Term
1) What are phagocytic leukocytes that attack parasitic cells by releasing toxic molecules once they have attached themselves to the parasite?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Monocytes
E) Macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2) What type of cell, once it enters the tissues, is converted into a macrophage that attacks invaders by phagocytosis?
A) eosinophil
B) lymphocyte
C) basophil
D) monocyte
E) neutrophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3) When a B cell contacts a foreign or abnormal antigen, it develops into a ________ that releases ________.
A) macrophage : histamine
B) plasma cell : histamine
C) macrophage : antibody
D) plasma cell : antibodies
E) natural killer cell : antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4) What type of cell found in the skin and mucosal linings secretes histamine?
A) monocyte
B) macrophage
C) mast cell
D) dendritic cell
E) basophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5) What type of phagocytic cell has long processes?
A) monocyte
B) macrophage
C) mast cell
D) dendritic cell
E) basophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6) Which of the following is NOT considered a peripheral lymphoid tissue?
A) bone marrow
B) spleen
C) tonsils
D) adenoids
E) appendix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7) In order to be completely functional, a T cell must be activated by ________.
A) the lymph nodes
B) bone marrow
C) the parathyroid gland
D) the thyroid gland
E) the thymus gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8) Peyer's patches are peripheral lymphoid tissue located where?
A) liver sinusoids
B) spleen
C) gastrointestinal tract wall
D) appendix
E) thymus |
|
Definition
| C) gastrointestinal tract wall |
|
|
Term
9) Which of the following is NOT one of the body's nonspecific defenses against pathogens?
A) inflammation
B) interferons
C) natural killer cell
D) cytotoxic T cell
E) complement system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10) Mucus secreted by mucous membranes provides protection against infections by ________.
A) destroying pathogens by the complement system
B) forcing the pathogen to die in the struggle to free itself (like a fly strip)
C) drowning the pathogen
D) trapping and removing pathogens
E) phagocytosing pathogens by macrophages |
|
Definition
| D) trapping and removing pathogens |
|
|
Term
11) What type of gland secretes an acidic oily substance that inhibits bacterial growth?
A) sweat glands
B) salivary glands
C) sebaceous glands
D) adenoids
E) lymph nodes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12) Which of the following steps initiates an inflammatory response?
A) Arterioles dilate.
B) Capillary permeability increases.
C) Leukocytes migrate to the infection.
D) Macrophages secrete cytokines.
E) Macrophages engulf the debris or foreign material. |
|
Definition
| E) Macrophages engulf the debris or foreign material. |
|
|
Term
13) The increase in blood flow to a site of infection acts to ________.
A) recruit more leukocytes to the site of infection
B) increase oxygen in the region to kill the invading bacteria
C) facilitate the migration of the leukocytes into the interstitial space
D) wash the invading bacteria from the region of the infection
E) bring more mast cells to the site of infection |
|
Definition
| A) recruit more leukocytes to the site of infection |
|
|
Term
14) What causes the increase in interstitial osmotic pressure that occurs during edema?
A) recruitment of leukocytes
B) increased blood flow
C) increased capillary permeability
D) stimulation of sensory neurons
E) leukocyte migration |
|
Definition
| C) increased capillary permeability |
|
|
Term
15) The increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure associated with an edema will lead to a(n) ________.
A) sensation of pain
B) increase in blood flow
C) increased movement of water out of the capillaries
D) release of bradykinin
E) decrease in the recruitment of leukocytes to the site of infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16) For leukocytes to battle an infection, adhesion molecules are necessary including ________, which loosely bind leukocytes to the blood vessel wall slowing down their movement, and ________, which tightly attaches leukocytes to the blood vessel wall in preparation for diapedesis.
A) integrin : spectrin
B) spectrin : selectin
C) selectin : integrin
D) spectrin : integrin
E) integrin : selectin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17) Leukocyte movement from blood to the site of tissue damage or infection involves ________, leukocyte movement toward the blood vessel wall; ________, the movement of leukocytes between endothelial cells of the blood vessel; and ________, the movement within the tissue to the site of injury.
A) margination : diapedesis : chemotaxis
B) diapedesis : margination : chemotaxis
C) chemotaxis : diapedesis : margination
D) chemotaxis : margination : diapedesis
E) margination : chemotaxis : diapedesis |
|
Definition
| A) margination : diapedesis : chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
18) While ________ is released early in the inflammatory response to inhibit blood clotting, the ________ that have leaked into the interstitial space become active and isolate the region of damage.
A) bradykinin : defensive proteins
B) histamine : defensive proteins
C) histamine : clotting factors
D) bradykinin : albumin molecules
E) heparin : clotting factors |
|
Definition
| E) heparin : clotting factors |
|
|
Term
19) Which of the following is NOT one of the four steps involved in phagocytosis?
A) attachment
B) internalization
C) degradation
D) exocytosis
E) interleukin release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20) At the site of infection, leukocytes are stimulated to express ________, which causes them to attach to the endothelial cells before moving into the vessel wall.
A) selectins
B) integrins
C) chemotactic factor
D) attachins
E) marginin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21) Recruited leukocytes that have invaded the vessel wall are directed to the pathogen by the process of ________.
A) opsonization
B) diapedesis
C) attachment
D) chemotaxis
E) migration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22) The attachment of phagocytic cells to damaged/infected cells is facilitated by the presence of ________ on the damaged cell.
A) opsonin
B) cytokines
C) a smooth surface
D) phagosomes
E) regular features |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23) Once a phagocyte has attached to foreign material, that material is ________.
A) degraded externally by enzymes released from a lysosome
B) internalized in a lysosome
C) internalized in a phagosome
D) internalized in a secondary lysosome
E) internalized in the Golgi apparatus |
|
Definition
| C) internalized in a phagosome |
|
|
Term
24) Which of the following is NOT an action of interleukins released by phagocytic cells?
A) increasing endothelial cell synthesis of adhesion molecules
B) stimulation of the release of neutrophils from bone marrow
C) acting as endogenous pyrogens to increase body temperature
D) stimulating the production of acute phase proteins from the liver
E) acting as opsonins to facilitate phagocytosis |
|
Definition
| E) acting as opsonins to facilitate phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
25) Interferons α and β are released from ________ and act to inhibit viral replication by ________.
A) infected cells : degrading RNA
B) neutrophils : digesting the virus
C) phagocytotic cells : digesting the virus
D) phagocytotic cells : degrading RNA
E) T lymphocytes : degrading RNA |
|
Definition
| A) infected cells : degrading RNA |
|
|
Term
26) The release of ________ by T cells activates natural killer cells in a specific immune response.
A) interleukin-6
B) interleukin-1
C) interleukin-2
D) interferon-γ
E) tumor necrosis factor-α |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27) Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by the release of ________, which form pores in the target cell's membrane.
A) fragmentins
B) interferons
C) antibodies
D) perforins
E) complement proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28) The complement cascade can be activated by binding to ________.
A) carbohydrates present on bacterial cells only
B) antibodies attached to bacterial cells only
C) natural killer cells only
D) either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells
E) either natural killer cells or carbohydrates on bacterial cells |
|
Definition
| D) either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells |
|
|
Term
29) In the end, the complement system destroys invading bacteria by ________.
A) phagocytosis
B) forming a membrane attack complex
C) release of lytic enzymes
D) agglutination
E) neutralization |
|
Definition
| B) forming a membrane attack complex |
|
|
Term
30) What is/are a component of the complement system that coats the bacterial surface, acting as an opsonin to enhance phagocytosis of bacteria.
A) CD8
B) CD4
C) Polysaccharides
D) C3b
E) C2c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31) If bacteria are exposed to a B cell in the spleen, they will initiate a(n) ________.
A) inflammatory response
B) nonspecific immune response
C) cell-mediated immune response
D) humoral immune response
E) response from the complement system |
|
Definition
| D) humoral immune response |
|
|
Term
32) Compared to humoral immunity, cell-mediated immunity is more likely to defend against which of the following?
A) virally-infected cells only
B) transplanted tissue only
C) cancer cells only
D) both virally-infected cells and cancer cells
E) virally-infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissue |
|
Definition
| E) virally-infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissue |
|
|
Term
33) Which of the following is NOT one of the important properties of the immune system that results from the action of B and T cells?
A) redundancy
B) specificity
C) diversity
D) memory
E) self-tolerance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34) In order to mount a response, particular B or T cells must express the appropriate ________ that will bind to the ________.
A) antigen : antigen receptor
B) epitope : antigen
C) antigen receptor : antigen
D) antigenic determinant : antigen
E) antigen : antibody |
|
Definition
| C) antigen receptor : antigen |
|
|
Term
35) What are different recognition sites on the same antigen called?
A) alleles
B) epitopes
C) antigen receptors
D) variable regions
E) perforins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36) The antigen-binding region of an antibody is formed by the ________.
A) constant region composed of two light chains
B) constant region composed of a heavy chain and a light chain
C) variable region composed of two light chains
D) variable region composed of two heavy chains
E) variable region composed of a heavy chain and a light chain |
|
Definition
| E) variable region composed of a heavy chain and a light chain |
|
|
Term
37) Each antibody can bind ________.
A) two different types of epitopes
B) two epitopes of the same kind
C) three epitopes of the same kind
D) two epitopes of one kind and one epitope of a different kind
E) one epitope only |
|
Definition
| B) two epitopes of the same kind |
|
|
Term
38) Each B or T cell has ________.
A) one antigen receptor
B) two antigen receptors that recognize the same epitope
C) two antigen receptors that recognize different epitopes
D) many antigen receptors that recognize the same epitope
E) many antigen receptors that recognize many epitopes |
|
Definition
| D) many antigen receptors that recognize the same epitope |
|
|
Term
39) The process of clonal selection gives rise to short-lived clones called ________, which combat the antigen that stimulated their production.
A) memory cells
B) effector cells
C) antibodies
D) antigens
E) helper cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
40) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a primary immune response?
A) The response is especially strong.
B) Antigen selected B or T cells proliferate.
C) Antigen selected B or T cells differentiate into effector cells.
D) It requires 10-17 days to initiate.
E) The response is short-lived. |
|
Definition
| A) The response is especially strong. |
|
|
Term
41) Why is a secondary immune response stronger?
A) Effector cells produced during the primary response are still present circulating in the blood.
B) Memory cells produced during the primary response lead to a rapid proliferation of effector cells on subsequent exposure to the antigen.
C) Antibodies produced during the primary response are still present circulating in the blood.
D) Body cells develop resistance to the pathogen.
E) Body cells are primed to produce antibodies against the pathogen. |
|
Definition
| B) Memory cells produced during the primary response lead to a rapid proliferation of effector cells on subsequent exposure to the antigen. |
|
|
Term
42) B cells are tested for their ability to bind to self in the ________ and are removed by ________ if they do bind to self.
A) thymus : apoptosis
B) thymus : phagocytosis
C) bone marrow : phagocytosis
D) bone marrow : apoptosis
E) bone marrow : necrosis |
|
Definition
| D) bone marrow : apoptosis |
|
|
Term
43) Activation of a B cell by an antigen results in its proliferation and differentiation into ________, which secrete the antibodies that attack the antigen.
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) T cells
C) plasma cells
D) memory cells
E) helper T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44) The lifespan of plasma cells is approximately several ________.
A) minutes
B) hours
C) days
D) weeks
E) months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45) The development of memory B cells in response to an antigen requires the secretion of ________ from ________ cells.
A) interferon-γ : cytotoxic T cells
B) tumor necrosis factor-α : natural killer cells
C) interleukin-6 : helper T cells
D) interleukin-1 : cytotoxic T cells
E) interleukin-2 : helper T cells |
|
Definition
| E) interleukin-2 : helper T cells |
|
|
Term
46) Polysaccharides on bacterial cells stimulate the production of antibodies by binding to ________.
A) B cells that stimulate plasma cell proliferation
B) B cells that stimulate plasma and memory cell proliferation
C) helper T cells that release interleukin-1 to stimulate plasma cell proliferation
D) helper T cells that directly stimulate plasma and memory cell proliferation
E) B cells that release interleukin-2 to stimulate plasma cell proliferation |
|
Definition
| A) B cells that stimulate plasma cell proliferation |
|
|
Term
47) Antibodies are classified not only by their function, but by the ________.
A) variable region
B) type of heavy chain
C) type of light chain
D) number of disulfide bonds
E) number of light chains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48) In the process of agglutination, IgD antibodies ________.
A) remove the antigen from the pathogen
B) block access to the antigenic site
C) bind to antigens on two different cells
D) stimulate the release of histamine from mast cells
E) activate the complement system |
|
Definition
| C) bind to antigens on two different cells |
|
|
Term
49) Once IgM antibodies have bound to antigens, they are removed by ________.
A) activating the alternate pathway of the complement system
B) opsonizing the antigen, making it more susceptible to phagocytosis
C) enhancing natural killer cell activity
D) binding to mast cells to stimulate secretion of histamine
E) activating the classical pathway of the complement system |
|
Definition
| E) activating the classical pathway of the complement system |
|
|
Term
50) Which of the antibody classes is able to cross epithelial cells and is therefore present in breast milk?
A) IgG only
B) IgM only
C) IgA only
D) both IgG and IgM
E) both IgM and IgA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
51) Which of the antibody classes is able to destroy an antigen by activating the nonspecific killing action of the natural killer cells?
A) IgG only
B) IgM only
C) IgE only
D) both IgG and IgM
E) both IgM and IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52) What secretes cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells, cytotoxic T cells, suppressor T cells, and helper T cells?
A) Macrophages
B) B cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells
E) Suppressor T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
53) Which type of T cell has antigen receptors?
A) cytotoxic T cells only
B) suppressor T cells only
C) helper T cells only
D) both cytotoxic and helper T cells
E) cytotoxic, helper, and suppressor T cells |
|
Definition
| E) cytotoxic, helper, and suppressor T cells |
|
|
Term
54) Receptors on every T cell detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their association with the ________ on the surface of the infected cells of the body.
A) membrane attack complex
B) CD4
C) CD8
D) major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule
E) antibodies |
|
Definition
| D) major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule |
|
|
Term
55) Cells that leave the thymus with the ability to bind to class I major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules will develop into ________.
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) B cells
C) helper T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56) Cells that leave the thymus with the ability to bind to class II major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules will develop into ________.
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) B cells
C) helper T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
57) In humans, the major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule is known as the ________.
A) human leukocyte association
B) human lymphoid antibody
C) human leukocyte antigen
D) human leukocyte antibody
E) human lymphoid tissue |
|
Definition
| C) human leukocyte antigen |
|
|
Term
58) In order to be detected by a T cell, the class I major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule of infected cells must go through the process of ________.
A) perforin incorporation
B) antibody binding
C) phagocytosis
D) antigen presentation
E) complement activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59) In order to be detected by a T cell, the class II major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule of infected cells must go through the process of ________ before presenting the antigen.
A) perforin incorporation
B) antibody binding
C) phagocytosis
D) MHC molecule presentation
E) complement activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
60) The ________ protein on the cytotoxic T cell binds to the ________ major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule on the infected cell.
A) CD8 : class I
B) CD8 : class II
C) CD4 : class I
D) CD4 : class II
E) CD6 : class I |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
61) What cells are also called CD4 cells?
A) B cells
B) plasma cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) helper T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
62) Activation of helper T cell proliferation, once it has bound to its major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule, involves the release of ________ from ________.
A) interleukin-10 : macrophages
B) interleukin-2 : macrophages
C) interleukin-1 : B cells
D) interleukin-2 : B cells
E) interleukin-4 : cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
| C) interleukin-1 : B cells |
|
|
Term
63) While some of the daughter helper T cells are secreting the appropriate interleukins, others form into ________.
A) plasma cells
B) memory T cells
C) memory B cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) suppressor T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64) Activation of cytotoxic T cells requires binding to class I MHC molecule complexed with a foreign antigen and the release of ________ from ________.
A) interleukin-10 : macrophages
B) interleukin-1 : helper T cells
C) interleukin-1 : macrophages
D) interleukin-2 : helper T cells
E) interleukin-2 : macrophages |
|
Definition
| D) interleukin-2 : helper T cells |
|
|
Term
65) Cytotoxic T cells release two proteins to destroy infected cells: ________, which forms pores in the membrane of the infected cells, and ________, which enters the infected cell through these pores and triggers apoptosis.
A) perforins : fragmentins
B) fragmentins : perforins
C) MHC class I : MHC class II
D) complement system proteins : perforins
E) complement system proteins : fragmentins |
|
Definition
| A) perforins : fragmentins |
|
|
Term
66) Which of the following cells are activated by the release of interleukin-10 from the helper T cells?
A) B cells
B) natural killer cells
C) mast cells
D) macrophages
E) cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
67) The primary mechanism whereby cytotoxic T cells are able to destroy infected cells involves ________.
A) enzymatic degradation
B) incorporation of the major attack complex
C) phagocytosis
D) activation of the complement system
E) the incorporation of perforins into the cell membrane |
|
Definition
| E) the incorporation of perforins into the cell membrane |
|
|
Term
68) Which of the following interleukins (IL) is NOT targeted to B cells?
A) IL-10
B) IL-2
C) IL-4
D) IL-5
E) IL-γ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69) The incorporation of perforins into the cell membrane results in the cell's ________.
A) being marked for degradation by macrophages
B) shrinkage and subsequent death
C) swelling and subsequent lysis
D) being bound by antibodies
E) binding of the helper T cell |
|
Definition
| C) swelling and subsequent lysis |
|
|
Term
70) A number of tumors and viruses (e.g., Epstein-Barr) are able to escape cytotoxic T cell degradation by inhibiting what?
A) the activation of the complement system
B) tumor antigen expression
C) the production of the class II major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule
D) the production of the class I MHC molecule
E) helper T cell activation |
|
Definition
| D) the production of the class I MHC molecule |
|
|
Term
71) Vaccines are composed of ________ that stimulate an active immunity to the pathogen.
A) the non-pathogenic portion of the microorganism
B) the pathogenic portion of the microorganism
C) antibodies to a microorganism
D) memory B cells that respond to a microorganism
E) memory T cells that respond to a microorganism |
|
Definition
| A) the non-pathogenic portion of the microorganism |
|
|
Term
72) A natural form of passive immunity involves the transfer of ________.
A) IgA antibodies across the placenta
B) IgE antibodies by sneezing
C) IgG antibodies by kissing
D) IgA antibodies to an infant through the mother's milk
E) IgG antibodies to an infant through the mother's milk |
|
Definition
| D) IgA antibodies to an infant through the mother's milk |
|
|
Term
73) People who have type AB blood are considered ________ because they ________.
A) universal recipients : have antibodies to A and B
B) universal recipients : have no antibodies to A or B
C) universal donors : have antibodies to A and B
D) universal donors : have no antibodies to A and B
E) universalists : cannot receive blood transfusions |
|
Definition
| B) universal recipients : have no antibodies to A or B |
|
|
Term
74) People who have type O blood are considered ________ because they ________.
A) universal recipients : have no A or B antigens
B) universal recipients : have no antibodies to A or B
C) universal donors : have no A or B antigens
D) universal donors : have no antibodies to A or B
E) universalists : cannot receive blood transfusions |
|
Definition
| C) universal donors : have no A or B antigens |
|
|
Term
75) Tissue transplantation has been made possible by our ability to ________.
A) inhibit the binding of helper T cells to the HLA
B) inhibit interleukin-5
C) alter the expression of the HLA molecules
D) match HLA molecules between individuals
E) competitively inhibit HLA molecules |
|
Definition
| D) match HLA molecules between individuals |
|
|
Term
76) What antibody is most involved in the allergic response?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
77) Hay fever that occurs when people are exposed to pollen involves an excess release of IgE, which binds to ________ and causes them to ________.
A) mast cells : degranulate, releasing histamine
B) pollen : stimulate the release of histamine
C) macrophages : destroy the pollen whose by-products stimulate histamine release
D) T helper cells : stimulate the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
E) mast cells : stimulate the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
| A) mast cells : degranulate, releasing histamine |
|
|
Term
78) The most acute allergic response is anaphylactic shock, which can be deadly due to the histamine-induced ________.
A) increase in peripheral resistance that decreases cardiac output
B) decrease in peripheral resistance that decreases mean arterial pressure
C) decrease in peripheral resistance that increases cardiac output
D) increase in capillary permeability
E) local decrease in resistance with little effect on mean arterial pressure |
|
Definition
| B) decrease in peripheral resistance that decreases mean arterial pressure |
|
|
Term
79) Diabetes mellitus can be caused by a form of autoimmune disease that attacks ________.
A) insulin receptors, preventing insulin from acting on cells
B) alpha cells of the pancreas, which destroys insulin production
C) GLUT-4 proteins as they insert into the membrane
D) beta cells of the pancreas, which destroys insulin production
E) the exocrine portion of the pancreas |
|
Definition
| D) beta cells of the pancreas, which destroys insulin production |
|
|
Term
80) What hormone released in times of stress directly inhibits the function of the immune system?
A) Glucagon
B) Aldosterone
C) Epinephrine
D) ADH
E) Corticosteroid |
|
Definition
|
|
