides relief that is not available under state law. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Federal Questions Jurisdiction: Well-pleaded complaint rule
Are answers or counterclaims considered in determining the existence of federal question jurisdiction?
Does the well-pleaded complaint rule apply to original or removal jx? |
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Definition
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
When do U.S. District Courts have jurisdiction over actions? |
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Definition
i. parties to the action are:
- citizens of different states
- citizens of a state and citizens or subjects of a foreign state are additional parties, or
- a foreign state as a plaintiff and citizens of a state or different state, and
ii. the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000 |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
What are the state law exclusions from diversity jurisdiction? |
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Definition
Probate
Domestic relations |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
What are the exceptions to the complete diversity rule?
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Definition
Interpleader
Class actions greater than $5M
Multiparty, Multiforum Trial Jurisdiction Act of 2002
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Exceptions
Multiparty, Multiforum Trial Jurisdiction Act of 2002 |
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Definition
Arising from a single accident:
75 natural persons have died at a discrete location, only 1 plaintiff need to be diverse from one defendant for a federal court to have jurisdiction |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Domicile
What is the rule for liability insurers? |
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Definition
Wherever their insured party resides is their location for purposes of litigation |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Domicile
What is the rule for partnerships? |
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Definition
Partnerships are citizens in each state in which each of its members if domiciled
Same for both limited and general partners |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Amount in Controversy
In an action between a single plaintiff against a single defendant can the plaintiff's claims be aggregated to meet the amount in controversy requirement? |
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Definition
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Amount in Controversy
In an action between multiple plaintiffs against a single defendant can the plaintiff's claims be aggregated to meet the amount in controversy requirement? |
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Definition
Yes, only if they are enforcing a single title or right in which they have a common or undivided interest. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Amount in Controversy
In an action between a single plaintiff against multiple defendants can the plaintiff's claims be aggregated to meet the amount in controversy requirement? |
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Definition
The value of a single plaintiff's claims against each defendant may not be aggregated if the claims are separate and distinct.
If the defendants are jointly liable to the plaintiff then aggregation to meet the amount in controversy is permissible. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Complete Diversity
What is Interpleader? |
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Definition
The holder of property that is claimed by two or more persons may deposit the property with a court to determine ownership
Needs to be two adverse claimants of diverse citizenship to establish federal jurisdiction. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Counterclaims
What kind of counterclaim is generally arising out of the same transaction of occurrence as the plaintiff's claim, does not need to meet the jurisdictional amount requirement to be considered by the court?
What type of jurisdiction does the court have? |
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Definition
Compulsory Counter claim
Supplement |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction: Counterclaim
What type of counterclaim arises out of a transaction that is unrelated to the plaintiff's claim, and DOES HAVE to meet the statutory jurisdictional amount? |
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Definition
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Supplemental Jurisdiction
Supplemental Jurisdiction Test
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Definition
(Usually State law claims against a nondiverse defendant)
Whether they arise out of a "common nucleus of operative fact" such that all claims should be tried together in a single judicial proceeding. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Supplemental Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
Can permissive Joinder by a plaintiff be allowed by supplemental jurisdiction regardless of diversity?
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Definition
Cannot violate complete diversity |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Supplemental Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
Permissive Joinder
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Definition
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Supplemental Jurisdiction: Diversity Jurisdiction
Does supplemental jurisdiction apply to defendants sought to be joined under the permissive joinder rule in a case based exclusively on diversity, in which exercising jurisdiction would destroy diversity |
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Definition
NO, if claims are based solely on diversity there must be complete diversity between the plaintiffs and joined defendants. And the claims against each defendant must satisfy the amount in controversy. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction:
What is Removal? |
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Definition
Defendant can remove case from state court, if it could have been brought in Federal Court.
All Defendants must agree
No removal by P
If a D files permissive counterclaim in state court, he cannot remove |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Jurisdiction
What is the difference between specific and general jurisdiction? |
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Definition
Relatedness
General: Defendant had continuous and systematic ties with the forum
Specific: Defendant's specific contact with the forum. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Removal
How long after an action is removed to federal court must the removing party (if seeking a jury trial) file a jury demand? |
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Definition
Within 14 days of filing for removal
Non-removing party has 14 days to file, but countdown begins after service of notice of removal
Exception: When a party who, prior to removal, exercised his right to a jury trial, no need exists to make the same demand for removal. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Remand
If a party is motioning to remand the case on the basis of any defect other than lack of subject matter jurisdiction, how long to they have? |
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Definition
within 30 days after filing the notice of removal. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction: Remand
What is the remand procedure? |
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Definition
A certified copy of the remand order must be mailed by the district court clerk to the clerk or the state court.
The state court may thereafter proceed with the case. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction:
What are the three types? |
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Definition
- In personam
- In Rem
- Quasi-in-Rem
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction:
what is the Effect of State Jurisdictional Statutes on Personal Jurisdiction in Federal Courts? |
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Definition
Under Rule 4(k)(1)(A), the service of summons in federal action establishes personal jurisdiction over a defendant "who is subject to the jurisdiction of a court of general jurisdiction in the state where the district court is located."
Federal Court must generally determine personal jurisdiction as if it were a court of the State in which it is situated.
A federal court will look to state jurisdictional statutes (long-arm) to determine if it has PJx over the parties. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Alternative Sources of PJx
How can a federal court (that is not generally vested with nationwide personal jurisdiction) obtain nationwide personal jurisdiction?
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Definition
When authorized by federal statute:
Interpleader Actions |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Alternative Sources of PJx
What is the Bulge Provision under Rule 4(k)(1)(B)? |
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Definition
States that federal court has PJx over a party who is served within a U.S. judicial district and not more than 100 miles from where the summons is issued. (regardless of whether state law would not permit this service)
ONLY APPLIES TO:
Third party defendants joined under Rule 14 &
A required party joined under Rule 19 |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Alternative Sources of PJx
What three conditions must be present for a federal court to have personal jurisdiction over a defendant under Rule 4(k)(2)? |
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Definition
1. Plaintiff's claims are based on federal law
2. No state court can exercise personal jurisdiction over the defendant
3. The exercise of jurisdiction must be consistent with the U.S. Constitution and laws. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Due Process
What are the Due Process requirements for PJx?
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Definition
A Could may not exercise Pjx over a D, unless the D has had minimum contacts with the state where the (forum state), and the exercise of jurisdiction is fair and reasonable.
A court must notify a party of the action and provide opportunity to be heard. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Waiver
What are the basis for in personam jx? |
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Definition
Voluntary Presence
Domicile
Consent
Long-arm statutes |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction
Explain voluntary presence and the two exceptions
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Definition
Voluntary Presence: voluntarily in the state and is served with process while there.
Two exceptions: if P fraudulently brings a D into the state for the purpose of service
D is also immune if he is merely passing through the state to attend other judiciary proceedings.
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction
Explain long-arm statutes
In the states where the long-arm state only confers jx over certain activities (e.g., owning property, committing a tort, or entering into a contract to supply goods or services in the state), the Federal court must first determine whether the statutory requirements have been met, before determining whether the exercise of personal jurisdiction comports with the Due Process Clause. |
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Definition
Authorize PJx over nonresidents who engage in some activity in the state of cause some action to occur within the state.
Federal court needs to determine whether the exercise of Pjx comports with Due Process.
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Long-arm statutes
How are long-arm statutes applied to states where the long-arm state only confers jx over certain activities (e.g., owning property, committing a tort, or entering into a contract to supply goods or services in the state)? |
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Definition
The Federal court must first determine whether the statutory requirements have been met, before determining whether the exercise of personal jurisdiction comports with the Due Process Clause. |
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Term
Venue:
What is the venue issue? |
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Definition
For cases in federal court, the issue is determining the proper geographic district (e.g., Central District of California) in which a trial should occur.
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Term
Venue:
What are local and transitory actions? |
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Definition
Common law distinction to determine venue. Many states still use
Local actions: involve title to property and are required to be brought in a court where the property is located.
Transitory actions: involve a cause of action based on events that could have taken place anywhere
However, in federal court, venue is determined without these
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Term
Venue:
what is the general venue rule? |
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Definition
Where (in a federal civil action) is venue proper?
i. judicial district in which any D resides, if all Ds reside in the same state in which the district is located; or
ii. A judicial district in which a "substantial part of the events fo omissions" on which the claim is based occurred, or where a "substantial party of the property" that is the subject of the action is located. |
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Term
Venue:
what is the fall back alternative if there is otherwise no judicial district where the action can be brought? |
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Definition
Judicial district in which any D is subject to personal jurisdiction with respect to such action. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Attachment
What is attachment? |
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Definition
Under attachment (a type of quasi-in-rem jurisdiction), where a P asserting a personal claim against a D could use attachment of property owned by the D located in the forum state as a device to obtain jurisdiction, and satisfaction of the claim at least to the extent of value of the property attached.
However, there also has to be minimum contacts between D and the forum to establish jx. Mere ownership is usually not enough |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Due Process Requirements
What is the standard set forth in Internaiotnal Shoe Co. State of Washington? |
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Definition
Nonresident Ds have to have sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state such that the maintenance of the action does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial jusitice. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Due Process Requirements
What are the minimum contact requirements
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Definition
Purposeful Availment: D should reasonably anticipate being taken to court
Foreseeability: |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Due Process Requirements
Once minimum contacts are established, courts must still examine facts to determine if maintenance of the action would "offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice, what are those factors? |
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Definition
- Interest of forum in adjudicating the matter
- Burden on the D to appear in the case
- Efficient resolution of cases for judicial system
- Shared interests of the states in promoting social policies
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Basis for In Personam Jurisdiction: Due Process Requirements
Absent exceptional circumstances, where can a P sue a corporation?
(3 places)
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Definition
i. forum with specific jx because suit stems from d's contracts with forum
ii. D's place of incorporation
iii. D's principal place of business |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Jurisdiction over things
What is in rem jx?
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Definition
Authority of courts to determine the issues concerning rights in property. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Jurisdiction over things: Due Process requirements:
When are due process notice requirements met?
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Definition
Due process is met if the notice is "reasonably calculated, under all the circumstances, to apprise interested parties of the pendency of the action and afford them an opportunity to present objections.
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Jurisdiction over things:
What is Quasi-in-rem Jx? |
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Definition
In Rem judgment determines the interests of all persons in particular property.
Quasi-in-rem determines only the interests of the parties to the action regarding property located in the forum state. |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Notice: Due Process requirements:
If the identity and address of an interested party are known or obtainable through reasonable efforts, then what type of notice is required?
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Definition
In-person delivery
registered mail
return receipt required
or some other means likely to notify the particular individual |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Notice: Due Process requirements:
If the identity and address of an interested party are not known or obtainable through reasonable efforts, then what type of notice is required?
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Definition
Publication of notice in newspapers maybe be satisfactory, test is "what is reasonable under the circumstances" |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction: Defenses to Jurisdictional Claims
If a court overrules a D's objection to PJx, do most states permit the D to defend the case on the merits and still preserve the objection to PJx as an issue for appeal. |
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Definition
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Term
Venue: Special Venue Provisions
Case against a federal official |
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Definition
Venue is proper in any judicial district in which:
i. A Defendant in action resides
ii. A substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred, or a substantial part of the property that is the subject of the action is situated; or
iii. The plaintiff resides, if no real property is involved in the action. |
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Term
Venue: Special Venue Provisions
Case brought under the Federal Tort Claims Act |
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Definition
Proper in either the judicial district with the P resides or in the judicial district where act or omission occurred. |
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Term
Venue: Change of venue when original venue is proper:
In a diversity case, if the court transfers the case, what law must the new district court apply?
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Definition
The law that would have been applied in the district court that transferred the case |
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Term
Venue: Change of venue when original venue is proper:
In a diversity case, if the court transfers the case, what law must the new district court apply?
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Definition
The law that would have applied in the district court that transferred the case. |
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Term
What is forum non-conveniens? |
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Definition
Allows a court to dismiss an action, even if personal jurisdiction and venue are otherwise proper.
If court finds that the forum would be too inconvenient for parties and witness and that another, more convenient, venue is available.
D bears a burden to displace the P's chosen forum
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Term
What are the factors to be determined at common-law to apply forum non-conveniens?
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Definition
i. the availability of alternative forum
ii. the law that will apply, and
iii. the location of parties, witnesses, and evidence |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine
What law controls in a federal question claim? |
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Definition
Federal Substantive & Procedural |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine
What law controls in a federal diversity claim? |
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Definition
Substantive law: State law where DC is located
Procedural: Hanna v. Plumer
- if a procedural issue is addressed by a valid federal law, apply federal
- if no federal law applies, then the district court must follow state law with regard to substance, but can choose to ignore state procedure under certain circumstances. |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine
What is the basic rule for diversity cases? |
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Definition
Use state substantive law and federal procedural laws.
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine
Statutes of limitations, choice of law rules, Elements of a claim or defense, tolling provisions, burden of proof are substantive or procedural? |
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Definition
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine
What is created when there is not applicable federal statute or constitutional provision? |
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Definition
Federal Common Law.
When federal interests warrant the application of federal common law, courts will use source materials since there is not general federal common law.
Federal question claim or procedural issue in diversity. |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Federal Common Law
When can federal common law apply to state courts? |
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Definition
When a state court runs afoul of Erie. |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Determining Applicable State law
In determining a state's substantive law, the U.S. district court will be bound by what court?
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Definition
The State's highest Court
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Determining Applicable State law
In determining a state's substantive law, if the state's highest court has not yet ruled, what does the federal court do?
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Definition
Try to determine how the state's highest court would rule on the issue, if it did consider it.
Looking to lower court's views, unless it believes the highest court would not follow. |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Determining Applicable State law
What happens if the state's highest court rules after the completion of a federal suit?
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Definition
The federal appeals court is bound by the state court's ruling. |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Determining Applicable State law: Conflict of Laws: state v. state
What issues are considered procedural and controlled by the law of the forum state?
Klaxon
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Definition
i. Proper court to bring an action;
ii. form of the action to be brought;
iii. the sufficiency of the pleadings;
iv. the effect of splitting the cause of action;
v. the proper or necessary parties to an action;
vi. whether a counterclaim may be brought;
vii. venue;
viii. the rules of discovery;
ix. right to a jury;
x. service of process;
xi. burden of proof;
xii. trial procedure; and
xiii. the method of enforcing a judgement |
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Term
Choice of Law: The Erie Doctrine: Determining Applicable State law: When Venue is transferred
If the venue of an action is transferred, then what law must the court to which the action is transferred apply? |
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Definition
The law of the state of the transferor court, including state rules regarding conflicts of law |
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Term
Pleadings: Commencement of Proceedings:
How does a civil complaint start? |
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Definition
Filing a complaint with the court clerk |
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Term
Pleadings: Commencement of Proceedings:
In a diversity action, which law applies to decide when the action is commenced for the purposes of statute of limitations? |
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Definition
State Law
So if state law says an action states by service of process on D, rather than filing that is the rule. |
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Term
Pleadings: Commencement of Proceedings:
Under Rule 6(c), when must a written motion and notice of a hearing be served by?
When must an opposing affidavit be served before the hearing? |
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Definition
At least 14 days prior to the hearing, unless
(i) the motion can be heard ex parte,
(ii) the Rules provide for it, or
(iii) the court orders otherwise
At least 7 days before, unless otherwise ordered. |
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Term
Pleadings: Commencement of Proceedings:
Under Rule 6(d), how many days are added to the prescribed period when the rule otherwise provide a time period for responding to a service or filing and the service or filing is made electronically or otherwise nontraditionally under Rule 5(b)? |
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Definition
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
Under Rule 4 (c), who must serve the summons and complaint upon the defendant? |
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Definition
The plaintiff is responsible.
Service may be made by any nonparty who is at least 18 |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
When must the plaintiff serve the summons and complaint? |
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Definition
Within 90days after filing the complaint. |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on individuals?
within USA |
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Definition
i. Personally serving the summons and complaint on the D
ii. leaving the summons and complaint at the D's usual abode with a person of suitable age and discretion who resides there; or
iii. Delivering the summon and complaint to an agent appointed by the D or otherwise authorized by law to receive service.
*Service made following a state law for serving a summons brought in courts of general jx in the state where the court is located or service is made is ok too |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on individuals?
outside USA |
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Definition
Any manner that is internationally agree upon, that is reasonably calculated to give notice |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on corporations and associations within the US? |
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Definition
Delivering summons and complaint to:
officer
managing agent
general agent
agent appointment or authorized by law to receive process (if law says so, P must also mail a copy of the summons and complaint to the D) |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on corporations and associations outside the US? |
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Definition
using any methods available for service on an individual outside the US except personal delivery |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on US government agencies and officers?
Service on US government |
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Definition
i. Delivery copy of the summons and complaint to the US attorney (or designee) for the district where the action si brought, or send a copy by registered or certified mail to the civil-process clerk at the US attorney's office;
ii. send a copy by registered or certified mail to the US attorney general; and
iii. service on a US agency, officer, or employee sued in an official capacity. |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on US government agencies and officers?
Service on US agency |
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Definition
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on US government agencies and officers?
Service on US agency |
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Definition
Serve a US agency, officer, or employee sued in an official capacity, a party must serve the US and also send a copy of the summons and complaint by registered or certified mail to the agency, officer, or employee. |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
How can service of process be made on US government agencies and officers?
Service on US officer or employee sued individually |
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Definition
Normal rules for serving an individual |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
What is the effect of a Defendant timely returning a waiver of service before being served with process?
What is the normal time period in which an answer must be served after service of process? |
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Definition
Defendant does not have to serve an answer to the complaint until 60 days after the request was sent, or 90 days after it was sent to a defendant outside of the US.
21 days
*waiver of service does not waive personal jurisdiction or venue |
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Term
Pleadings: Service of Process:
What happens if a defendant located within the US fails, without good cause, to sign and return a waiver requested by a plaintiff located in the US? |
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Definition
The Court MUST impose on the defendant the expenses that are incurred in making service and the reasonable expenses, including attorney;'s fees, of any motion required to collect such service expense. |
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What are injunctions?
What are the two types? |
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Definition
Equitable relief that mandates a defendant from performing a specified act
These are considered an extraordinary remedy
Mandatory and Prohibitory -- determining factor is the type of conduct that is affected by the injunction. |
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What is a mandatory injunction and what does it require? |
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Definition
Specific relief
Requires a person to engage in an affirmative act that typically changes the status quo.
Moving party burden is heavy |
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What is a prohibitory injunction and what does it require? |
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Definition
Preventative relief
restrains or prohibits a party from engaging in a specified behavior. |
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What are injunction types? |
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Definition
Temporary Restraining order
Preliminary Injunction
Permanent Injunction: determination on the merits, once issues, it continues until dissolved by the court.
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What should be stated in a TRO? |
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Definition
i. data and time issues
ii. irreparable harm suffered by the p
iii. the reasoning behind the ex parte issuance
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Term
Pleadings: Injunctions:
What needs to be established in a preliminary injunction? |
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Definition
i. likely to succeed on the merits;
ii. likely to suffer irreparable harm in absence of relief;
iii. the balance of equities is in his favor
iv. the injunction is in the best interest of the public |
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Term
Pleadings: Complaint
What are the required elements in a complaint? |
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Definition
i. short plain statement of the grounds that establish the court's subject matter jx;
ii. a short plain statement of the claim establishing entitlement to relief; and
iii. A demand for judgment for the relief sought by the pleader |
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Term
Pleadings: Complaint
What must a complaint in federal court contain? |
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Definition
An allegation of the subject matter jx of the court, unless the court already has jx and the claim needs no new jx support. |
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Term
Pleadings: Complaint: Statement of the claim
What must a party alleging fraud or mistake state with particularity? |
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Definition
The circumstances constituting fraud or mistake: malice, intent, knowledge, and other conditions of a person's mind |
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Term
Pleadings: Complaint
What are |
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Definition
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Term
Pleadings: Complaint: Statement of the claim
What must a party seeking special damages state? |
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Definition
Special damages must be specifically stated, and are damages that do not normally or necessarily flow from an event |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint:
Under rule 12, howe many days does a defendant have to respond to a complaint? |
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Definition
Within 21 days of service of process, a D must respond to a complaint either by an answer or by a pre-answer motion, or she must seek additional time to answer.
If a D does not take these steps she risk default. |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint:
Prior to filing an answer, what defenses may a D raise under 12(b)
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Definition
i. lack of subject matter jx
ii. personal jx
iii. improper venue
iv. insufficient process
v. insufficient service of process
vi. failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted; and
vii. failure to join a necessary or indispensable party under rule 19 |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint:
under Rule 12(h)(1), when do the defenses of lack of PJx, improper venue, insufficient process, and insufficient service of process have to be raised? |
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Definition
IN pre-answer motion or, if no pre-answer motion is made, in the answer, or the defenses will be waived. |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint:
Under Rule 12(h)(2), when do the defenses of failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted and failure to join a necessary party or indispensable party under Rule 19 have to be raised? |
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Definition
May be raised in any pleading, in a motion for judgment on the pleadings, or at trial. |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motions to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
What can be dismissed under a Rule 12(b)(6) motion?
How is it decided?
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Definition
A claim for relief can be dismissed if it either fails to assert a legal theory of recovery that is cognizable at law or fails to allege facts sufficient to support a cognizable claim
Courts treat all well-pleaded facts of the complaint as true, resolve all doubts and inferences in the P's favor and view the pleading in the light most favorable to the P |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motions to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
In ruling on a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(6) what may a court consider?
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Definition
Only the allegations in the complaint, any exhibits attached to the complaint, and any matters subject to judicial notice.
Anything outside the pleadings like...affidavits, presented to the court and is not excluded by the court in its review, then the motion must be treated as a motion for summary judgment under Rule 56, and all parties must be given an opportunity to present all material information for the court's consideration. |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motions to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
What is SCOTUS 2 step analysis for adjudicating a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(6)?
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Definition
1. Court must identify and reject legal conclusions unsupported by factual allegations (including mere conclusory statements and assertions devoid of facts)
2. The court should assume the truth or veracity of the well-pleaded factual allegations and should include "content specific" analysis that "draws on the courts judicial experience and common sense" to determine whether the allegations "plausibly give rise to an entitlement of relief" |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motions to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
If a claim is dismissed, can the P amend the pleading and continue the action?
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Definition
Yes, if P does not want to, judgment is entered and P can appeal
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motions to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
If a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(6) is denied what can D do? |
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Definition
The D may either answer the claim or allow a default judgment to be entered and then appeal |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motion for judgment on the pleadings
What does a motion for judgment on the pleadings allow a court to do?
What must a motion under 12(c) be made? |
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Definition
A court can dispose of a case when the material facts are not in dispute and a judgment on the merits can be achieved based on the content of the pleadings.
after the answer is filed |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motion for a more definite statement
When must this motion be made? |
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Definition
The court may strike a party's pleading if the party fails to respond to a court order granting this motion within 14 days of the notice of the order. |
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Term
Pleadings: Motions Against the Complaint: Motion to strike
What is a 12(f) motion to strike? |
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Definition
If a pleading contains any insufficient defense, or redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous material, then the court, upon motion or upon its own initiative, may order that such defense or material be stricken.
Must be made within 21 days of the service of the pleading. |
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Term
Answer:
What is included?
What is specific and general denial? |
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Definition
Admission or denial of the allegations of P's complaint
Specific: denial of a particular paragraph or allegation in the complaint or other claim for relief (counterclaim, cross-claim)
General: denial of every allegation in complaint, only can be done in good faith, with the intention to controvert all allegations. |
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Term
Answer: Affirmative Defenses
What are the affirmative defenses under Rule 8(c)? |
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Definition
Accord and satisfaction
arbitration and award
assumption of the risk
contributory negligence
duress
estoppel
failure of consideration
fraud
illegality
injury by fellow servant
laches
license
payment
release
res judicata
statute of frauds
statute of limitation; and
waiver
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Term
Answer: Time for service of answer
When must a D answer if NO motion is made under Rule 12? |
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Definition
D must serve an answer within 21 days after being served with summons and complaint
IF D timely waived, 60 days in US 90 if out. |
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Term
Answer: Time for service of answer
When must a D answer if motion is made under Rule 12? |
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Definition
D does not have to file an answer while motion is pending.
If court denies or postpones disposition of motion until a trial on the merits, the answer must be served within 14 days after notice of the court's action.
If a court grants a more definite statement under Rule 12(e), then the answer must be served within 14 days after service of a more definite answer. |
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Term
Reply
What is it?
When does it have to be made? |
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Definition
Repose by the P to the D's answer, also D's response to P's counterclaim answer, a third party answer, or a cross-claim answer
21 days after being served with an order to reply. |
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Term
Amendments and Supplemental Pleadings:
How many times and when can a party amend a complaint as a matter of right? |
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Definition
Under Rule 15(a) a party may amend a pleading once as matter of right within 21 days if no responsive pleading is required, or,
if a responsive pleading is required, within 21 days of service of the responsive pleading or within 21 days of being served a 12(b) motion, which is earlier.
Party can amend pleading during and after a trial if doing so will conform to the evidence and as long as the opposing party had an opportunity to prepare.
Due process is required for amending the pleading.
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Term
Amendments and Supplemental Pleadings:
When should a court freely give leave to amend a pleading?
What is the effect of an amended pleading? |
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Definition
When justice so requires.
Supersedes the prior pleading. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Amendments and Supplemental Pleadings: Relation back doctrine: new claim
Under Rule 15(c)(1), what date does an amendment to a pleading relate back to? |
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Definition
The date of the original pleading when the amendment asserts a claim of defense that arose out of the conduct, transactions, or occurrence set out, or attempted to be set out, in the original pleading. |
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Term
Amendments and Supplemental Pleadings: Relation back doctrine: new party
Under Rule 15(c)(1)(C), if the amendment changes the party or the naming of the party against whom a claim is asserted, then it will relate back to the original pleading if: |
|
Definition
i. asserts claim or defense arising out of conduct, transaction, or occurrence set out, or attempted to be set out in the original pleading. ii. within 90 days after the filing of the original complaint, the party to be brought in by amendment receives notice
iii. the party to be brought in knew or should have known that the action would have been brought against him, but for a mistake concerning the proper parties ID |
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Term
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Definition
Establishes the standards that attorneys and individual parties must meet when filing pleadings, motions or other papers.
1. signatures
2. certification to the court
3. Sanctions against attorneys |
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Term
Rule 11: Sanctions
What are the types of sanctions? |
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Definition
i. nonmonetary directives;
ii. an order to pay a penalty into court; or
iii. imposed on motion and warranted for effective deterrence, an order directing payment to the movant for part or the entirety of reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses directly resulting from the violation. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Joinder of Parties: Plaintiffs
Under Rule 20(a)(1), when can persons join in one action as plaintiffs? |
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Definition
i. assert any right to relief jointly, severally, or in the alternative with respect to or arising out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions and occurrences
ii. Any questions of law or fact common to all plaintiffs will arise in the action |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Joinder of Parties: Defendants
Under Rule 20(a)(2), when can persons join in one action as defendants? |
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Definition
i. Any right to relief asserted against them jointly, severally, or in the alternative with respect to or arising out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions and occurrences
ii. Any questions of law or fact common to all defendants will arise in the action |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Joinder of Parties: SUpplemental Jx: Joinder of D
Under 28 U.S.C. 1367(b) does supplemental jx apply to defendants sought to be joinder under the permissive joinder rule in a diversity case, when exercising would destroy diversity?
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Definition
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Joinder of Parties: SUpplemental Jx: Joinder of P
If multiple Ps join together under Rule 20 can supplemental jx exist for a claim that does not meet diversity requirements for statutory amount? |
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Definition
Yes, as along as parties are completely diverse |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Joinder of Parties: Compulsory Joinder: necessary parties
Under Rule 19(a) who must be joined as a party? |
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Definition
i. Complete relief cannot be provided to existing parties in the absence of that person; or
ii. Disposition in the absence of that party may impair the person's liability to protect his interest; or
iii. The absence of that person would leave existing parties subject to a substantial risk of multiple or inconsistent obligations. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Intervention
What is intervention under Rule 24? |
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Definition
The circumstances where a nonparty may join in a lawsuit.
Sometimes a nonparty may intervene as a matter of right, or must have permission of the court
Either way motion to intervene has to be timely. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Intervention
When does a party have a right to intervention? |
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Definition
An action when a federal statute confers the right, and the nonparty timely moves to intervene.
i. nonparty has a property interest or interest in transactions that is the subject matter of the action;
ii. disposition of the action may, as a practical matter, impair the nonparty's interest; and
iii. the nonparty's interest is no adequately represented by existing parties,. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Intervention
When is intervention permissive? |
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Definition
i. the movant has a conditional right to intervene under a federal statute; or
ii. the movant's claim or defense and the original action share a common question of law or fact
Court should consider whether intervention will unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the rights of the original parties. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Intervention
What factors are considered for the timeliness of a nonparty intervention?
Is there supplemental jx? |
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Definition
i. length of time the movant knew or should have known that interest were threatened
ii. the prejudice to existing parties if intervention is permitted and
iii. the prejudice to the movant if intervention is denied.
No, supplemental |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Interpleader
What is interpleader? |
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Definition
Instituted by P to determine who has a valid claim to the stake.
Under Fed Rule: interpleader must follow regular federal question or diversity rules.
Under statutory rules: interpleader has special, simpler standards – diversity between one claimant and $500 in issue, service nationwide and venue properly where any claimant resides. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Interpleader
What is the federal interpleader rule? |
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Definition
Persons with claims that may expose a P to double or multiple liability may be joined as Ds and required to interplead.
Primary standard: whether the party bringing the action legitimately fears multiple claims against the property.
Does not create subject matter jx.
Under Fed Rule: interpleader must follow regular federal question or diversity rules. |
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Term
Multiple Parties & Claims: Interpleader
What is the statutory interpleader rule? |
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Definition
Under statutory rules: interpleader has special, simpler standards – diversity between one claimant and $500 in issue, service nationwide and venue properly where any claimant resides. |
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Term
What is the bulge provision? |
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Definition
Federal Court has PJx over a party who is served within a US judicial district not more than 100 miles from where the summons is issued, even if state law would not otherwise permit such service.
Applies to third party Ds even if the service is outside of the state and beyond its long-arm statute jx. |
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Term
In general, where is venue proper in a federal civil action? |
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Definition
i. judicial district in which any D resides, if all D reside in the same state in which the district is located, or
ii. a judicial district in which a "substantial part of the events or omissions" on which the claim is based occurred, or
ii where "substantial party of the property" that is subject to the action is located. |
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Term
Class actions:
What are the basic requirements? |
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Definition
Numerosity
Commonality
Typicality
and Representative is Adequate |
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Term
Class Actions:
What are the three situations when a class can be certified? |
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Definition
Prejudice -- class treatment necessary to avoid harm to class member or party opposing class;
Injunction/Declaratory judgment -- class members are treated like any other party (mass tort)
Common legal/factual questions --
i. common questions predominate
ii. class action is superior |
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Term
Class Actions: Class Actions under the Class Action Fairness Act 2005
How to satisfy subject matter jurisdiction? |
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Definition
i. any class member is diverse from any D
ii. more than 100 class members
iii. exceeds $5M |
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Term
Class Actions: Notification
How to notify in class action? |
|
Definition
Damages: notify all identifiable members that they can opt out, and are otherwise bound if they don't |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery:
What are the mandatory disclosures? |
|
Definition
i. initial disclosures
ii. disclosures of expert testimony 90days before trial, and
iii. pretrial disclosures 30 days before trial.
Must be made, even without request. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: mandatory disclosures
What are initial disclosures, when do they have to be made? |
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Definition
Must disclose information regarding individuals having discoverable information, documents supporting claims/defenses, computation and backup damages, or relevant insurance agreement for satisfying judgment.
Timing: within 14 days after the parties discovery conference |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: mandatory disclosures
When does expert testimony have to be disclosed? |
|
Definition
At least 90 days before trial or 30 days after disclosure of opposing party's expert evidence on same subject matter
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: mandatory disclosures
What are pretrial disclosures, when must they be made, when can they be objected to? |
|
Definition
Witness list by testimony or deposition, and documents and exhibits
Timing: at least 30 days before trial
Objections: within 14 days after disclosures are made or else waived unless excused by the court for good cause
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Scope and Limits
Does information need to be admissible in evidence to be discoverable? |
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Definition
NO, but privileged information is not discoverable. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Scope and Limits
Are expert witness report drafts, disclosures, communications between expert and attorney (unrelated to compensation), and facts/data used or assumptions relied upon the expert in forming his opinion protected? |
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Definition
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery:
When must parties confer to consider nature and basis of their claims/defenses and possibility of settlement, automatic disclosures, preserving discoverable info, and developing a discovery plan?
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Definition
At least 21 days before scheduling conference |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Devices
What are the discovery devices? |
|
Definition
Oral Depositions
Interrogatories
request to produce documents
physical mental exams
Requests for admission |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Devices
When can oral depositions take place? |
|
Definition
Anytime after mandatory initial disclosure, limited to 10 per party. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Devices
Interrogatories |
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Definition
25 written per party relating to non-privileged matters
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Devices
When should requests to produce documents happen? |
|
Definition
30 days from being served with request, or 30 days from parties first rule 26(f) conference, if the request was served prior to that conference to respond |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Enforcement
How can discovery rules be enforced?
3 ways |
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Definition
i. motions to compel
ii. sanctions
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Discovery Devices
What standard of review, are sanctions given>? |
|
Definition
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Adjudication without trial: Dismissal
Describe voluntary and involuntary
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Definition
Voluntary: can be filed without prejudice (unless same claim dismissed by P in prior action) any time before opposing party serves answer, motion for summary judgment, or dismissal
Involuntary: When P fails to prosecute or comply with the Rules or court order, D can move to dismiss, which if granted is with prejudice and operates as an adjudication on the merits. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Adjudication without trial: Dismissal
What is default judgment?
When can oral depositions take place? |
|
Definition
When a party fails to defend an action, P may seek default judgment which can be set aside for good cause by the court, depending upon
whether movant's failure to act was willful,
setting aside default would prejudice non-moving party, and
the movant presented a meritorious claim. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Adjudication without trial: Dismissal
What is summary judgment? |
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Definition
Standard: moving party must show that there is no genuine dispute of material fact
Opposing Party: show triable issues exists
Evidence looked at in light most favorable to the nonmoving party.
Maybe filed anytime until 30 days after close of all discovery. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Adjudication without trial: Dismissal
What is a declaratory judgment? |
|
Definition
Court tells the parties their rights and responsibilities without awarding damages or ordering parties to do (or refrain from doing) anything. |
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Term
Trial Procedure:
When is there a right to a jury trial? |
|
Definition
7th Amendment: right to jury trial in civil cases as to legal relief
Court decides equitable relief.
Federal: determines whether there is a right to jury trial and whether an issue is legal or equitable
State Law: feds apply state law when taking into account a motion for a new trial based on excessiveness of the verdict. |
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
When must a party make a demand for a jury? |
|
Definition
Must be served within 14 days after service of the last pleading directed to the issue that is to be tried by the jury.
Must be in writing
May be filed separately from pleading.
A party can withdraw a jury trial demand with the consent of other parties.
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
What is the size of the jury? |
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Definition
At least 6, no more than 12
Once selected, a juror must participate in the verdict unless dismissed for good cause
No provisions for alternate jurors. |
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
What are the rules for jury instructions? |
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Definition
i. party may request the court to give specific instructions at the close of evidence (or earlier if court ordered)
ii. prior to final arguments, the court must inform the parties of any instructions if proposes to give to the jury; the parties may object to the court's proposed instructions on the record and out of the jury's hearing
iii. Have to object to preserve for appeal. |
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
Unless parties stipulate otherwise, how must jury verdicts be? |
|
Definition
Unanimous and returned by a jury of at least 6 jurors |
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
What are the jury verdict forms? |
|
Definition
Special: written finding by jury on each issue of ultimate fact, judge determines the legal consequences of those findings
General: decision by the jury to the prevailing party, and if the P is the prevailing party, the amount of damages
General with special Interrogatories: combines general and special, used to ensure that the jury independently considered the material facts of the case in arriving at its verdict. |
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
When does juror misconduct lead to a new trial?
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Definition
Party must demonstrate that not only did the jurors fail to answer honestly a material question on voir dire but also show that a proper response would have provided a valid basis for a challenge for cause
Juror violates confidentiality of deliberations
improperly influenced by non-jurors
takes it upon himself to investigate facts outside of those presented at trial
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Term
Trial Procedure: Jury Trial
What is Judgment as a matter of law (directed verdict)? |
|
Definition
Court view evidence in light most favorable to the opposing party and draw all reasonable inferences from evidence in favor of opposing party.
Must be made any time before the case is submitted to the jury. |
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Term
Trial Procedure:
Renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law (JNOV)
|
|
Definition
If the court doesn't grant a directed verdict, movant can file a JNOV no later than 28 days after entry of trial judgment. |
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Term
Trial Procedure:
Motion for a new trial |
|
Definition
The court may grant a new trial, with respect to some or all issues, to prevent a miscarriage of justice.
Grounds: prejudicial error making judgment unfair; new evidence that couldn't have been obtained with due diligence; prejudicial misconduct; judgment is against the weight of the evidence; excessive/inadequate damages that shocks the conscience
remittitur: jury award too large, P chooses lesser figure or new trial |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Alteration of relief from judgment
How long after can the court relieve a party of final judgment? |
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Definition
No later than one year following judgment entry for mistake, inadvertence, surprise, excusable neglect, newly discovered evidence (not previously discovered through due diligence), fraud, misrepresentation, or misconduct by opposing party. |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Appeals
When is the notice of appeal in a civil case required to be filed with the district clerk? |
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Definition
30 days after the judgment or ordered appealed from is entered. |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Appeals
What is the final judgment rule? |
|
Definition
Decision by court on the merits, leaves nothing to do by execute the judgment.
No Federal question Jx: Denial of a new trial: grant or deny renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law
Federal Question Jx: default judgment that does not dispose of all claims among all parties
No Federal Questions unless directed by Court. |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Appeals
Interlocutory Review |
|
Definition
As of right: orders regarding injunctions, receivers, property possession, admiralty, patent infringement, granting or denying class certification
Discretionary: but court may review interlocutory orders only if:
i. order involves controlling questions of law
ii. substantial ground for different opinion;
iii. immediate appeal may advance ultimate termination of case;
iv. Court of appeals allows appeal |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Appeals
Collateral Order Doctrine |
|
Definition
Court of appeals has discretion to hear and rule on an issue if it is distinct from the merits of the case, involves a serious and unsettled legal question, and would be effectively unreviewable if the court waited until final judgment to hear the claim or issue. |
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Term
Post-Trial Procedure: Appeals
Under mandamus review, when can a court of appeals review an order that is an abuse of judicial authority? |
|
Definition
Immediately.
Orders beyond the trial court's jurisdiction or an order that violates a mandatory duty of the trial court, by such review does not extend to all orders that constitute an error of law
Compel lower Court to do something law requires |
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Term
Claim Preclusion: Res Judicata:
What is it? |
|
Definition
Provides that a final judgment on the merits of an action precludes the parties from successive litigation of an identical claim in a subsequent action
Courts must have nothing further to do but order the entry of judgment, and decision must be made on merits of claim/defense (rather than technical grounds)
Claimant won Case #1 -- res judicata merges cases
Claimant lost Case #1 -- res judicata bars the case
Requires:
i. same parties
ii. ended in valid final judgment on the merits
iii. assert the cause of action/claim
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Term
Issue Preclusion (collateral estoppel)
What are the requirements? |
|
Definition
i. against someone who was a party in Case 1;
ii. Case 1 ended invalid, final judgment on the merits;
iii. Issue actually litigated and determined;
iv. issue essential to the judgment
Who asserts--
Traditionally: mutuality is required
Modern: non-mutuality
Defensive: D can assert if P was party to prior case, but only if P had full change to litigate
Non-mutuality Offensive: P can assert against D if not "unfair" full and fair opportunity to litigate; party could foresee multiple suits; P couldn't' have been joined easily; no inconsistent judgments on record. |
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Term
Difference between claim and issue preclusion? |
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Definition
Issue preclusion does not require STRICT MUTUALITY of parties, but only that the party against whom the issue is to be precluded must have been a party in the original action.
Allowing "offensive" use of collateral estoppel. |
|
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Term
What are issue preclusion requirements? |
|
Definition
same issue
actually litigated
final, valid judgment
essential to the judgment |
|
|
Term
Personal Jurisdiction
How is personal jurisdiction obtained traditionally?
(3 ways)
|
|
Definition
D is domiciled in forum
personally served while present in forum
express or implied consent to jx |
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Term
Personal Jurisdiction
Long-arm statute |
|
Definition
A court in one state asserting personal jurisdiction over an out-of-state party |
|
|
Term
Personal Jurisdiction
What are the two long arm jurisdiction types? |
|
Definition
specific = D's specific contact with the forum
general = D had continuous and systematic ties with the forum
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|
Term
Personal Jurisdiction
What is the constitutional analysis for personal jurisdiction?
My Parents Frequently Forgot to Read Children's Stories
Explain Relatedness |
|
Definition
Minimum Contacts: Purposeful availment + Foreseeability
Fairness: Relatedness + Convenience + State's Interest
Relatedness: Specific = D's specific contact with the forum
General = D had continuous and systematic ties with the forum |
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Term
Subject Matter Jx
When can a D NOT remove a case to federal court? |
|
Definition
Once D files a permissive counterclaim in state court. |
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Term
Subject Matter Jurisdiction
When can a P not remove a case?
|
|
Definition
If more than a year has passed since case was filed, or in a diversity case where the D is a citizen of the forum |
|
|
Term
Venue
Where do you sue?
1 D v. 1 P |
|
Definition
Where the D resides or where the incident happened |
|
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Term
Venue
Where do you sue?
P v. D(IL) & D(IN) |
|
Definition
Can only due in a district where D resides, if all Ds reside in the same state.
Sue in the place where the substantial part of claim arose. |
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Term
Venue
Where do you sue?
P v. D(IL) & D(IL) |
|
Definition
Sue in district where one of the D's resides, OR in the place where a substantial part of the transaction happened. |
|
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Term
What is an Erie question? |
|
Definition
If you're in federal court, and there is a question whether to apply state or federal law |
|
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Term
Erie:
If you're in federal court, and there is a question whether to apply state or federal law.
Is this thing that I see, a constitutional provision, statutory provision, or is it a Federal rule of civil procedure? |
|
Definition
If it is, the court applies the law.
Supremacy clause says to apply it. |
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Term
Erie:
If you're in federal court, and there is a question whether to apply state or federal law.
Is this law a federal practice policy, precedent, habit, or anything that courts do on a regular basis that is not enshrined in a text of a statute, FRCP, or the constitution. |
|
Definition
I will stick with this practice unless sticking with it causes forum shopping.
Question whether or not forum shopping will happen.
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|
Term
What does the P need to include in their claim in a civil case? |
|
Definition
Enough facts to show that the claim is plausible
- legal conclusions are not enough
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|
|
Term
What is an affirmative defense? |
|
Definition
something D will prove to defeat or mitigate P's claims |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Join 3rd Party for indemnity/contribution on underlying claim. |
|
|
Term
In considering a motion for judgment as a matter of law, may the court consider the credibility of witnesses or evaluate the weight of the evidence? |
|
Definition
NO, credibility or witnesses and wright given to evidence must be made by a jury. |
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Term
If a court with diversity jurisdiction over an action issues a judgment, must a state court give such judgment the same claim-preclusion effect that the courts in the state where the federal court is located would have given the judgment? |
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Definition
yes, the state court in state B should not treat the federal court's dismissal of the claim as precluding litigation of the same claim in the second state's court. |
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Term
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Definition
In order for joinder of Ds to be proper, any right to relief must arise out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences. |
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Term
Pretrial Procedure and Discovery: Mandatory Disclosures: Expert Testimony
What must be disclosed? |
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Definition
Must identify expert witnesses and produce expert report subject to certain requirements.
At least 90 days before trial or 30 days after disclosure of opposing party's expert evidence on same subject matter. |
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