Term
What is the basic functional unit of the nervous system? |
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Definition
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Term
_________ provides synapses between two neurons. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the important neurotransmitters? |
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Definition
• Acetylcholine • Serotonin • Dopamine • Norepinephrine |
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Term
What do neurotransmitters do? |
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Definition
• Communicate messages from one neuron to another • Multiple neurotransmitters can work at one time to potentiate, modulate or terminate a specific action |
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Term
What are the 3 gross areas of the brain? |
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Definition
1.) Cerebrum 2.) Brain Stem 3.) Cerebellum |
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Term
What is the cerebrum associated with? |
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Definition
is the largest part of the human brain, associated with higher brain function such as thought and action. |
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Term
What are the lobes of the cerebrum? |
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Definition
the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, and temporal lobe. |
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Term
What do the lobes of the cerebrum control? |
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Definition
complex problem-solving; value judgements; language; emotions; interpretation of visual images; and interpretation of touch, pressure, temperature, and position sense. |
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Term
What are the parts of the brain stem? |
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Definition
medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain. |
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Term
What is the brain stem responsible for? |
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Definition
automatic functions including heart rate, breathing and swallowing.
Contains motor and sensory pathways. |
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Term
What is the cerebellum responsible for? |
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Definition
coordination of all movement including fine movement and balance. Contains motor and sensory pathways. |
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Term
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Definition
produced in the lateral ventricles and circulates around the brain and spinal cord through the ventricular system |
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Term
What is the pathway of cerebral perfusion? |
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Definition
• Two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries and their extensive system of branches provide blood supply to the brain |
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Term
What is the protective liquid barrier of the brain that keeps certain things out of brain circulation? |
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Definition
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Term
What does a vasospasm in the cerebral artery lead to? |
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Definition
diminished blood flow causing damage to neurons. This can result in a ischemic stroke |
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Term
What provides collateral circulation in the brain? |
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Definition
• Arteries around the circle of Willis |
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Term
What is the venous system of the brain? |
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Definition
• Smaller veins flow into larger veins and then empty into the dural sinuses. • Network of sinuses empties into the internal jugular vein. • Have no valves and depend on gravity and pressure. |
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Term
What regulates the autonomic nervous system? |
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Definition
centers in the spinal cord, brainstem, and hypothalmus |
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Term
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Definition
• Regulates activities of internal organs such as the heart, lungs, blood vessels, digestive organs, and glands |
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Term
What are the 2 divisions of the ANS? |
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Definition
1.) Sympathetic 2.) Parasympathetic |
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Term
What is the sympathetic nervous system? |
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Definition
Predominantly excitatory responses (“fight or flight”). Mediated by norepinephrine |
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Term
What is the parasympathetic nervous system? |
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Definition
o Parasympathetic nervous system: Controls mostly visceral functions (“rest and digest”). Mediated by acetylcholine |
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Term
What effect do adrenergic agonists have on the body? |
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Definition
Pupils dilate, bronchioles dilate, heart rate increased, blood vessels constrict, stomach slows, bladder/uterus relaxes, |
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Term
What neurotransmitters do adrenergic agonists mimic? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 4 main adrenergic agonists? |
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Definition
• Alpha1, Alpha2, Beta1 and Beta2 |
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Term
What is Alpha 1's main effect? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
• Increases cardiac contractility (allows emptying and filling better), vasoconstriction, increase blood return to heart |
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Term
What is an example of an Alpha 1? |
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Definition
Phenylephrine used a pressor agent. Alpha1 increase the workload of the heart, increases oxygen demand, if not available can cause chest pain. Can cause headaches, excitability, restlessness. |
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Term
What is the MAIN effect of Alpha 2? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
• Inhibits norepinephrine (raises BP) release • Promote vasodilation and decreased BP • Inhibits Insulin Release • Decrease GI motility and tone |
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Term
What are examples of Alpha 2? |
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Definition
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Term
What is Beta 1's MAIN effect? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
• Increases cardiac contractility, increase C.O. (CHF patients) • Increases Heart rate • Increases renin secretion, BP |
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Term
What's an example of a Beta 1? |
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Definition
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Term
What is Beta 2's MAIN effect? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
• Relax smooth muscles of lungs leading to bronchodilation • Increase blood flow to skeletal muscles • Decrease GI motility |
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Term
What are some examples of Beta 2? |
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Definition
o Short-acting albuterol o Long-acting salmeterol |
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Term
What is the major complication of Beta 2? |
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Definition
cardiac arrhythmias due to increase oxygen demand. Side effects can also be shakiness and cramping of hands, feet, and legs. |
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Term
What is a direct acting adrenergic agonist? |
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Definition
o directly stimulate adrenergic receptor |
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Term
What is an example of a direct acting AA? |
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Definition
• Epinephrine, norepinephrine |
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Term
Why should you not give epi orally? |
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Definition
bc is rapidly metabolized in the GI tract and liver, resulting in unstable serum levels. Usually given SQ & IV |
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Term
What is an indirect adrenergic agonist? |
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Definition
stimulate release of norepinephrine |
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Term
What is an example of an indirect adrenergic agonist? |
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Definition
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Term
What are mixed acting adrenergic agonists? |
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Definition
stimulate adrenergic receptors & release of norepinephrine |
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Term
What are examples of mixed acting AA? |
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Definition
• Ephedrine • Increases HR and BP • Not as potent as epi |
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Term
What does epinephrine do? |
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Definition
• Stimulates alpha (1) and beta (1) receptors (alpha receptors at high doses; beta- 1 and beta- 2 receptors at moderate doses) within the sympathetic nervous system. |
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Term
What forms does epinephrine come in? |
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Definition
-Epinephrine injection -Epipen for anaphylaxis -Racepinephrine (aerosol) |
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Term
What do you need to check for before administering? -Dobutamine -Dopamine -Epinephrine -Norepinephrine -Ephedrine -Phenylephrine |
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Definition
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Term
What is the action of dobutamine? |
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Definition
ncrease cardiac output due to decreased contractility |
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Term
What is the action of dopamine? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the action of norepinephrine? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the action of ephedrine? |
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Definition
o hypotension mostly from spinal anesthesia |
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Term
What is the action of phenylephrine? |
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Definition
hypotension and nasal decongestant |
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Term
What are the nursing actions for: Dobutamine -Dopamine -Epinephrine -Norepinephrine -Ephedrine -Phenylephrine? |
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Definition
o include frequency of monitoring BP, cardiac rate and rhythm, always put drip on an IV pump, monitor urine output, and monitor IV site for extravasation. |
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Term
What is an alpha blocker? |
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Definition
• Alpha blocking are selective (block alpha1) or non selective (blocks alpha 1 & 2) |
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Term
What do alpha blockers do? |
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Definition
o Useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy (flomax) o Can be used in Raynaud’s disease due vasodilating properties o Can be used for hypertension Cardura, and prazosin (Minipress) |
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Term
What can alpha blockers/beta blockers cause? |
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Definition
o Can cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia |
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Term
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Definition
class of drugs that works by blocking the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine from binding to receptors |
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Term
What do beta blockers do? |
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Definition
• Decrease heart rate, decrease BP, and cause bronchoconstriction (especially when non-selective beta-blockers are administered to asthmatic patients) |
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Term
What can cause SOB in asthmatics? |
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Definition
• Beta blockers that block β2 receptors |
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Term
What does Beta 1 work on? |
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Definition
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Term
What does Beta 2 work on? |
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Definition
• Lungs, GI, liver, uterus, vascular smooth muscle |
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Term
What does Beta 3 work on? |
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Definition
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Term
What teaching is necessary for Adrenergic Blockers? |
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Definition
o Check vital signs. Note if dizziness or lightheadedness occurs; these are often indications of a decrease in blood pressure.
o Do not abruptly discontinue the adrenergic blocker because rebound hypertension could result
o Rise slowly from sitting position to avoid orthostatic hypotension, especially when the drug is first started. |
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Term
What do cholinergic agents do? |
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Definition
• Stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system |
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Term
What are the types of cholinergic agents? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a direct cholinergic agent? |
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Definition
o Direct Acting • Urecholine stimulates parasympathetic receptors to increase bladder tone, stimulates contraction and micturition • Pilocarpine constricts pupils of eyes and promotes drainage of aqueous fluid to treat glaucoma |
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Term
What is an indirect acting cholinergic agent? |
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Definition
• Primary use is to treat myasthenia gravis to increase muscle strength • Prostigmin, Mestinon |
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Term
What do cholinergic blockers do? |
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Definition
• Inhibits the action of acetylcholine • Actions: o Increases heart rate o Decreases GI motility o Urinary retention o Dilates pupils o Decreases salivation, bronchial secretions o Dilates bronchi |
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Term
What are the most common cholinergic blockers? |
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Definition
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Term
What is important to note about atropine? |
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Definition
o Atropine has a short half life (IV onset immediate and peaks in 2-4 min), increases HR by blocking vagus stimulation, promotes dilation of pupils by paralyzing the iris sphincter. |
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Term
What happens if you take atropine with urecholine? |
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Definition
o Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic agent, and Urecholine (bethanechol chloride) is a cholinergic agent. If these drugs are taken together, they counteract each other’s action. |
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Term
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Definition
patch for motion sickness |
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Term
What teaching is involved with pilocarpine? |
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Definition
• Correct method of instillation of eyedrops. • Vision may be blurred after instillation of eyedrops; driving a car or operating machinery should be delayed until vision is clear. • Withhold eyedrops if symptoms of irritation occur. Report immediately to the health care provider. • Keep follow-up appointments. • Atropine-like drugs are contraindicated if the client has glaucoma. These agents cause pupil dilation, decreasing aqueous fluid flow through the canal of Schlemm. Important to obtain history preoperatively |
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Term
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Definition
o Uses a narrow X-ray beam to scan the body part in successive layers o Combines radiology and computer analysis of tissue density (with contrast dye) o Doesn’t show blood vessels well |
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Term
Why is a CT used before an MRI in emergencies? |
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Definition
o Faster than MRI so that’s why its used in emergencies |
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Term
What are the main uses of a CT? |
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Definition
Contusion Calcification, Atrophy, Inflammation Space occupying lesions (tumors, edema, abscesses) Infarcts, blood clots, hemorrhage |
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Term
What do you need to check before a CT? |
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Definition
Allergies, Labs to evaluate renal function |
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Term
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Definition
• Positron emission tomography (PET): A nuclear imaging technique that produces images of actual organ functioning |
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Term
What does a PET scan show? |
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Definition
o Measures blood flow, tissue composition, metabolism o Brain uses 80% of glucose consumed o Metabolic changes in Alzheimers o Tumors o Biochemical abnormalities |
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Term
What is the pt teaching for a PET scan? |
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Definition
Contrast – may taste bad, may get warm and flushed Sensations Relax, lie still |
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Term
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Definition
o Uses radionuclides and instruments to detect single photons, and captures a moment of cerebral blood flow o Perfusion study, injection of radionuclide |
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Term
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Definition
o Uses a magnetic field to obtain images of different areas of the body o With or without contrast agent o Better for non-acute due to duration of ≈ one hour o MRA allows visualization of cerebral vasculature |
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Term
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Definition
• Cerebral angiography (CTA): An x-ray study of the cerebral circulation |
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Term
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Definition
• Myelogram: An X-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space |
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Term
What is a non invasive carotid flow study? |
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Definition
: Use ultrasound to evaluate carotid and deep orbital circulation |
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Term
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Definition
• Electroencephalogram (EEG): Represents a record of the electrical activity generated in the brain |
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Term
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Definition
• Electromyogram (EMG): Uses needle electrodes to measure changes in the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them |
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Term
What is a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
• CSF is sent to lab for analyze for blood, bacteria, cell count, glucose, protein, and culture. |
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Term
What does normal CSF show? |
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Definition
• Normal results should be clear and colorless o Antibodies and DNA of common viruses: None o Bacteria: No bacteria grows in a lab culture o Cancerous cells: No cancerous cells present o Cell count: less than 5 white blood cells (all mononuclear) and 0 red blood cells o Chloride: 110 to 125 mEq/L o Fungus: None o Glucose: 50 to 80 mg/dL(or greater than two-thirds of blood sugar level) o Glutamine: 6 to 15 mg/dL o Lactate dehydrogenase: less than 2.0 to 7.2 U/mL o Oligoclonal bands: 0 or 1 bands that are not present in a matched serum sample o Protein: 15 to 60 mg/dL |
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Term
What are the steps prior to a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
o Explain procedure, consent required o Local anesthetic used o Patient may be instructed to lie flat after to avoid headache o Monitor for any neurologic deficits o Monitor puncture site for signs/sx of infection o Antibiotics can be administered intrathecally (spinal canal) |
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Term
What are the severe complications of a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
o ICP is decreased due to withdrawal of fluid, brain can herniate downward, spinal abscess, spinal hematoma, spinal epidural headache, meningitis |
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Term
What are the less severe complications of a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
temporary voiding problems, low grade temp, backache or spasm, and stiffness in neck |
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Term
Where is fluid taken from in a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
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Term
• Which of the following neurological functions is the primary domain of the cerebellum? o Visual recognition o Judgment o Regulation of emotions o Maintenance of balance |
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Definition
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Term
• What assessment findings would be expected in a client who has stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system or who uses sympathomimetic (adrenergic) drugs? |
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Definition
o Pupil and bronchial dilation, increased heart rate, constricted blood vessels, constriction of the GI tract muscles and bladder, and relaxation of the uterus |
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Term
• When would alpha1-adrenergic agonists be ordered? |
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Definition
o To treat hypotension, to increase the force of heart contractions |
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Term
• What assessment findings would you see in this patient before you give medication? |
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Definition
o Decreased blood pressure and possible reflex tachycardia |
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Term
• When would alpha2-adrenergic agonists be used? |
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Definition
o To decrease blood pressure and to decrease GI motility and tone. |
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Term
• When would beta1-adrenergic agonists be used? |
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Definition
o To increase heart rate and force of contraction; to increase renin, which increases blood pressure. |
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Term
• When would beta2-adrenergic agonists be used? |
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Definition
o To dilate bronchioles; to promote GI and uterine relaxation; to increase blood sugar through glycogenolysis; and to increase blood flow to skeletal muscle. |
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Term
What is considered when performing a CT? |
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Definition
o Consent, Allergies, Metformin, Lie Still |
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Term
What is considered with an MRI? |
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Definition
o NO METAL o Loud, lay still |
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Term
What is considered with an EEG? |
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Definition
o No sedatives, sleep deprived, don’t take your seizure medicine |
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Term
What position is the person in for a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
fetal position (knees up) or lean over the bed side table |
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Term
What is normal in a lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
Clear, glucose, no blood, check for bacteria, WBC |
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Term
What do you do for head ache associated w/ lumbar puncture? |
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Definition
pain med, increase fluids, Lay flat, headache later so give pain meds, give blood patch if HA doesn’t go away |
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