Term
| What command will allow you to see what routes a router has in its routing table? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What is the IEEE specification for STP? Select 1 answer. Select 1 answer.
a) 803.ud
b) 802
c) Global Configuration Mode
d) 802.1d
e) 802.11 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. What are two functions a layer 2 switch performs? Select 2 answers.
a) Route Packets
b) Forwards Frames
c) Route Frames
d) Route VLANs
e) Filter Frames |
|
Definition
b) Forwards Frames
e) Filter Frames |
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the typical time that RSTP takes to converge? Select 1 answer. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
4. What’s the default priority value of a Cisco Switch when determining which switch will become the root switch? Select 2 answers.
a) 0
b) 100
c) 1
d) 255
e) 32,768 |
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Definition
|
|
Term
In a LAN, what term best equates to the term VLAN? Select 1 answer.
a) Collision Domain
b) Broadcast Domain
c) Subnet Domain
d) Trunk |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the below fully encapsulates the original Ethernet Frame in a trunking header? Select 1 answer.
a) ISL
b) VTP
c) 802.1q
d) Both ISL and 802.1q
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the below allow a spanning tree instance per VLAN? Select 1 answer.
a) ISL
b) Both ISL and 802.1Q
c) 802.1q
d) None of the answers |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which of the following will not result in a bidirectional trunking link? Select 1 answer.
a) Auto > Auto
b) Auto > Desirable
c) On > On
d) Desirable > Desirable
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following will advertise VLAN information to switches in the network? Select 1 answer.
a) Inter Switch Link
b) 802.1q
c) VLAN Trunking Protocol
d) Both VTP and 802.1q |
|
Definition
| c) VLAN Trunking Protocol |
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Term
Which mode would you configure an interface’s duplex settings? Select 1 answer.
a) Enable Mode
b) Global Configuration Mode
c) Interface Configuration Mode
d) Setup Mode
e) User Mode |
|
Definition
| c) Interface Configuration Mode |
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|
Term
What is the first command to configure port security on a switch interface? Select 1 answer.
a) switchport port-security
b) port-security enable
c) switchport port-security enable
d) interface port-security
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
| a) switchport port-security |
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|
Term
What command places a switch interface immediately in a forwarding state? Select 1 answer.
a) Fastport
b) Portfast
c) Uplinkfast
d) Back Bonefast
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many bytes does ISL add to an Ethernet Frame? Select 1 answer.
a) 30 bytes
b) 30 bits
c) 26 bytes
d) 4 bytes
e) 0 bytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many bytes does 802.1Q add to an Ethernet Frame? Select 1 answer.
a) 4 bits
b) 4 bytes
c) 30 bytes
d) 26 bytes
e) 0 bytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of a trunk between two devices (e.g., two switches or a switch and a router)? Select 1 answer.
a) to connect the devices together
b) to support multiple VLANs that have members on more than one switch
c) to allow routing to oc |
|
Definition
| b) to support multiple VLANs that have members on more than one switch |
|
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Term
. Which are transitory port states for STP? Select 2 answers.
a) Blocking
b) Listening
c) Forwarding
d) Disabled
e) Learning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the default Hello interval for BPDUs exchanged between switches? Select 1 answer.
a) 3 seconds
b) 2 seconds
c) 5 seconds
d) 10 seconds
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. How many parallel Ethernet Trunks can EtherChannel combine? Select 1 answer.
a) two to six
b) two to eight
c) one to six
d) one to eight
e) None of the above answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the IEEE specification for RSTP? Select 1 answer
a ) 802.1Q
b) 802.1W
c) 802.1d
d) 802.3
e) None of the above answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cisco Switches use STP by default.
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. What device is required to transport traffic from one vlan to another vlan? Select 2 answers
a) Layer 3 Device
b) Layer 2 Device
c) Router
d) Transparent Bridge
e) Hub |
|
Definition
a) Layer 3 Device
c) Router |
|
|
Term
What is the default time for VTP advertisements throughout a VTP domain? Select 2
answers
a) 300 seconds
b) 300 minutes
c) 5 seconds
d) 10 seconds
e) Whenever there is a topology change |
|
Definition
a) 300 seconds
e) Whenever there is a topology change |
|
|
Term
23. What is the native VLAN on a Cisco Switch using 802.1Q Trunking? Select 1 answer.
a) 1
b) 1024
c) 10
d) 4094
e) 0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does VTP Pruning increase bandwidth? Select 1 answer.
a) By restricting flooded traffic
b) By increasing flooded traffic
c) By limiting the amount of VLANs that can be configured
d) By restricting multicast traffic
e) None of the above answers |
|
Definition
| a) By restricting flooded traffic |
|
|
Term
In which mode would you configure VLANs on a Cisco 2950? Select 1 answer.
a) Global Configuration Mode
b) vlan database Mode
c) Interface Configuration Mode
d) vlan Interface Mode
e) None of the above answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 2 answers describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to communicate with more than one device at a time?
a) None of the answers
b) Broadcast address
c) Burned-in address
d) Multicast address
e) Unicast address |
|
Definition
b) Broadcast address
d) Multicast address |
|
|
Term
Which of the following WAN data link protocols on Cisco routers support multiple Layer 3 protocols by virtue of having some form of protocol Type field? Select 3 answers.
a) LAPB
b) None of the answers
c) LAPD
d) PPP
e) HDLC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true about the Ethernet Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field?
a) It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header
b) It us used for error recovery
c) It is used for encryption
d) None of the answers
e) It is 2 bytes l |
|
Definition
| a) It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables?
a) Pins 1 and 2 connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable
b) The cable can be up to 1000m to cross over between buildings
c) None of the answers
d) Pins 1 and 2 are reversed o |
|
Definition
| a) Pins 1 and 2 connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true concerning the CSMA/CD algorithm?
a) Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers
should notice a collision and how to recover
b) None of the answers
c) The algorithm never allows collisions |
|
Definition
a) Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers
should notice a collision and how to recover |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? Select 3 answers.
a) Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first 2 bytes of the address
b) The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code is called the |
|
Definition
b) The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code is called the
OUI
c) Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first half of the address
d) Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first 3 bytes of the address |
|
|
Term
On a point-to-point WAN link between two routers, what device(s) are considered to be the DTE devices?
a) The central office equipment
b) The routers
c) The CSU/DSUs
d) None of the answers
e) A chip on the processor of each router |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following functions of OSI Layer 2 is specified by the protocol standard for PPP but is implemented with a Cisco proprietary header field for HDLC?
a) Identifying the type of protocol that is inside the frame
b) Addressing
c) Error detecti |
|
Definition
| a) Identifying the type of protocol that is inside the frame |
|
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Term
Which of the following would be a collision domain?
a) All devices connected to an Ethernet switch
b) None of the answers
c) All devices connected to an Ethernet hub
d) Two workstations connected to each other with a crossover cable |
|
Definition
| c) All devices connected to an Ethernet hub |
|
|
Term
Which of the following typically connects to a V.35 or RS-232 end of a cable when cabling a leased line?
a) CSU/DSU
b) Transceiver
c) Router Serial Interface
d) Switch Serial Interface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following typically connects to a four-wire line provided by your service provider?
a) Router serial interface
b) Transceiver
c) CSU/DSU
d) Switch serial interface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the Frame Relay field used to identify Frame Relay Virtual Circuits?
a) None of the answers
b) Data-link connection indicator
c) Data-link circuit identifier
d) Data-link connection identifier
e) Data-link circuit indicator |
|
Definition
| d) Data-link connection identifier |
|
|
Term
Which of the following defines a SONET link speed of approximately 155 Mbps?
a) OC-3
b) DS3
c) DS155
d) T1
e) T3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 functions of the Data Link MAC Layer?
a) Handles access to shared media
b) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link
layer
c) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
d) Manages protocol access to |
|
Definition
b) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link
layer
d) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium |
|
|
Term
With autonegotiation on a 10/100 Network Interface Card (NIC), what characteristics are negotiated if the device on the other end does not perform negotiation at all?
a) 10 Mbps, half duplex
b) 100 Mbps, half duplex
c) 10 Mbps, full duplex
d) 100 Mbps |
|
Definition
|
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Term
In a full duplex environment, is it possible to experience collisions?
False
True |
|
Definition
|
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Term
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses what type of data-link identifiers to get data from point A to point B? Select 2 answers.
a) VPI
b) VCI
c) PVC
d) SVC
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What device provides clocking for a point-to-point serial connection? Select 2 answers.
a) CSU/DSU
b) DCE
c) DTE
d) ATM
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the default encapsulation of a Cisco router serial interface?
a) HDLC
b) PPP
c) Frame-relay
d) ATM
e) Ethernet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many bytes long is a Mac address?
a) 48 bits
b) 46 bits
c) 24 bits
d) 32 bits
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the Data Link layer use to find hosts on a local network?
a) Logical network address
b) Default gateways
c) Port numbers
d) Hardware addresses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the term “Base” indicate in 100Base-TX?
a) The type of wiring used
b) The maximum distance
c) A LAN switch method using half duplex
d) A signaling method for communications on a network |
|
Definition
| d) A signaling method for communications on a network |
|
|
Term
. What is the total length of an ATM Cell?
a) 48 bytes
b) 53 bytes
c) 20 bytes
d) 5 bytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the OC stand for in OC-1?
a) Optical Circuit
b) Optical Connection
c) Optical Carrier
d) Optical Conduit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128 is used with a class B address, how many total subnets and total hosts are there? Select 1 answer.
a) 510 subnets with 126 hosts
b) 1024 subnets with 64 hosts
c) 1022 subnets with 62 hosts
d) 510 subnets with 128 ho |
|
Definition
| e) 512 subnets with 128 hosts |
|
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Term
Which of the following IP Addresses are not in the same subnet as 190.4.80.80/24? Select 2
answers.
a) 10.1.1.1
b) 190.4.90.1
c) 190.4.80.1
d) 190.4.80.50
e) 190.4.80.100
e) 190.4.80.200
f) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
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Term
Which of the following subnet masks allow a class B address to have up to 164 usable
subnets with 154 usable hosts? Select 1 answer.
a) 255.255.255.240
b) 255.255.128.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.192.0 |
|
Definition
|
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Term
Which of the following are valid subnet numbers in the network of 180.1.0.0/21? Select 4 answers.
a) 180.1.8.0
b) 180.1.2.0
c) 180.1.16.0
d) 180.1.32.0
e) 180.1.40.0
f) 180.1.4.0 |
|
Definition
a) 180.1.8.0
c) 180.1.16.0
d) 180.1.32.0
e) 180.1.40.0 |
|
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Term
Which of the following commands configures a static route? Select 1 answer.
a) ip route 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1
b) ip route 172.16.1.1 s0
c) ip route 172.16.1.1/24 192.168.1.1
d) ip route 172.16.1.1/24 s0
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
| a) ip route 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by advertising an
infinite metric when a route fails? Select 1 answer.
a) Route Poisoning
b) Split Horizon
c) Holddown Timer
d) Link-state
e) Distance Vector |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the below would cause RIP or IGRP to remove all routes learned from a neighbor
router? Select 1 answer.
a) Failure to received a keepalive
b) Not receiving updates from the neighbor router
c) Updates from a neighbor with a bad route fl |
|
Definition
| b) Not receiving updates from the neighbor router |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would allow the RIP process to advertise updates for 10.1.1.1 and
10.1.2.1? Select 1 answer.
a) network 10.0.0.0
b) network 10.1.1.1 10.1.2.0
c) network 10.1.1.1 10.1.2.1
d) network 10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What command will allow you to see what routes a router has in its routing table? Select 1
answer.
a) show ip routing
b) show ip protocol
c) show ip route
d) show ip neighbor route
e) show ip route received |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What characterizes a classful routing protocol? Select 1 answer.
a) Does not include subnet mask in routing updates
b) Does not include the IP address in routing updates
c) Does not use holddown timers
d) Does not send routing updates on a fixed sched |
|
Definition
| a) Does not include subnet mask in routing updates |
|
|
Term
Which of the following IPs are in the same subnet as 172.16.20.1/20? Select 2 answers.
a) 172.16.31.1
b) 172.16.30.254
c) 172.16.2.1
d) 172.16.32.1
e) 172.16.1.1 |
|
Definition
a) 172.16.31.1
b) 172.16.30.254 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following subnet masks for a Class B Network will provide you with at least
254 usable hosts per subnet with at least 128 usable subnets? Select 1 answer.
a) 255.255.255.0
b) 255.255.254.0
c) 255.255.255.128
d) 255.255. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following IPs are valid within the subnet of 131.15.0.64 using the subnet mask
of 255.255.255.192? Select 2 answers.
a) 131.15.0.63
b) 131.15.0.126
c) 131.15.0.65
d) 131.15.0.128
e) 131.15.0.192 |
|
Definition
b) 131.15.0.126
c) 131.15.0.65 |
|
|
Term
Routers add directly connected subnets into their routing tables even without a routing protocol.
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
RIP sends routing updates to its directly connected neighbors every:
a) 30 seconds
b) 45 seconds
c) 60 seconds
d) 90 seconds
e) 120 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
IGRP sends routing updates to its directly connected neighbors every:
a) 30 seconds
b) 45 seconds
c) 60 seconds
d) 90 seconds
e) 280 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by not advertising a
route out of the same interface it was learned on? Select 1 answer.
a) Poison Reverse
b) Split Horizon
c) Hold-Down Timers
d) STP Horizon
e |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does RIP use as a metric? Select 1 answer.
a) Bandwidth
b) Bandwidth & Delay
c) Hop Count
d) Cost
e) 120 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does IGRP use as a metric by default? Select 1 answer.
a) Bandwidth & Delay
b) Hop Count
c) Cost
d) VLSM
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the command to use when more than one route exists to the same destination?
Select 1 answer.
a) maximum paths
b) maximum-paths
c) many-paths
d) many paths
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Concerning administrative distance for a routing protocol, a higher administrative distance is better than a lower administrative distance.
True
False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a route was learned by a router from each of the below answers, which route
would be placed in the routing table? Select 1 answer.
a) Static Route
b) Directly Connected Route
c) RIPv1 Route
d) IGRP Route
e) RIPv2 Route |
|
Definition
| b) Directly Connected Route |
|
|
Term
What command would be used to view the routing table? Select 1 answer.
a) show routing table
b) show table
c) show ip route
d) show ip routing table
e) show route database |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What command would be used to view routing protocol parameters and current timer
values? Select 1 answer.
a) show ip-protocols
b) show internet protocols
c) show ip protocols
d) show protocols
e) show interface protocols |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What address does a router use for routing TCP/IP?
a) Destination MAC Address
b) Source MAC Address
c) Destination IP Address
d) Source IP Address
e) Destination MAC and IP Address |
|
Definition
| c) Destination IP Address |
|
|
Term
What is the range of addresses for a Class A Network?
a) 0 - 128
b) 1 - 128
c) 0 - 127
d) 1 - 126
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the range of addresses for a Class B Network?
a) 127 – 191
b) 128 – 192
c) 128 – 191
d) 126 – 191
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the range of addresses for a Class C Network?
a) 192 – 223
b) 191 – 224
c) 224 – 239
d) 240 – 255
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the formula used to determine how many usable or valid subnets that can be obtained
by borrowing bits from the host portion?
a) n(n-1)/2
b) 2ⁿ
c) 2ⁿ - 1
d) 2ⁿ - 2
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many usable or valid hosts can a Class A Network contain?
a) 16,777,216
b) 65,536
c) 256
d) 16,777,214
e) 65,534 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are actual Class C addresses? Select 2 answers.
a) 193.1.1.1
b) 192.168.1.1
c) 191.254.254.254
d) 224.0.0.1
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
a) 193.1.1.1
b) 192.168.1.1 |
|
|
Term
What protocol allows a workstation to discover the IP address of another computer based on its name?
a) Address Resolution Protocol
b) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
c) Domain Name System
d) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
e) Address Resolv |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protocol do Cisco routers use to exchange routing tables?
a) Routed Protocol
b) TCP/IP
c) Layer 3
d) HDLC
e) Routing Protocol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protocols are connection-oriented? Select 2 answers.
a) TCP
b) IP
c) UDP
d) SPX
e) All of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
PC1 is using TCP, has a window size of 6, and sends six segments numbered 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
and 11 to PC2. PC2 responds back with an acknowledgement of 10. What should PC1 do?
a) Decrease the window size to 5
b) Increase the window size by 10 mo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What method lets the receiver tell the sender how much data is allowed to be sent without waiting for an acknowledgment from the receiver?
a) Windowing
b) Acknowledgements
c) Buffering
d) Three Way Handshake
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is not a typical function of TCP? Select 2 answers.
a) Encryption
b) Routing
c) Multiplexing
d) Ordered data transfer
e) Error Recovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which functions are performed by TCP and UDP?
a) Multiplexing
b) Windowing
c) Routing
d) Decryption
e) Error Recovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protocols are reliable? Select 2 answers.
a) Frame Relay
b) Transmission Control Protocol
c) User Datagram Protocol
d) Sequenced Packet Exchange
e) Fastethernet |
|
Definition
b) Transmission Control Protocol
d) Sequenced Packet Exchange |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of the Ethernet Protocol?
a) 1500 bits
b) 1460 bytes
c) 1500 bytes
d) 1460 bits
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three things a socket consists of?
a) IP Address, transport protocol and a port number
b) IP Address, routing protocol and a port number
c) IP Address, routed protocol and a port number
d) none of the above |
|
Definition
| a) IP Address, transport protocol and a port number |
|
|
Term
What does the concept of Flow Control using Windowing control?
a) The maximum number of unacknowledged bytes that a sender can send to a receiver’s buffer at any one instance
b) The maximum number of acknowledged bytes that a sender can send to a receiv |
|
Definition
| a) The maximum number of unacknowledged bytes that a sender can send to a receiver’s buffer at any one instance |
|
|
Term
UDP Protocol adds more additional overhead processing than the TCP Protocol.
False
True |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the TCP Protocol accomplish reliability?
a) Using sequencing and acknowledgments
b) TCP does not guarantee reliability
c) Flow Control |
|
Definition
| a) Using sequencing and acknowledgments |
|
|
Term
What are the most important features of the Transport Layer? Select 2 answers.
a) Error Detection
b) Flow Control
c) Error Recovery
d) Encryption and Decryption of data
e) None of the above |
|
Definition
b) Flow Control
c) Error Recovery |
|
|
Term
When does a device (e.g., computer) use Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
a) To discover the IP address of itself
b) To discover the MAC address of another device
c) When it first boots up
d) None of the above |
|
Definition
| b) To discover the MAC address of another device |
|
|
Term
When does a device (e.g., computer) use Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)?
Select 2 answers.
a) To discover the IP address of itself
b) To discover the MAC address of itself
c) When it first boots up
d) None of the above |
|
Definition
a) To discover the IP address of itself
c) When it first boots up |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym ICMP mean?
a) Internetwork Control Message Protocol
b) Internet Control Message Protocol
c) Internal Control Message Protocol
d) None of the above |
|
Definition
| b) Internet Control Message Protocol |
|
|
Term
What mode would you enter a description for an interface?
a) User Mode
b) Enable Mode
c) Privileged Mode
d) Interface Configuration Mode
e) Global Configuration Mode |
|
Definition
| d) Interface Configuration Mode |
|
|
Term
Where is the startup configuration stored?
a) Random Access Memory
b) Flash Memory
c) Non Volatile Random Access Memory
d) Read Only Memory
e) Module Memory |
|
Definition
| c) Non Volatile Random Access Memory |
|
|
Term
Where is the full IOS stored?
a) Flash Memory
b) RAM
c) NVRAM
d) ROM
e) DRAM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What’s the command to save the running configuration in the event the router reloads and
you desire to use that configuration again?
a) copy running-configuration ftp
b) copy startup-configuration running-configuration
c) copy running-configu |
|
Definition
| c) copy running-configuration startup-configuration |
|
|
Term
If the enable password is nortel and the enable secret is cisco and both are configured on
the router, which password will you use to enter privileged mode?
a) cisco
b) nortel
c) nortel and then cisco
d) cisco and then nortel
e) neither, as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the configuration register value that tells the router to boot from NVRAM?
a) 0x2142
b) 0x2102
c) 0x2122
d) 0x2012
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What mode would you enter to change a switch speed and duplex settings for fastethernet
0/25?
a) User Mode
b) Privileged Mode
c) Global Configuration Mode
d) Interface Configuration Mode
e) Line Configuration Mode |
|
Definition
| d) Interface Configuration Mode |
|
|
Term
What mode would you use to issue the command to erase the stored configuration on a
switch? Select 2 answers.
a) User Mode
b) Privileged Mode
c) Global Configuration Mode
d) Interface Configuration Mode
e) Enable Mode |
|
Definition
a) User Mode
e) Enable Mode |
|
|
Term
What memory is used on a switch to store the configuration used by the switch when it
first powers up?
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Flash
d) NVRAM
e) Module Memory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not true of both a Cisco 2950 Switch and a Cisco Router?
a) Access can be through the console or auxiliary port
b) Can enter configuration mode by typing configure terminal
c) Must use the enable secret password as opposed to the enable passwo |
|
Definition
| a) Access can be through the console or auxiliary port |
|
|
Term
What type of cable is used to access the console port of a Cisco Router or Switch?
a) Crossover Cable
b) Straight Through Cable
c) Rollover Cable
d) Console Cable
e) Rolled Cable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What command would you use to encrypt all passwords used on a Cisco Router or Switch?
a) service password-encryption
b) password service-encryption
c) encrypt passwords
d) encryption password-service
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
| a) service password-encryption |
|
|
Term
Interfaces on a Cisco Router are administratively shutdown by default. What’s the
command to bring them out of the administratively shutdown mode? Select 2 answers.
a) unshut
b) no shutdown
c) shutdown none
d) administratively up
e) no shut |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym CLI mean?
a) Control Line Interface
b) Command Line Interface
c) Central Line Interface
d) Console Line Interface
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
| b) Command Line Interface |
|
|
Term
What are the default passwords on a new Cisco Router or Switch out of the box?
a) cisco
b) password
c) enter key
d) guest
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a VTY (aka Telnet) Line does not have a password configured, is it still possible to telnet into the device?
No
Yes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most popular/used IOS command?
a) ?
b) help
c) show
d) debug
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are debug messages sent by default?
a) console
b) Sys Log Server
c) buffer
d) TFTP Server
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Key Sequences will take you all the way to the beginning of a particular command you
are typing?
a) Ctrl-r
b) Ctrl-a
c) Ctrl-e
d) Esc-b
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the command you must enter to view the debug messages that are being generated
on your console? Select 2 answers.
a) terminal monitor
b) term mon
c) show debug output
d) print debug output
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
a) terminal monitor
b) term mon |
|
|
Term
What mode do you enter to make configuration changes to a router or switch?
a) Configuration Mode
b) User Exec Mode
c) Privileged Mode
d) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do configuration changes take effect on a router or switch?
a) When the running configuration is saved to the startup configuration
b) The moment the Enter Key is pressed
c) Changes do not take effect until the router or switch is reloaded/reb |
|
Definition
| b) The moment the Enter Key is pressed |
|
|
Term
How do you exit a configuration mode so that you are back at the privileged mode prompt of #? Please select 2 answers.
a) Ctrl-c
b) Ctrl-z
c) end
d) exit
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the command to move from privileged mode to configuration mode? Select 2
answers.
a) configuration terminal
b) configuration console
c) config t
d) configuration terminal console
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
a) configuration terminal
c) config t |
|
|
Term
Which password is automatically encrypted on a Cisco router or switch?
a) VTY password
b) Console password
c) Auxiliary password
d) enable secret password
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select two answers that are considered ways of configuring VLANs. Select 2 answers.
a) Using DHCP to dynamically assign a PC to a particular VLAN
b) By statically assigning a switch port to a VLAN
c) By using the Dynamic VTP Protocol
d) By assigning |
|
Definition
b) By statically assigning a switch port to a VLAN
d) By assigning a MAC address to a particular VLAN |
|
|
Term
If you have three VLANs that are spread out between two switches, which of the below would you also expect to have a quantity of three? Select 2 answers.
a) IP subnets
b) All of the answers are incorrect
c) Collision Domains
d) Broadcast Domains
e) N |
|
Definition
a) IP subnets
d) Broadcast Domains |
|
|
Term
Which of the below devices would exist in the same collision domain as PC1?
a) PC4, which is separated from PC1 by a switch
b) PC2, which is separated from PC1 by a hub
c) PC3, which is separated from PC1 by a router
d) PC5, which is separated from PC |
|
Definition
| b) PC2, which is separated from PC1 by a hub |
|
|
Term
Which of the below switching methods can start forwarding a frame before the entire frame has been received? Select 2 answers.
a) Fragment Free
b) Cut-through
c) Store-and-forward
d) Cisco Express Forwarding
e) Fast Switching |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following comparisons is made by a switch when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its bridging table? Select 1 answer.
a) Compares the destination IP address’s ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address table
b) Co |
|
Definition
| c) Compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address table |
|
|
Term
Which of the below network topologies is characterized by attachments from many devices to a single linear cable?
a) Extended star
b) Star
c) Full Mesh
d) Partial Mesh
e) Bus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a LAN, which term is synonymous with the term VLAN? Select 1 answer.
a) Broadcast Domain
b) Collision Domain
c) Subnet Domain
d) Trunk
e) Single Switch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the below refers to a function that can forward traffic between two different VLANs? Select 2 answers.
a) Layer 2 switching
b) All of the answers are correct
c) Layer 3 switching
d) Layer 4 switching |
|
Definition
c) Layer 3 switching
d) Layer 4 switching |
|
|
Term
Which of the following interface states could a switch interface settle into after STP has completed building a spanning tree? Select 2 answers.
a) Forwarding
b) Blocking
c) Learning
d) Listening
e) Disabled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your network has a layer 2 switch with three VLANs. Using an external router to route between the different VLANs, what is the least amount of FastEthernet interfaces that is required to forward the VLAN traffic between the different VLANs? Select 1 answ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following IP addresses would not be in the same subnet as 190.4.80.80/25? Select 3 answers.
a) 10.1.1.1
b) 190.4.80.200
c) 190.4.90.1
d) 190.4.80.50
e) 190.4.80.1 |
|
Definition
a) 10.1.1.1
b) 190.4.80.200
c) 190.4.90.1 |
|
|
Term
Which of the below are determined during autonegotiation between a 10/100 Ethernet card and a switch? Select 2 answers.
a) Pins used for transmit
b) Duplex (half or full)
c) Power levels (half or full)
d) Speed (10 or 100) |
|
Definition
b) Duplex (half or full)
d) Speed (10 or 100) |
|
|
Term
Which of the below is considered to be a logical bus topology? Select 2 answers.
a) 10Base5
b) PC2 that are connected to a switch using 10BaseT
c) Five routers, each with a PVC connecting it to all other routers over Frame Relay
d) PCs connected to a |
|
Definition
a) 10Base5
d) PCs connected to a hub using 10Base-T |
|
|
Term
Which of the below switching methods must wait to receive the entire frame before forwarding the frame? Select 1 answer.
a) Cisco Express Forwarding
b) Cut-through
c) Store-and-forward
d) Fragment Free
e) Distributed Switching |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following UTP cables support Gigabit Ethernet? Select 3 answers.
a) Cat5
b) Cat3
c) Cat5E
d) Cat6
e) Cat4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which trunking protocol fully encapsulates the original Ethernet frame in a trunking header? Select 1 answer.
a) Intra Switch Link
b) IEEE 802.1q
c) Inter Switch Link
d) VTP
e) Both ISL and 802.1q |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what VTP mode is a switch able to create VLANs and distribute them throughout the entire switching domain? Select 1 answer.
a) Server Mode
b) Transparent Mode
c) Client Mode
d) Server and Client Mode
e) Answer A, B and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a switch has three VLANs, how many IP subnets would be required if all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP? Select 1 answer.
a) 0
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2
e) Not enough information is available |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the below are true statements? Select 2 answers.
a) Store-and-forward switching works at wire speed
b) Cut through switching works at wire speed
c) Cut through switching creates variable latency through the switch
d) Fragment free switching h |
|
Definition
b) Cut through switching works at wire speed
e) Store-and-forward switching increases latency |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements best describes what a transparent bridge does with a frame destined to an unknown unicast address? Select 1 answer.
a) Forwards based on the VLAN ID
b) Compares the incoming interface of the frame to the source MAC entr |
|
Definition
Forwards it out all interfaces in the same VLAN except the interface it was
received on |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum time that STP takes to converge? Select 1 answer.
a) 50 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 35 seconds
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the states that a switch running STP transitions through? Select 1 answer.
a) Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Disabled
b) Blocking, Learning, Listening, Forwarding, Disabled
c) Discarding, Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Discarding |
|
Definition
| a) Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Disabled |
|
|
Term
If a transparent bridge or switch has 4 interfaces that are being used, how many collision
domains are created?
a) one collision domain
b) no collision domains because those devices operate at layer two
c) four collision domains
d) |
|
Definition
| c) four collision domains |
|
|
Term
How does a bridge or switch learn MAC addresses?
a) it associates a source MAC address with the port it is received on
b) it associates a destination MAC address with the port it is sent out
c) bridges and switches function at layer 2 and do not |
|
Definition
| a) it associates a source MAC address with the port it is received on |
|
|
Term
Which of the following defines a protocol that is used between the Frame Relay DTE and the Frame Relay switch? Select 1 answer.
a) DLCI
b) FRF.5
c) LMI
d) VC
e) CIR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does DLCI stand for? Select 1 answer.
a) Data Link Connection Identification
b) Data Link Circuit Identifier
c) Data Link Connection Identifier
d) Data Link Circuit Identification
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
| c) Data Link Connection Identifier |
|
|
Term
A company has five sites with routers connected to the same Frame Relay Network. VCs
have been provisioned between each pair of routers. What is the minimum subnet(s) that
the company could use on the Frame Relay Network? Select 1 an |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A router is going to be connected to a Frame Relay Switch that is using LMI type of Q.933a.
What can be configured on the router to allow the LMI to work correctly? Select 2 answers.
a) LMI type of ANSI
b) LMI type of cisco
c) LMI type of q933 |
|
Definition
c) LMI type of q933a
d) allow the router to autosense the LMI |
|
|
Term
Which of the below commands will show the information that is learned by Inverse ARP?
Select 1 answer.
a) show frame-relay pvc
b) show frame-relay map
c) show inverse arp
d) show map
e) show arp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the below are parameters that standard ACLs can be configured to process? Select
1 answer.
a) permit or deny on the destination IP address
b) permit or deny on the source and destination IP address
c) permit or deny on the protocol f |
|
Definition
| d) permit or deny on the source IP address |
|
|
Term
Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful in matching all IP packets in subnet
10.1.128.0/25? Select 1 answer.
a) 0.0.0.255
b) 0.0.255.255
c) 0.255.255.255
d) 0.0.0.0
e) 0.0.0.127 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful in matching all IP packets in subnet
10.1.128.0/28? Select 1 answer.
a) 0.0.0.0
b) 0.0.0.31
c) 0.0.0.15
d) 0.0.0.255
e) 0.0.255.255 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following access lists will prevent 172.16.1.1 from accessing a web server
of 172.16.2.1 while allowing it access to other network resources? Select 2 answers.
a) access-list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 172.16.2.1 eq 80
acce |
|
Definition
access-list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 172.16.2.1 eq 80
access-list 150 permit ip any any
d) access-list 150 deny tcp 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 eq www
access-list 150 permit ip any any |
|
|
Term
Where should a standard ACL be located according to Cisco? Select 1 answer.
a) close to the source IP address
b) closest to the destination IP address
c) anywhere that meets the requirement of the ACL
d) only on Ethernet interfaces
e) only on Serial |
|
Definition
| b) closest to the destination IP address |
|
|
Term
Which of the following commands disables inverse ARP? Select 1
answer.
a) no ip arp
b) no ip inverse-arp
c) ip arp disable
d) frame-relay interface-dlci 101
e) inverse ARP can not be disabled
f) interface serial 0.1 point-to-poi |
|
Definition
| f) interface serial 0.1 point-to-point |
|
|
Term
What are the two key functions that LMI Status Inquiry Messages perform? Select 2 answers
a) perform a keepalive function between the DTE and DCE
b) signal whether a PVC is active or inactive
c) determine if the clock rate is configured properly |
|
Definition
a) perform a keepalive function between the DTE and DCE
b) signal whether a PVC is active or inactive |
|
|
Term
What are the three LMI protocols available in Cisco IOSs? Select 3 answers.
a) ietf
b) Cisco
c) q933a
d) ansi
e) q929a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two Frame Relay Encapsulation protocols available in Cisco IOSs? Select 2
answers.
a) cisco
b) ietf
c) ansi
d) q933a
e) q929a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where should an extended ACL be employed? Select 1 answer.
a) closest to the destination
b) closest to the source
c) closest to the source and destination
d) it does not matter where it is placed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can ACLs be used for? Select 1 answer.
a) prevent unwanted traffic on the network
b) prevent hackers from penetrating the network
c) prevent employees from accessing certain resources
d) filter routing updates
e) prioritize packets
f |
|
Definition
| g) All of the above answers |
|
|
Term
What are the two key steps in ACL Logic? Select 1 answer.
a) matching
b) discarding
c) action
d) permitting
e) both a and c
f) both b and d |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does a 0 mean in a wildcard mask (e.g., 0.0.0.255)? Select 1 answer.
a) disregard the first 24 bits
b) match the first 24 bits
c) match the last 8 bits
d) disregard the last 8 bits
e) both b and d
f) both a and c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You can delete individual lines in a named ACL.
False
True |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the command to apply an ACL outbound of an interface? Select the best answer(s).
a) access-list 1 outbound
b) access list 1 outbound
c) ip access-group 1
d) ip access-group 1 out
e) None of the answers |
|
Definition
c) ip access-group 1
d) ip access-group 1 out |
|
|
