27. (405) What personnel reliability code is updated for an individual who is interim certified for a critical position after confirming with the Defense Investigative Service (DIS) that the delay of the investigation is no tthe result of derogatory information?

a. Code E

b. Code I

c. Code J

d. Code T

28. (406) Which of the following is an action used to immediately remove a member from personnel reliability program (PRP) related duties without decertification?

a. Removal

b. Set Aside

c. Mitigation

d. Suspension

29. (406) Which of th efollowing is not a situation for which a member in the personnel reliability program (PRP) must be permanent decertification?

a. For initiation of involuntary discharge action for cause

b. For confirmed drub abuse by a prp certified member

c. When a short-term impairment exists and suspension is not appropriate

d. When a PRP certified member is diagnosed as suffering from alcohol abuse

30. (406) What document is used for permanent decertification of a personnel reliability program (PRP) member when the certifying official must document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision to decertify the individual?

a. AF Form 286A

b. DD Form 286A

c. Suspension document

d. Temporary decertification

31. (407) Which of the following would be the overseas duty selection date (ODSD) for a member who has never had an overseas assignment or temporary duty and who has a total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) of February 2000?

a. 1 February 2000

b. 3 February 2000

c. 4 February 2000

d. 5 February 2000

32. (407) The overseas duty selection date (ODSD) is used to align Airmen in a priority sequence for long overseas (OS) tour selection and for short OS tours when Airmen have

a. not completed a temporary duty

b. completed a temporary duty

c. not completed a prior OS short tour

d. completed a prior OS short tour

33. (407) How is the short tour return date (STRD) established fo ran Airman who came on active duty on 2 February 2000 and has never served an overseas (OS) short tour?

a. Established to equal the OS duty selection date (ODSD)

b. The date of completion of any OS tour regardless of tour length

c. Established to equal the total active feeral military service date (TAFMSD)

d. The date of completion of any OS long tour, provided he or she was unaccompanied

34. (407) If an Airman completes an unaccompanied tour of less than 18 months and no accompanied tour was authorized, credit the member with a short tour and award a new

a. date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS)

b. overseas duty selection date (ODSD) only

c. short tour return date (STRD) only

d. both ODSD and a STRD

35. (407) If an overseas (OS) tour is curtailed and no entitlement to tour credit accrues, the overseas duty selection date (ODSD) or short tour return date (STRD) is

a. adjusted by the number of days served in the OS area

b. adjusted by years served in teh OS area and the date arrive at the continental United States (CONUS) port

c. readjusted to give credit for the entire tour for which the member originally volunteered

d. readjusted to give credit for the entire tour stated on the member's original tour election

36. (407) When an Airman's permanent change change of station (PCS) orders show a member elected to serve an accompanied tour, but the member arrives overseas (OS) unaccompanied, an initial date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) is established based on the

a. accompanied tour, because the member was selected to serve such

b. unaccompanied tour, because the member is arriving unaccompanied

c. accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied

d. unaccompanied tour, provided the member requests a change of OS tour status

c. accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied

37. (407) Which of the following action should be taken by the MPE when a member has an approved separation date before their DEROS?

a. Adjust the DEROS

b. Award the DEROS

c. Add the OS tour length to the late date departed the CONUS

d. Add the OS tour length to the date arrived at the OS duty station and award the DEROS

a. Adjust the DEROS

38. (408) Which of the following data elements must b eincluded in a request to HQ AFPC to correct OS duty history?

a. OS tour length

b. OS duty history

c. OS volunteer status

d. OS tour selection

39. (408) How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a member selected for a COT travels to the CONUS before arriving at the new assignment?

a. The date member arrived at the CONUS port

b. The day before member arrives at the CONUS port

c. The date member completed the original tour (plus all extension)

d. The date member arrived at the new assignment

40. (409) Which of th efollowing actions does the PEE accomplish during inprocessing?

a. Respond to processing discrepancies from the losing base

b. Inform newcomers of installation sponsorship responsibilities

c. Check records for active duty service commitments when applicable

d. Process discrepancies received from the losing base within three workdays

41. (409) which of the following PCS departure certification statements as accomplished by teh gaining MPE is formateted correctly? "I certifiy that I

a. departed at (time) on (date) from (base) and (Member's payroll signature)

b. outprocessed my last duty station on (date) at (time) and (Member's initials)

c. certify that I departed (location) PCS at (time) on (date) and (Member's payroll signature)

d. outprocessed on (date) at (time) from (losing unit of assignment) en route to (gaining unit of assignment)

42. (409) Which of the following PCS departure certification statements as accomplished by a gaining MPE is formatted correctly?

a. I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 0800. ( Member's initials)

b. On 15 August 2001 at 1330, I CMSgt Lisa Acevedo departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS

c. I, CMSgt Lisa Acevedo , certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 1330

d. I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan on PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001. (Member's payroll signature)

43. (409) In the event a PCS departure certification is missing when a member in-process, what agency is responsible for initiating a new one?

a. MAJCOM

b. AFPC

c. Losing MPE

d. Gaining MPE

44. (410) When information is entered on the IDA worksheet, the appropriate element must

a. update the member's records

b. verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet

c. update the member's records and ensure the record is filed

d. verify the relocation folders on all projected gains and ensure the worksheet is filed alphabetically

45. (410) What does the NCOIC/assistant NCOIC, Personnel Employment use to verify the data on the IDA?

a. Allocation Notice

b. IDA worksheet

c. Projected duty update-inbound application

d. Assignment RIP

46. (410) What happens after updating an officer's projected duty on teh effecctive date is equal to or less than the current duty effective date?

a. The projected duty information will consummate

b. The projected duty information will drop from PDS

c. The gaining MPE or unit will confirm projected assignment action upon the actual arrival of the individual

d. The losing MPE will confirm projected assignment actions on the actual departure of the individual

47. (410) When requesting a change in an officer's DAFSC, which of the following is not included for AFPC to make a decision?

a. Position number

b. Specific justification

c. Input of a new duty title

d. Duty RIP

48.(410) After an officer has attended and completed training, what is the officer's previous duty effective date?

a. Consummates on the class start date

b. One day after the class graduation date

c. One day before the class graduation date

d. Consummates in five duty days of arrival at the permanent duty station

49. (411) A specialty may be considered for award of SDAP if it meets all of the following conditions except

a. not demanding or highly responsible duties

b. place a heavy personal burden on the member

c. over and above what would be reasonably expected in a military assignment for a member's grade

d. over and above what would be reasonably expected in a military assignment for a member's

50. (411) An enlisted member is eligible to receive SDAP if he or she meets all of the following criteria except for

a. serving in pay grade E-2 or higher

b. being on active duty and entitled to basic pay

c. being qualified in a designated duty as certified by the unit commander

d. having completed a special schooling required to qualify for the duty

51. (411) What specific activity must initiate the entitlement of a member's qualification and eligibility for SDAP?

a. MAJCOM

b. Unit Commander

c. AFPC

d. MPE

52. (411) What happens to the eligibility for SDAP if a member serving a SDAP performs TDY and their skills do not merit SDAP?

a. Stops

b. Continues

c. SDAP stops for up to 179 consective days of the TDY

d. SDAP continues for up to 90 consectuve days of the TDY

53. (412) Which of the following mismatches is not displayed in narrative form on the UPMR?

a. Grade is higher than the authorized grade

b. AFSC is a higher skill-level than the authorized AFSC

c. Officer's duty SEI is different from the authorized SEI

d. Airmen's DAFSC is different from the authorized SEI

54. (412) What computer product lists unit manpower requirements that are both funded and unfunded?

a. UMD

b. IDA Worksheet

c. UPMR

d. PEMR

55. (412) What activity uses the UMD to allocate resources and identify projected changes in manpower authorizations?

a. MPE

b. AFPC

c. MAJCOM

d. HQ USAF

1. (401) The Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of functions and requirements for all of the following except

a. Education.

b. Experience.

c. Knowledge.

d. Personal desires.

2. (401) What functional grouping does the Air Force use to combine Air Force specialties (AFS) into broader and more general functional categories?

a. Career fields. 

b. General structure.

c. Utilization fields.

d. Organizational structure.

3. (401) How does a “capper” Air Force specialty code (AFSC) differ from other AFSCs?

a. Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a “0”.

b. First position of a capper AFSC will always be a “9”.

c. Fifth position of all other AFSCs will always be a “9”.

d. First position of all other AFSCs will always be numeric.

4. (401) When classifying a member into specific Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which of the following factors is not taken into consideration in the Guaranteed Training Enlistment Program (GTEP)?

a. Individual’s preference.

b. Personal qualifications.

c. Air Force requirements.

d. Assignment volunteer status.

5. (402) Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Airmen primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

a. Desires and interests of the individual.

b. Amount of formal training and education.

c. Civic and fraternal membership.

d. Complexity of specialty.

6. (402) A member serving in the grade of master sergeant (MSgt) will normally not be used outside a control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) during any 12-month period

a. while in upgrade training for award of the 5-skill level.

b. while in upgrade training for award of the 9-skill level.

c. for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the military personnel element (MPE) commander.

d. for a period not to exceed 240 days without approval from the MPE commander.

7. (402) Which of the following media will Air Force use to provide Air Force specialty code (AFSC) revisions and a detailed guidance as to what actions must be taken to military personnel elements (MPE)?

a. AFI 36-2101, classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted).

b. Major command (MAJCOM) semiannual revision to AFI-3 2108, Enlisted Classification.

c. Change summary and conversion guide.

d. MPE memorandums.

8. (402) When conversion actions are not accomplished by the conversion effective date, military personnel elements (MPE) are authorized to award Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) based on conversion instructions for how many days after the effective date?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 120.

9. (402) For which of the following reasons would an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) withdrawal be appropriate?

a. Disqualification for aviation service for other than medical reasons.

b. Loss of aircraft qualification.

c. Reduction in grade.

d. Medical disqualification.

10. (402) If a senior master sergeant (SMSgt) is demoted to staff sergeant (SSgt), what action must be taken on his or her primary Air Force specially code (AFSC) skill level?

a. None, remain as 9-skill-level.

b. Downgrade to 7-skill level.

c. Downgrade to 5-skill level.

d. Withdrawn.

11. (403) Reporting identifiers (RI) are important to the personnel employment element because they identify

a. positions only.

b. personnel only.

c. conditions for which specific job descriptions are practical.

d. positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system.

12. (403) What type of duty does reporting identifiers (RI) 9T000 indicate?

a. An Airman in basic military training.

b. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) of officers entering primary-basic pilot training.

c. An officer in the grade brigadier general or higher.

d. AFSC of a prisoner in confinement who has not been dropped from rolls.

13. (403 Special duty identifiers (SDI) identify man power positions and individuals performing duties

a. Related to any specific career field.

b. Unrelated to any specific career field.

c. Which specific job descriptions are not practical, such as patient.

d. Which special experience and training are required and coded in three characters.

14. (403) How are special duty identifiers (SDI) designated in the individual’s personnel records?

a. Awarded specialties.

b. Additional specialties.

c. Designated specialties.

d. Second or tertiary PDS codes.

15. (403) What action agency periodically reviews special experience identifiers (SEI) to determine validity and usefulness?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).

b. Military Personnel Element (MPE).

c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

d. Personnel Employment Element (PEE).

16. (403) In concert with manpower management officials, who reviews manpower authorizations to determine if positions are coded with appropriate special experience identifiers (SEI) or if one is required?

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers.

b. Commanders and supervisors.

c. AFPC.

d. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) functional managers.

17. (404) How often does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) update the retraining advisory?

a. Monthly.

b. Weekly.

c. Annually.

d. Continuously.

18. (404) In which of the following databases is the retraining advisory located?

a. Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

b. Assignment Management System (AMS).

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

d. Air Force Training Management System (AFTMS).

19. (404) How many months of retainability must a first-term Airman (FTA) have or be able to obtain if his or her Career Airmen Reenlistment Reservation System (CAREERS) retraining is approved?

a. 23 months beyond the normal expiration term of service (ETS).

b. 14 months beyond the normal ETS.

c. 12 months beyond the class graduation date.

d. 6 months beyond the class graduation date.

20. (404) Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retraining?

a. Normal security clearance investigation.

b. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 3.

c. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 2.

d. Participating in phase II of the weight and body fat management program.

21. (404) Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application, must the personnel employment element (PEE) process the application?

a. 5 calendar days.

b. 5 working days.

c. 3 calendar days.

d. 3 working days.

22. (404) When are retraining applications submitted using supplemental messages?

a. When requesting a waiver.

b. When no special processing is required.

c. When processing a disqualified Airman case.

d. When the requested Air Force specialty code (AFSC) requires major command (MAJCOM) review.

23. (405) Why must an individual’s behavior be constantly monitored even after the individual has been judged reliable?

a. For evidence of negligence or delinquency in duty performance.

b. To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.

c. For evidence of poor attitude, lack of motivation toward duties, financial irresponsibility.

d. To measure present performance and behavior against past performance and look for changes in behavior.

24. (405) What type of certification states that a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring personnel reliability program (PRP) duties?

a. Administrative.

b. Informal.

c. Interim.

d. Formal.

25. (405) Which of the following is not required for all personnel reliability program (PRP) certifications?

a. An interview.

b. An S-4 physical profile.

c. A current security investigation.

d. An evaluation of an individual’s reliability through the use of written records.

26. (405) Interim certification is authorized for individual in a critical position for up to

a. 90 days and a controlled position for up to 120 days.

b. 120 days and a controlled position for up to 90 days.

c. 150 days and a controlled position for up to 120 days.

d. 180 days and a controlled position for up to 90 days.