Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood, as well as shaping the articular surfaces?
lacunae Haversian system epiphyseal line epiphyseal plate
Definition
epiphyseal plate
Term
Why, or why not, is swimming recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis?
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise. Swimming is recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Definition
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Term
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.
cartilage and compact bone chondrocytes and osteocytes osteoblasts and osteoclasts marrow and osteons
Definition
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Term
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
parathyroid hormone calcitonin estrogen thyroxine
Definition
parathyroid
Term
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?
compound fracture: the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin nondisplaced fracture: the fractured bone ends are misaligned incomplete fracture: the bone is broken through linear fracture: the break is perpendicular to the bone's long axis
Definition
compound fracture: the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin
Term
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?
trabecular bone irregular bone compact bone spongy bone
Definition
compact bone
Term
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis in a circular fashion by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis from the edges inward
Definition
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Term
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.
potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D sodium, calcium, and vitamin E calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
Definition
calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
Term
Which description of bone cells is INCORRECT?
Bone lining cells on the internal surfaces of bone are also called endosteal cells. Osteogenic cells can differentiate into osteoclasts. Osteoclasts secrete digestive enzymes and hydrogen ions. Osteoblasts secrete collagen and calcium-binding proteins
Definition
Osteogenic cells can differentiate into osteoclasts.
Term
Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?
is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation involves medullary cavity formation is produced by secondary ossification centers takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
Definition
produced by secondary ossification centers
Term
When chondrocytes in lacunae divide and form new matrix, it leads to an expansion of the cartilage tissue from within. This process is called ________.
Interstitial growth occurs when chondrocytes divide and form new matrix, thereby expanding the cartilage tissue from within. (Note: the word inter means between, and stitial means space; these are common roots for anatomical terms.)
Term
Which hormone is produced in bone and regulates bone formation, but also protects against diabetes mellitus?
osteocalcin leptin calcitonin growth hormone
Definition
osteocalcin
Term
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.
osteoblast osteoclast chondrocyte osteocyte
Definition
osteoblast
Term
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
osteoclast stem cell osteoblast osteocyte
Definition
osteoclast
Term
What is endochondral ossification?
the formation of bone from pre-existing hyaline cartilage models the formation of bone from pre-existing fibrocartilage models the formation of bone from fibrous membranes the formation of bone from pre-existing elastic cartilage models
Definition
the formation of bone from pre-existing hyaline cartilage models
Term
What is osteoid?
the outer surface of bone one of the cell types found in bone the inorganic part of the matrix of bone the organic part of the matrix of bone
Definition
the organic part of the matrix of bone
Term
Choose the TRUE statement.
Most bones in the body are formed by intramembranous ossification. Endochondral ossification occurs within fibrous connective tissue membranes. Endochondral ossification leads to the formation of the clavicles and cranial bones. Endochondral ossification converts hyaline cartilage "bone" models into true bones (i.e., hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation).
Definition
Endochondral ossification converts hyaline cartilage "bone" models into true bones (i.e., hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation).
Term
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?
A medullary cavity forms. A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue
Definition
An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
Term
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage inadequate calcification of bone decreased osteoclast activity increased osteoclast activity
Definition
decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
Term
Hyaline cartilage ________.
forms "shock-absorbing" pads between the vertebrae is the rarest of the skeletal cartilages is found on the ends of bones that form movable joints gives shape to the external ear
Definition
found on the ends of bones that form movable joints
Term
Which bone cells form bone?
osteoblasts osteocytes osteoclasts chondroblasts
Definition
osteoblasts
Term
The resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?
amount of mineral salts in the bone presence of osteoblasts in the bone sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone
Definition
sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules
Term
Choose the FALSE statement.
Long bones include all limb bones except the patella. Irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones. The sternum is an example of a flat bone. Sesamoid bones form within certain tendons
Definition
Long bones include all limb bones except the patella
Term
What is the final stage in the healing of a bone fracture?
formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus bone remodeling formation of a bony callus formation of a hematoma
Definition
bone remodeling
Term
How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment?
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed. Teeth are avascular, allowing part of the tooth to be removed for repositioning. By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the gums will be reabsorbed and reformed to the new position of the tooth. By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reformed, while the bone on the reverse side will be reabsorbed.
Definition
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed.
Term
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
the scapula and the clavicle the humerus and the clavicle the radius and the ulna the humerus and the radius
Definition
the radius and the ulna
Term
When you hit your elbow and say that you hit your "funny bone," you have actually hit a nerve that runs across the bone surface. Over which bone can this nerve be found?
radius ulna pisiform humerus
Definition
humerus
Term
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the parietal bones?
The four largest sutures occur where the parietal bones join to other bones. They form the bulk of the cranial vault. They form the base of the skull. They are paired.
Definition
hey form the base of the skull.
Term
What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
provide central support for the body and protect internal organs give the body resilience provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement provide a space for the major digestive organs
Definition
provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
Term
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
no transverse processes transverse foramina costal facets no intervertebral discs
Definition
costal facets
Term
he suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.
sagittal lambdoid coronal squamous
Definition
saggital
Term
ethmoid bone vomer mandible palatine bone hyoid bone
Definition
hyoid bone
Term
The pituitary gland is housed in the ________.
vomer sella turcica of the sphenoid bone sinuses of the ethmoid bone foramen lacerum
Definition
sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
Term
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
kyphosis lordosis swayback scoliosis
Definition
scoliosis
Term
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?
Which bone is considered to be the keystone of the cranium?
sphenoid mandible temporal bone ethmoid
Definition
sphenoid
Term
Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?
to provide resilience and flexibility to accommodate muscle attachment to accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle to improve cervical center of gravity
Definition
to provide resilience and flexibility
Term
Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?
orbital plate perpendicular plate crista galli cribriform plate
Definition
perpendicular plate
Term
Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?
rotation flexion and extension lateral flexion supination
Definition
supination
Term
Which of the following bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?
mandible humerus hyoid bone sternum
Definition
humorous
Term
If a herniated disc in the lumbar region is treated by surgically removing the intervertebral disc and doing a bone graft between the adjoining vertebrae, one of the consequences might be _________.
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back gradual growth of a replacement intervertebral disc in the space between the vertebrae increased shock absorbance qualities in the intervertebral discs located immediately above and below the graft in order to compensate for the removal of the herniated disc All of the listed responses are correct.
Definition
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
Term
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?
tibia fibula talus femur
Definition
fibula
Term
Which bone acts as a brace to hold the arms out and away from the body?
scapula sternum clavicle first rib
Definition
clavicle
Term
The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?
ethmoid maxilla sphenoid
Definition
ethmoid
Term
Definition
the shape of their articular surfaces
Based on the shape of their articular surfaces, which in turn determine the movements allowed, synovial joints can be classified into six major categories: plane, hinge, pivot, condylar (or ellipsoid), saddle, and ball-and-socket joints.
Term
Definition
The anular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
Term
Definition
prevent hyperextension of the knee
Term
Definition
act as friction-reducing structures
Term
Definition
muscle tone
For most synovial joints, especially the knee and shoulder, the muscle tendons that cross the joint are the most important stabilizing factor. These tendons are kept taut at all times by muscle tone, constant, partial contraction of their muscles.
Term
Definition
Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
Term
Definition
Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders often afflict people who grind their teeth, but can also result from jaw trauma or poor occlusion of the teeth. The TMJ is formed by the articulation between the temporal bone and mandible.
Term
Definition
The synovial membrane lines the inside of the fibrous joint capsule and produces synovial fluid, which serves as a lubricant.
Term
Definition
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Term
Definition
false
The origin is attached to the immovable or less movable bone; the insertion is attached to the movable bon
Term
Definition
feet
Term
[image]
what type of joints are these
Definition
cartilaginous
Term
Structure C and D collectively form which of the following?
[image]
Definition
The synovial membrane and the fibrous layer that covers it collectively form the articular capsule.
Term
Definition
All synovial joints are freely movable.
Term
Definition
Diarthrosis, which refers to a freely movable joint, represents a functional classification.
Term
Definition
Extension involves movement along the sagittal plane that increases the angle between the articulating bones and typically straightens a flexed limb or body part.
Term
Definition
RA is a chronic, systemic, inflammatory disorder. Inflammation occurs in the joint, and the fluid that accumulates causes swelling, stiffness, impairment of joint movement, and extreme pain.
Term
Definition
The shoulder and hip are examples of ball-and-socket joints.
Term
Definition
hinge joint
Term
Definition
synchondrosis: a plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones
A synchondrosis is a plate of hyaline cartilage that unites the bones. Epiphyseal plates are examples of synchondroses
Term
Definition
plane
Term
Definition
rotation
Term
Definition
biceps brachii muscle
Term
Definition
By tapping the patellar ligament, which connects the patella (kneecap) to the tibia, one can test the knee-jerk reflex. Stretching the patellar ligament in turn stretches the quadriceps tendon and muscle, triggering the stretch reflex that results in contraction of the quadriceps and extension (jerking) of the knee.
Term
Definition
Synchondroses
Term
Definition
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Term
Definition
bone ends united by fibrocartilage
In synovial joints, bone ends are covered, but not united with cartilage. Hyaline (articular) cartilage covers the bone ends. The fibrocartilage found in some synovial joints, such as the knee joint, provides additional cushioning between opposing bone ends.
Term
Definition
rotation
Term
Definition
The amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity is not a factor that contributes to joint stability. The major role of synovial fluid is to lubricate the joint surfaces of freely movable (synovial) joints.
Term
Definition
Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons.
Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons. Both bursae and tendon sheaths are associated with synovial joints, both reduce friction between adjacent structures, and both contain a thin film of synovial fluid.
Osteoarthritis is a common, chronic degenerative joint disease often called "wear-and-tear arthritis."
Term
Definition
forward sliding of the tibia on the femur
The ACL extends from the anterior intercondylar notch of the femur to the anterior intercondylar eminence of the tibia. This ligament prevents the tibia from being pushed too far anterior relative to the femur.
Term
Definition
rare because of the ligament reinforcement
Term
Which of the following terms describes the functional classification of the illustrated joint with regard to its range of movement?
[image]
Definition
diarthrotic
Term
Definition
Angular movements increase or decrease the angle between articulating bones. Extension is an angular movement that increases the angle between the articulating bones. Angular movements may occur in any plane of the body and include flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction.
Term
Definition
the radius and ulna along its length
Term
Definition
Of all body joints, the knees are most susceptible to sports injuries because of their high reliance on non-articular factors for stability and the fact that they carry the body's weight. The knee can absorb a vertical force equal to nearly seven times body weight. However, it is very vulnerable to horizontal blows, such as those that occur during blocking and tackling in football and in ice hockey.
Term
Definition
They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
Term
Which of these joints would be functionally classified as diarthrotic?[image]
Definition
none
Diarthrotic describes freely movable joints such as those formed by synovial joints.
Term
[image]
The thumb joint indicated by C mediates which of the following special movements?
Definition
Opposition is the movement which allows the touching of the thumb to the tip of each finger.
Term
Definition
lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
Term
Definition
number of bones in the joint
Term
Definition
hyaline cartilage
Term
Definition
The saddle joint between metacarpal I and the trapezium allows a movement called opposition of the thumb-the action taken when you touch your
Term
Definition
gomphosis
Term
Definition
false
An isometric contraction generates tension (force), but not enough to move the load. Overall muscle length does not change during iso(same) -metric(length) contractions. In contrast, isotonic contractions result in movement of the load.
Term
Definition
activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Term
Definition
The sarcomere is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber, and the smallest functional unit of muscle. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs; it primarily consists of thin and thick myofilaments.
Term
Definition
Slow oxidative fibers are best suited for endurance (long duration) activities because they produce ATP aerobically, and are thus, fatigue-resistant. Fast glycolytic fibers, and to a lesser extent fast oxidative fibers, rely more on anaerobic glycolysis, and thus produce more lactic acid, which is a major cause of fatigue.
Term
Definition
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Term
Definition
Ca2+ and ATP
Term
Definition
Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma.
These action potentials set off a series of events that lead to a contraction.
Term
Definition
Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is especially abundant and convoluted in skeletal muscle cells. It functions in the storage, release, and reuptake of calcium ions
Term
Definition
A series of proteins that control calcium release
When action potentials propagate along T-tubules, a voltage-sensitive protein changes shape and triggers a different protein to open it's channels, resulting in the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.
Term
Definition
T tubules penetrate a skeletal muscle fiber and provide a pathway for excitation into the interior.
Term
Definition
Action potentials propagating down the T-tubule cause a voltage-sensitive protein to change shape. This shape change opens calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing calcium ions to flood the sarcoplasm. This flood of calcium ions is directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction in skeletal muscle fibers.
Term
Definition
Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron.
There are many more skeletal muscle fibers than there are motor neurons. The ratio of neurons to fibers varies from approximately one to ten to approximately one to thousands.
Term
Definition
smooth
Term
Definition
A myosin head bound to actin
As soon as the activated myosin head forms a cross bridge with actin, the power stroke begins.
Term
Definition
A sarcomere is a regular arrangement of thin and thick myofilaments that extends from one Z disc to the next. A myofibril consists of a series of sarcomeres.
Term
Definition
Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Term
Definition
ATP binds to the myosin head.
The binding of ATP to the myosin head weakens the bond between myosin and actin, forcing the myosin head to detach. ATP also provides the energy for the next power stroke.
Term
Definition
The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP
Myosin is a large, complex protein with a binding site for actin. It also contains an ATPase. The energy released during the hydrolysis of ATP activates the myosin head.
Term
Definition
Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.
The shape change caused by the binding of calcium to troponin shifts tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin.
Term
Definition
Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains Ca2+-ATPases that actively transport Ca2+ into the SR. Without Ca2+, troponin returns to its resting shape, and tropomyosin glides over and covers the myosin binding sites on actin.
Term
Definition
none
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Without a normal copy of DNA for transcription, there can never be a normal protein translated. This genetic mutation causes the protein to be either abnormal in structure or completely absent.
Term
Definition
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Term
Definition
the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
Term
Definition
running a marathon
Term
Definition
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
Term
Definition
release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction
Term
[image]
What event directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A?
Definition
diffusion of Ca2+ into the axonal terminus
Nerve impulses arriving at the axonal terminus trigger the opening of Ca2+ channels, which allows for the diffusion of Ca2+ into the terminus. This in turn leads directly to the release of neurotransmitter by exocytosis.
Term
[image]
Definition
1 and 7
The distance between points 1 and 7 spans a sarcomere, the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.
Term
The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by __________.
Definition
amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells
The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by the amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells. Instead of relying on storage of ATP, muscle cells use ATP regenerating pathways, such as glycolysis, to meet the ATP demands of muscle contraction.
Term
Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibers?
Definition
aponeurosis
Term
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
Definition
a long, relaxing swim
Term
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
Definition
a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
Term
Myasthenia gravis is sometimes treated medically by a treatment that involves ________.
Definition
inhibiting the action of acetylcholinesterase
Term
What is the primary function of wave summation?
Definition
produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
Term
he connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?
[image]
Definition
tendon
Term
What special feature of smooth muscle allows it to stretch without immediately resulting in a strong contraction?
Definition
stress-relaxation response
Stretching of smooth muscle provokes contraction; however, the increased tension persists only briefly, and soon the muscle adapts to its new length and relaxes, while still retaining the ability to contract on demand. The stress-relaxation response of smooth muscle allows a hollow organ to fill or expand slowly to accommodate a greater volume without promoting strong contractions that would expel its contents.
Term
The molecular interaction described as a "cross bridge" involves the binding of which two of the letters below?
The molecular interaction described as a "cross bridge" involves the binding of which two of the letters below?
[image]
B and D
A and B
A and C
A and D
Definition
A & C
Cross bridges between thin and thick myofilaments is formed by the specific interaction between actin (A) and myosin head groups (C).
Term
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
Definition
motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Term
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
Definition
acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Term
How many motor units are illustrated in the figure[image]
Definition
2
Term
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
Definition
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Term
Which of the following describes the neurons shown in this figure?
[image]
somatic motor neurons
autonomic motor neurons
sensory neurons
Definition
Contraction of skeletal muscle is controlled by somatic motor neurons.
Term
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
Definition
actin filaments
Term
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
Definition
glycolysis
Term
The distance between Z discs ________ during muscle contraction.
Definition
DECREASES
During muscle contraction, the distance between Z discs decreases as the thin myofilaments slide across thick myofilaments, toward the M line in the center of each sarcomere. As the sarcomeres shorten, the myofibrils and, thus the myofibers shorten (contract)
Term
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
Definition
activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Term
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
Definition
there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Term
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
Definition
no muscle tension could be generated
Term
The major role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to regulate ________.
Definition
intracellular levels of Ca2+
The major role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to regulate intracellular Ca2+ levels. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ionic calcium when the muscle is relaxed and releases it when the muscle fiber is stimulated to contract.
Term
In the muscles of the limbs, the origin usually lies proximal to the insertion.
Definition
true
In the muscles of the limbs, the origin generally lies proximal to the insertion.
Term
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
Definition
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
Term
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
Definition
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
Term
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching.
Z disc
I band
A band
M line
Definition
A band
Term
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.