Term
(001) Which of these criteria does not meet the requirements for 5-level upgrade? |
|
Definition
Twelve months time in service (TIS) |
|
|
Term
(001) You are not eligible to begin 7-level upgrade training until you have... |
|
Definition
Been selected for promotion to E-5, staff sargeant |
|
|
Term
(002) Who is directly responsible for the work done by shop personnel? |
|
Definition
Aircrew flight equipment (AFE) craftsman/supervisor. |
|
|
Term
(002) Who determines facility, equipment, supply, and storage requirements for aircrew flight equipment (AFE) units? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(003) What Air Force instruction (AFI) lists your personal responsibilities to ensure that your work place is as safe as possible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(003) When handling explosives, what is the minimum number of ABC fire extinguishers that must be readily available |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(003) All protective equiptment must meet the standards listed by... |
|
Definition
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) or American National Standards Institute (ANSI) |
|
|
Term
(004) A ground accident occurrence is defined as being on... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) What is the maximum pounds per square inch (psi) you can use for cleaning workbenches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) What color are carbon dioxide cylinders, other than the 12- to 28-gram size? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) How is a jet engine plane of rotation usually indicated on an aircraft fuselage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) to identify groud safety pins, you must look for the attached... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) Which item may be a cause of foreign object damage (FOD)? |
|
Definition
Dirt
Tools
Lead Seals
All of the above
|
|
|
Term
(005) For cleaning purposes, you should never use compressed air greater than what number of pounds per square inch (psi)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(006) What does fire symbol three (3) indicate?
|
|
Definition
Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a mass fire.
|
|
|
Term
(006) What does fire symbol four (4) indicate?
|
|
Definition
Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a moderate fire.
|
|
|
Term
(006) The colors of a radiation placard are
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(007) What information does an explosive facility license contain?
|
|
Definition
Location and quantities of explosives authorized.
|
|
|
Term
(008) What equipment can you as an aircrew flight equipment journeyman operate?
|
|
Definition
Only items you are trained and authorized to use.
|
|
|
Term
(008) What can you do to ensure maximum benefits from tools and reduce the chances of serious injury?
|
|
Definition
Observe all safety guidelines.
|
|
|
Term
(009) Using damaged tools is not a correct tool habit, why?
|
|
Definition
Damaged tools can damage the item you are working on.
|
|
|
Term
(009) Which piece of safety equipment is used to limit damage from falling objects?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) What are the different types of screwdrivers normally used in an aircrew flight equipment shop?
|
|
Definition
Common, cross-tip, cross-point, offset, jeweler’s, and ratchet.
|
|
|
Term
(010) You can identify the Phillips screwdriver by its
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) When using a screwdriver, how can you prevent damage to the screw slot and surface of the screw head?
|
|
Definition
Maintain downward pressure on the screwdriver.
|
|
|
Term
(010) What two wrenches have been combined to make up a combination wrench?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) You identify socket sets by their
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) What is one rule to follow when using an adjustable wrench to remove a nut?
|
|
Definition
Ensure a tight fit on the nut.
|
|
|
Term
(010) A drift punch is used to
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) What are the two types of woodworking chisels?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) How do you remove a hollow punch from a lead block?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) How do you hand shears to another person?
|
|
Definition
Closed and offer the handle.
|
|
|
Term
(011) What type of stone should be used to sharpen shears?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) If a power tape is allowed to snap back into itself, the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) If a long measuring tape is allowed to sag, it
|
|
Definition
can increase the measurement.
|
|
|
Term
(011) What is the purpose of an awl?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) What type of hand needle is best suited for installing hidden stitches?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) The parachute packing paddle (fid) can be made out of any suitable, strong, and pliable material execept
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) What can result if you do not use stencil paper in the stencil machine?
|
|
Definition
The dies and punches can be dull.
|
|
|
Term
(011) Why are shot bags brightly colored?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) What type of grommet is used for heavy-duty applications?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) What is the advantage of the portable press?
|
|
Definition
The ability to be used in tight places.
|
|
|
Term
(011) Which snap fastener installation press is to be used as a last resort?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) When using an adjustable snap fastener press, what distance required between the chuck and die in the press?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(012) Which format would normally indicate a calibration due date of 8 January 2009 on an inspection label for a test measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) item?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(013) After using torque devices, what must you do with the device?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(013) What tester tests Combined Advanced Technology Enhanced Design “G” Ensemble (COMBAT EDGE) equipment but requires a compressed air or oxygen cylinder?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(013) Which tester(s) uses a 9V battery as a power source?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(014) Which type of technical order (TO) do you use to find the status of all TOs within a specific TO category?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(014) Which technical order is referred to as the index of indexes?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(015) While they may be printed in parts, job guides (JG) provide
|
|
Definition
detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.
|
|
|
Term
(015) Technical order (TO) numbers always begin with the TO
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(016) Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) must be accomplished within a maximum of how many days?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(017) What type of technical orders (TO) establish policies and are not issued against specific military systems?
|
|
Definition
Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO).
|
|
|
Term
(017) Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO) differ from TOs dealing with specific equipment because they
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(018) Which letter designation in the technical order (TO) number designates fighter aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(018) The first part of a technical order (TO) numbering system identifies the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) Which technical orders (TOs) would be found in a TO binder with a binder label reading
14P4–1–151 thru 15X5–4–1–101?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) Changed pages of technical order (TO) page supplements (TOPS) are filed facing the
|
|
Definition
page containing outdated instructions.
|
|
|
Term
(020) If you discover a deficiency in a technical order (TO), how do you correct the problem?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(020) Within how many calendar days after your submittal of a routine report must replies be sent?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(021) What element of supply would you contact if you wanted to obtain steel-toed boots?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(021) What element of supply would you contact to turn in equipment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(021) What element of supply is the first point in the process when ordering supplies?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(022) The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government
property caused by misuse or negligence is known as what type of liability?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(022) The term “custodian” as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(022) If property is not serviceable, it is turned in and transferred to the
|
|
Definition
Receipt in-place location (RIPL).
|
|
|
Term
(023) The last nine digits of a national stock number (NSN) is known as the
|
|
Definition
National item identification number.
|
|
|
Term
(024) An example of an expendable supply item would be a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(024) What form does equipment custodians use to request turn-in of equipment on the custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA?CRL)?
|
|
Definition
AF Form 601 or AF Form 2005.
|
|
|
Term
(025) Which condition tag do you use to identify a serviceable survival kit?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(025) An HGU–55/P helmet was brought to your shop for repair; however, not all of the parts
have been received from supply to make the necessary repairs. What condition tag do you attach to the helmet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(026) Which supply control document lists the status of accountable and controlled assets?
|
|
Definition
Due-In From Maintenance Listing.
|
|
|
Term
(026) What form do you use to temporary issue equipment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(027) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) requires your shop to have a budget?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(027) By having a detailed budget, your shop is
|
|
Definition
able to justify everything you need to complete your mission.
|
|
|
Term
(027) We write our budgets for how many fiscal years in advance?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(028) The expendability, recoverability, reparability cost (ERRC) designator code that identifies due-in from maintenance (DIFM) items is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) How many ounces does the HGU55/P lightweight helmet shell reduce the total weight of the helmet compared to the standard HGU55/P helmet shell?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) How many inch-pounds of torque, if any, do you apply to the HGU55 helmet integrated cin and nape strap (ICNS) screws?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Which lightweight visor assembly used on the HGU–55 series helmet has a viscosity of 15 to
25 percent color shade?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) What is used to clean the lightweight visor lens on the HGU–55/P helmet?
|
|
Definition
Household detergent and water.
|
|
|
Term
(202) One purpose of the AFTO Form 334, Helmet and Oxygen Mask/Connector Inspection Data,
is to
|
|
Definition
record modifications to a helmet.
|
|
|
Term
(203) What is the approximate measurement, in inches, from the center eye position to the helmet
edge roll when fitting the HGU–55 series helmet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) What knot is used to tie off the standard nape strap after a proper fit is achieved on the HGU 55/P helmet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) How are the extra small (XS) and extra-extra small (XXS) HGU–56/P helmet sizes obtained?
|
|
Definition
Use a thicker energy absorbing liner (EAL).
|
|
|
Term
(204) The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU–56/P helmet by using a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Where is the connector located that is used to attach the communication earplugs (CEP) to
the HGU–56/P helmet shell?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) Which component is mounted to the structure of the helmet display unit (HDU) of the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) that provides an electrical signal representative of the pilot’s head position?
|
|
Definition
Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).
|
|
|
Term
(205) What is the maximum amount, in inches, the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System
(JHMCS) visor should be trimmed at one time?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) What component of the EEU–2/P goggles’ internal lens holder assembly is replaceable?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) When referring to night vision goggles (NVG), the image produced by the image intensifier tube (ITT) is focused onto the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) The AN/AVS–9 (V) night vision goggles (NVG) consist of how major component(s)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What is the maximum voltage direct current (VDC) the power supply output can be adjusted to on the AN/AVS-9(V) night vision goggles?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Which adjustment control on the AN/AVS–9(V) binocular assembly is used to adjust aircrew’s the line of sight?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) How many pounds per square inch (psi) of nitrogen do you apply to the goggle monocular
during a leak test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Which solution is used to clean night vision goggle lens?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What wattage light bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for the AN/AVS–10(V) panoramic night
vision goggles (PNVG)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What is the total weight, in grams, of the AN/AVS–10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles
(PNVG)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) Aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices are designed to protect against
|
|
Definition
specific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths.
|
|
|
Term
(208) Where are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) assets stored?
|
|
Definition
A locked storage container.
|
|
|
Term
(208) How often are the aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) glasses inspected after receipt?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) How are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices fitted on the aircrew member?
|
|
Definition
As close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.
|
|
|
Term
(209) What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is
|
|
Definition
greater near the surface of the earth.
|
|
|
Term
(210) What is the maximum pounds per square inch (PSI) charge of a low-pressure oxygen storage cylinder?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) The continuous-flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) How many ways are there to provide sufficient pressure in the lungs to force oxygen into the blood?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) What type manifold block is the CRU–60/P oxygen connector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Where does disconnection from the aircraft oxygen supply hose connector take place on the
CRU–60/P connector during ejection or emergency egress from the aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) A qualified specialist must inspect the CRU–60P connector every how many days?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) What is the maximum length, in fractions of an inch, that the excess restraint cord can be after being trimmed when it is replaced in the CRU–60/P connector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) How many pounds should the friction disconnect force be when checking the CRU–60P
oxygen regulator to mask connection?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) What is the maximum standard cubic centimeters per minute (SCCM) leakage rate allowed during the LOW RANGE leakage test of the CRU60/P connector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) How many liters of aviator oxygen are contained in the single oxygen cylinder within the
emergency oxygen passenger system (EPOS)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) The purpose of the breathing valves located in the valve body of the passenger oxygen mask
is to
|
|
Definition
provide an anchor for the head strap.
|
|
|
Term
(214) What is the maximum number of days between inspection intervals for passenger oxygen masks that are used in a non-fixed environment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU–12/P oxygen mask with
|
|
Definition
capped T-nuts and a self-locking screws.
|
|
|
Term
(215) In inches, how long is the MBU–12/P oxygen mask hose?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) What type of cord is used to tack down the buckles on the MBU–12/P straps and buckle
assembly to prevent movement?
|
|
Definition
Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed.
|
|
|
Term
(216) What prevents oxygen from being released accidentally from the emergency oxygen
assembly?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) The Scott 358 series folding quick-don mask assembly is secured to the wearer’s face with
|
|
Definition
spring-loaded telescopic mounts on a suspension assembly.
|
|
|
Term
(218) What are the three types of acceleration an aircraft can encounter?
|
|
Definition
Linear, angular, or centripetal.
|
|
|
Term
(218) At what negative gravity forces is there a danger of brain hemorrhage and death?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) What type of gravity forces act upon the body from head to foot?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) What aircraft maneuvers cause positive gravity forces?
|
|
Definition
Pullout maneuvers, tight turns, and upward ejection.
|
|
|
Term
(219) The CSU–13 B/P anti-gravity garment bladder casings are constructed of
|
|
Definition
polyurethane-coated taffeta cloth.
|
|
|
Term
(219) When the CSU–13B/P anti-gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (PSI), the bladders automatically bleed down to
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) What measurements from the aircrew members are needed to properly size their CSU–13 series anti-gravity suit?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) If the individual being fitted for a gravity suit is borderline between sizes, what action is
taken?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(221) In the event of a slide fastener failure, the secondary restraint device on the CSU 23/P
antigravity suit is designed to
|
|
Definition
prevent the bladder from interfering with the cockpit operations.
|
|
|
Term
(221) Where is the air hose located on the CSU–23/P antigravity suit that facilitates connecting to
the anti-gravity valve on the F–22 aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(222) Why must the HGU–55 series helmet be modified when it is used with COMBAT EDGE
equipment?
|
|
Definition
To provide for automatic mask tensioning.
|
|
|
Term
(222) Which CRU regulated connector do you perform a flow test and an altitude pressure
breathing test on?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(222) In feet, what is the maximum altitude that the CRU122/P regulated integrated terminal block (ITB) can be used?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(223) Approximately how far above the chin strap do you position the lower front rivet of the bayonet receiver for it to be properly located on the HGU55P helmet?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(223) What is the maximum amount you can trim the MBU–20 series mask face piece for confort?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(223) During a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check, what is the maximum number of breaths an aircrew member may take at pressures below 34 inches of water gauge (in. Wg)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(223) How many inches of water gauge (in. Wg) should the OUTPUT PRESSURE gauge read
during a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(224) How many inches should the 100 pound (lb) parachute cord be when being replaced inside
the integrated terminal block (ITB) connector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(224) How many seconds minimum should the inhalation and exhalation valves be swished in an alcohol solution when cleaning them?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(224) What torque is required on the screws when installing a microphone into the MBU20/P mask?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) What does an aircrew member’s survival time depend on in water temperatures above 70 degrees Fahrenheit?
|
|
Definition
Degree of immersion, fatigue factor, and swimming ability.
|
|
|
Term
(225) Inspect the CWU–16/P anti-exposure coverall prior to issue and every how many days?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) What is the longest linear (straight) tear that can be repaired on the CWU–16/P antiexposure coverall?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) Why do the tops of the CWU–67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to CWU–74/P anti-exposure suit?
|
|
Definition
Reduce bulk and restriction.
|
|
|
Term
(225) An aircrew flight equipment journeyman performs a periodic inspection on the CWU–74/P
anti-exposure suit every how many days?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) How many sizes do the CWU86/P and CWU87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) In years, what is the service life of the CWU86/P and CWU87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(225) What length must the damage be less than in order to repair the neoprene layer of a wrist seal of the CWU86/P and CWU87/P coveralls?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many sizes does the MBU19/P mask–hood assembly come in?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(226) How many volts direct current (VDC) is required to operate the CQU–7/P blower assembly
when it is connected to an aircraft power supply?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(226) What position on the MXU835/P communication subsystem is listen only?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(226) How many modes of operation does the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP)
system have?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(226) A CQU–7/P blower failure is indicated to the wearer by
|
|
Definition
the loss of lens de-mist and increased breathing resistance.
|
|
|
Term
(227) How often do you perform operational checks on the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection
(AERP) ensemble that are fitted for contingency operations?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) What is the maximum number of times you can launder the CWU66/P aircrew chemical ensemble (ACE)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) What is the minimum hours of cure time for the adhesive when replacing the plenum tubes during repair of the MBU19/P mask?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) By what part of an inch must the edges overlap when repairing tears on the CWU-66/P-77/P aircrewchemical ensemble (ACE)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) What torque is required when installing the bayonet and strap assembly to the MBU19/P mask?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) What is the required torque when installing the hose barb of the drinking tube assembly to the pass-through on the MBU-19/P mask?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(227) How many hours must be allowed for the silastic adhesive to cure when you replace the
microphone gasket on Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) equipment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(228) How should the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) tear-away pull knobs be
positioned during wear?
|
|
Definition
Under the lower harness straps.
|
|
|
Term
(228) When fitting the MBU–19/P aircrew chemical ensemble to a non-helmeted system the face piece should be trimmed no more than what fraction of an inch during the first cut?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(228) What is the maximum length, in inches, the MBU19/P mask adjustment strap can be after a proper fit is made?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(228) What is the length of the CWU66/P if a male is over 6 feet, 1-inch tall?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(229) The purpose of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is to provide
|
|
Definition
detection, contamination control, and processing provisions for aircrews
|
|
|
Term
(229) When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), once the consistent wind
direction is determined, the processing direction is established at a
|
|
Definition
45 to 60 degree deviation (angle) towards the wind direction.
|
|
|
Term
(229) Who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color when setting up an
aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(229) What item is not used for decontamination of equipment in the field?
|
|
Definition
A solution of a mild detergent and water.
|
|
|
Term
(229) A minimum of how many trained technicians are required to run standard operations at an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(230) As an Aircrew Flight Equipment Journeyman, what is your first responsibility upon arrival of aircrew members from ground operations when chemical or biological contamination is suspected?
|
|
Definition
Apply all available decontamination methods to detect contaminates of personnel and assets.
|
|
|
Term
(230) Up to how many attendants may be required to process one aircrew member in Area 1
of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(230) What area of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is the boot and protective over garment removal phase?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(231) How many main components does the counter-radiological warfare (C-RW) concept of
operations consist of?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(231) What is the minimum hours following an event in which installations will receive specialized federal assets?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) The ML–4 survival kit is attached to the parachute harness by
|
|
Definition
one ejector snap assembly and one non-ejector snap.
|
|
|
Term
(401) The advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit must not be packed to weigh less than
|
|
Definition
10 or more than 40 pounds
|
|
|
Term
(401) What action may be taken if an advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit has a hole in the container assembly flaps?
|
|
Definition
Darn or patch with a single, outside patch.
|
|
|
Term
(402) When using a soft-type kit, what is the minimum clearance required on each side of an
ejection seat survival kit between the kit and the seat with an aircrew sitting on it?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) Which aircraft maintenance symbol is used when the aircraft condition is unsatisfactory but
does not warrant grounding of the aircraft or discontinuing use of the equipment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) What action is required to indicate that an individual has completed the required maintenance on an aircraft or related equipment?
|
|
Definition
A black last-name initial entered over the symbol.
|
|
|
Term
(403) How many sizes are available for the air ace survival vest?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) The AIRSAVE vest is constructed with fire-retardant coated
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) The AIRSAVE is intended to be worn the over top of the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) How often do you perform a periodic inspection to an in-service vest?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) What is the maximum number of times that an aircrew body armor (ABA) cover should be
washed?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) What is the maximum temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (F), the water must be when
washing the aircrew body armor (ABA) cover?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) On the lensatic compass, each click on the bezel ring represents
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) One way of identifying the night end of the MK–13 MOD 0 distress signal in total darkness
and without the aid of artificial light is by the
|
|
Definition
ring of embossed projections below the closure.
|
|
|
Term
(408) How often must you perform a periodic inspection on one-man life rafts?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) What is the periodic inspection interval for the 46-man life raft?
|
|
Definition
Every three years + 10 days.
|
|
|
Term
(408) During a periodic inspection of life preservers, what percentage of the set (lot) is
functionally tested?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) Which form is yellow and contains an inventory list for accessory kits?
|
|
Definition
AFTO Form 337, Life Raft Container Inspection Record.
|
|
|
Term
(409) One purpose of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 46 is to
|
|
Definition
document preservers propositioned on an aircraft.
|
|
|
Term
(410) What color vacuum hose do you use to help reduce tripping hazards?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(411) What equipment item is not used to indicate air pressure?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(412) What is the dial push/pull gauge designed to measure?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(413) What is the correct setting for the aft poise block when weighing an LPU–10/P carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(413) On a digital scale, what key switches the display from kilograms to decimal pounds?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) The LPU–10/P uses a FLU–1/P that incorporates a cell-venting capability which eliminates the need for a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) What color are the bladders on the LPU–38/P life preserver?
|
|
Definition
Yellow with a black cover.
|
|
|
Term
(415) During which inspection procedure do you not open the life preserver?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) What type of inspection do you perform on flotation equipment when the equipment status
is questionable?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) How many LPU–10/P life preservers out of 100 will require a functional test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) What is the minimum allowable corrected pounds per square inch (psi) pressure during the 6 hour leak test of the LPU-10/P?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(417) What is the acceptable direct current voltage (VDC) reading during the FLU–9 B/P battery test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the initial pounds per square inch (psi) pressure
must you inflate the bladder to is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the minimum pounds per square inch (psi) pressure allowed on the bladders to pass the test after at least one hour is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(418) What item do you center on top of the last fold after completion of the folding procedure on
the LPU–10/P cell?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container using the top side folding procedure, the top should form a fold approximately how many inches wide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container, what is the required inch pounds (lbs.) torque value
on the exterior cover screws?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(420) When fitting the LPU–10/P life preserver to a crewmember, where are the containers
placed?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(420) How is the tacking of excess straps on the LPU–38/P secured?
|
|
Definition
Surgeon’s knot, followed by a locking knot.
|
|
|
Term
(421) How many primary inflators are on an A–A–50652 life preserver?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(421) What is the length of the nylon lanyard that is attached to the D-ring or waist strap on an
adult/child preserver?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(422) Which item is needed to remove air from the A–A–50652 life preserver?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(422) If you check the sea-dye marker and the dye has hardened,
|
|
Definition
it will still work, but will take longer to dissolve.
|
|
|
Term
(422) During inspection of the water activated light, check the battery case for cracks and
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(422) What setting should a multi-meter be adjusted to when checking a water-activated light
battery?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(423) What type of gas cylinder is used to inflate the A–A–50652 life preserver?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(423) When packing the A–A–50652 life preserver, where do you position the inflators?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(424) Sealed and safety tied portions of the life preservers should not be opened for the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(425) A life preserver is considered beyond repair when which condition is present?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(426) What is the required size of the cell protector for the LPU–10/P?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(426) What length of pile tape is required for the hook and pile cell connector on an LPU–10/P?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(427) The purpose of the ballast bags on the LRU–16/P one-man life raft is to
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(427) How is the floor inflated on the LRU–16/P raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(427) How is the oral inflation tube on LRU–16/P flotation tube identified?
|
|
Definition
The tube is either solid red or it has red tape wrapped around it.
|
|
|
Term
(427) The purpose of the spray shield on an LRU–16/P life raft is to
|
|
Definition
protect the individual from rain.
|
|
|
Term
(428) What is the required torque value in inch pounds (in-lbs) for securing the carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder to an LRU-16/P life raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(428) When an LRU–16/P life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time that the raft
should inflate to its designed shape and size?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(428) When performing an LRU–16/P buoyancy tube twist check, what size blocks are used and
where are they positioned?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(429) When inflating a spray shield on a life raft, what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi)
must you ensure the air source does not exceed?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(429) What is the minimum and maximum time an inflated LRU–16/P life raft can sit during a
leakage test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(429) When figuring corrected pressure, which number is added or subtracted to the final pressure reading for each 1°F change in temperature?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(429) On a one-man raft, what size lettering should be marked on the raft to annotate the date
inspected?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(430) The purpose of securing the sea anchor on a one-man raft is to
|
|
Definition
prevent the bow from raising during boarding.
|
|
|
Term
(430) What is the purpose of the adapter clip used with the LRU–16/P raft?
|
|
Definition
Prevents inadvertent release of the swag ball.
|
|
|
Term
(431) The purpose of the diffuser on a multi-place life raft is to
|
|
Definition
break up the direct blast of carbon dioxide (CO2).
|
|
|
Term
(432) What is used to inflate the 25-man life raft?
|
|
Definition
Compressed air augmented by ambient air.
|
|
|
Term
(432) When fully configured, the 46-man life raft weighs approximately
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(433) When an F–2B life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time in which the raft
should inflate to its designed shape?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(433) One hour after completing the functional test, what will be the compartment differential
pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the F–2B life raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(434) What is the required torque range in inch pounds (in-lbs) for installing the carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder to the F-2B life raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(434) What is the last thing you must do prior to folding the F–2B life raft?
|
|
Definition
Remove the equalizer tube clamp.
|
|
|
Term
(435) What type of knot do we use to attach the actuation line to the actuation cable on the F–2B
cylinder?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(435) What type of cord do you use to lace the side flaps on the F–2B wing well container?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(436) What is the shape of the 22D23585 life raft when fully inflated?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(436) The compressed air cylinder on the 25-man life raft must receive a hydrostatic test every
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(437) Where do you position the jet pumps when packing the 25-man life raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(438) To what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the 46-man life raft inflated during a
leakage test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(438) How long does the 46-man life raft undergo a leakage test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(439) Before you pack the 46-man life raft, what is the maximum overall width of the folded raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(440) What is the maximum number of patches that can be applied to the flotation tube of a
single-place life raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(440) What amount must the patch overlap the damaged area when applying a patch to any life
raft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(441) When you manufacture an inspection data pocket for a life raft carrying case, what size
material must be cut and where is the grommet positioned?
|
|
Definition
4 by 5 inches; centered on the 4 inch side.
|
|
|
Term
(442) The C–5 type escape slide is packed into a
|
|
Definition
fiberglass breakaway case.
|
|
|
Term
(443) How many jet pumps are on a KC–135 type escape slide?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(443) What is the maximum time it should take for the KC–135 escape slide to inflate to its designed shape?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(443) The KC–135 type escape slide is packed into
|
|
Definition
an envelope type container.
|
|
|
Term
(444) The C–5 escape slide requires a periodic inspection every
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(445) The maximum number of non-parallel lamps that can be allowed to be inoperative on the C–5 escape slide is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(446) When folding and packing the C–5 escape slide, how must you rotate the right side jet
pumps?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(447) What size loop do you form when securing the KC–135 slide tie patches?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(447) You fold the KC–135 escape slide to achieve an overall width of
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(447) During the packing process of a KC–135 slide, when are you required to remove the
vacuum adapter?
|
|
Definition
After inserting the slide into the container.
|
|
|
Term
(448) What is the recommended shape of a C–5 escape slide repair patch?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(449) KC–135 cylinders are condemned if 4,380 pressurizations have been met or after how many
years from the date of the first test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(449) What is the main difference between the C–5 and the KC–135 cylinder inspections?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(450) The AN/PRC–112B1 radio acts as a transponder supplying
|
|
Definition
bearing and distance ranging pulses and personnel ID information.
|
|
|
Term
(450) What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC–112 series radio contain?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(451) The ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications (SATCOM) mode supports two way secure messaging/geoposition (location identifier) between the AN/GRC–242 Radio Set Base Station, and the AN/PRQ–7 Radio Set (HHR) through a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(452) How many trailing antenna(s) is the AN/URT- 44 PLB equipped with?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(452) On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT–44 provide homing signals?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(453) What is the flash rate for the MS–2000M strobe light?
|
|
Definition
50 ± 10 flashes per minute.
|
|
|
Term
(601) The various styles of personnel parachutes are
|
|
Definition
seat, chest, back, and recovery.
|
|
|
Term
(601) The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II system can operate at is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(602) What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?
|
|
Definition
Canopy, pack and harness, automatic ripcord release. |
|
|
Term
What are the minor components that make up the parachute assembly of the recovery parachute components?
|
|
Definition
Pilot parachute, bridle line, type of ripcord assembly.
|
|
|
Term
(602) The pilot parachute C–9 canopy’s characteristics are best described as a
|
|
Definition
multicolored 28-feet diameter, flat circular canopy.
|
|
|
Term
(602) What type of C–9 canopy quick release is used on back automatic parachutes?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(603) What malfunction on the personnel parachute is caused by excessive opening forces?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(604) What is the ideal temperature and relative humidity for working with parachutes?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(604) Why is controlling the relative humidity and temperature important in a parachute shop?
|
|
Definition
Prevents static electricity in the canopy cloth.
|
|
|
Term
(605) What type of personnel protective equipment are you not required to wear when hoisting personnal parachutes in the drying tower?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(605) What percentage range of the manufacturer’s rated load do you apply to a hoist during a load test?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(606) Who is responsible for ensuring all parachutes on the aircraft have been inspected prior to flight?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(606) An aircrew flight equipment specialist determines if the aneroid of the Scot release is
leaking if the
|
|
Definition
aneroid edge is no longer visible.
|
|
|
Term
(606) When performing a routine inspection on personnel parachutes, the ejector snaps
|
|
Definition
must release at 7 ± 2 pounds.
|
|
|
Term
(607) Within how many hours may parachute components be used again if they are completely
rinsed after being immersed in salt water?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(607) Which of the following statements is true about cleaning deceleration parachutes?
|
|
Definition
They may need to soak longer in fresh running water.
|
|
|
Term
(608) How should you prepare serviceable canopies for return to the base supply system?
|
|
Definition
Loosely folded and placed into a polyethylene bag.
|
|
|
Term
(609) Which form is initiated to reflect the date the assembly was removed from service when a
personnel parachute is prepared for shipping?
|
|
Definition
AFTO Form 392, Parachute Repack, Inspection and Component Record.
|
|
|
Term
(609) How many and where are DD Forms 1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel, attached to a
serviceable parachute assembly packaged for shipping?
|
|
Definition
Two, attach one to the parachute and the other to the shipping container.
|
|
|
Term
(610) The leg straps on a Class III parachute torso harness
|
|
Definition
prevents falling downward out of the sling.
|
|
|
Term
(610) What is the purpose of the torso harness canopy release?
|
|
Definition
Allows jettisoning of the parachute canopy.
|
|
|
Term
(611) What position is a crewmember in when you are fitting a torso harness?
|
|
Definition
Standing and leaning forward.
|
|
|
Term
(611) Where and how should you position the chest strap when fitting the torso harness on a
crewmember?
|
|
Definition
10 to 12 inches below the chin and tighten.
|
|
|
Term
(612) During a routine inspection of torso harnesses, remove surface dirt and contaminants with
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(613) The Frost canopy releases are actuated by
|
|
Definition
squeezing the lever and then sliding toward each other.
|
|
|
Term
(613) While in Training mode, the Cybernetic Parachute Release System (CYPRES) updates the
ground pressure value every
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(614) What could you use to hold Scot release cartridges or boosters on a table?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(615) What color streamer is attached to the back-automatic parachute with a .25-second time
delay cartridge?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(615) A red streamer installed on a back-style parachute means it
|
|
Definition
has a one second automatic ripcord release time-delay device.
|
|
|
Term
(616) What type pads are installed on the main body of the Scot automatic ripcord release to
cushion sharp blows?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) Which components make-up the Scot automatic ripcord release cartridge housing?
|
|
Definition
Housing, snap ring, and anvil assembly.
|
|
|
Term
(617) When performing the aneroid check on the Scot automatic ripcord release, the automatic
parachute release tester automatically arms the release at a simulated altitude of
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(617) What designated-size rod would you use to remove the cartridge and booster from the
cartridge housing on the Scot automatic ripcord release?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(617) When testing the Scot automatic ripcord release, be sure the serviceable range is between
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(618) The Scot automatic ripcord release aneroid is leaking or defective if the edge is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(618) How much movement (rotation) is allowed in the power cable when inspecting the Scot
automatic ripcord release?
|
|
Definition
None, no movement is allowed.
|
|
|
Term
(619) What torque value is applied to the power cable nut and outer housing when you assemble
the Scot automatic ripcord release?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(619) When installing the Scot automatic ripcord release power cable, insert the top ripcord pin
into the
|
|
Definition
beveled side of the power cable eye.
|
|
|
Term
(620) Which type stitch would you use to close the end of the SRU–16/P minimum survival kit?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) How many minutes, approximately, of emergency oxygen does the MD–1 emergency
oxygen cylinder furnish?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) How do you fold the nylon binding tape of the harness when inspecting the CRU–60
mounting bracket?
|
|
Definition
Against the harness webbing edge of the right vertical strap.
|
|
|
Term
(620) During inspection, what pressure reading should you ensure is on the pressure gauge of the
MD–1 emergency oxygen cylinder?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) What type of thread is used to attach the personnel lowering device hardware pocket to the
main lift web?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) How many inches of plastic tubing is installed over the hook blade knife of the pocket
assembly?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) What type of knot is used to secure the MD–1 emergency oxygen cylinder pocket when you
are installing it?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(620) What is used to install the ACR/MS–2000M survival light pocket to the pack and harness
assembly?
|
|
Definition
Size “E” nylon thread, 7–11 stitches per inch, two rows.
|
|
|
Term
(620) Identify the extraction force required to remove the cable from the automatic survival kit
actuator upper disconnect assembly.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(621) Which back automatic parachute model is used for premeditated jumps?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(622) What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the pack, during deployment, until three quarters of the canopy has deployed?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(622) One purpose of the four-line jettison system on the automatic back parachute is to
|
|
Definition
reduce canopy oscillation.
|
|
|
Term
(623) What two suspension lines are inspected to ensure the 4-line jettison release lanyards are
securely attached?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(623) What torque value do you apply to lock the serrated plates in place on the automatic back
parachute connector links?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(624) How many inches of unstowed suspension lines should remain on the automatic back
parachute?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(624) Prior to installing the quarter deployment bag into the pack of the automatic back parachute flip it
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(624) Reduce the numbers two and three “U” folds, when stowing the quarter deployment bag and canopy, on the automatic back parachute by approximately
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(624) What is the maximum thickness of a packed automatic back parachute?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(625) What size and shape is marked on the pack material when you are reinforcing a grommet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(625) How much stitch overlap is required when you repair original stitching on personnel
parachute canopies?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(626) The immediate cause of the canopy to extract from the outer deployment bag to full
deployment is the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(627) What is the forward speed (miles per hour) range of the ram air canopy on the basic MC–4/MC–5 Ram Air Parachute system?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(627) What is the loop attached to on the center of the suspension lines slider assembly?
|
|
Definition
Drogue/slider control line.
|
|
|
Term
(628) What information is needed for the advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II recovery system to determine its mode of operation?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(628) Which statement best describes Mode 1 of the ACES II ejection system?
|
|
Definition
Low-speed, low-altitude ejection.
|
|
|
Term
(629) What is used to align the ACES II recovery parachute reefing line cutters?
|
|
Definition
Two, 2 3/4-inch phenolic stays.
|
|
|
Term
(629) What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the ACES II parachute?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(629) The purpose of the mortar assembly on the ACES II parachute is to
|
|
Definition
pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat.
|
|
|
Term
(630) What is the inspection cycle for ACES II parachutes installed in B–1B aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(630) What would you use to clean contaminates found inside the pitot tubes on the ACES II
container?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(631) Do not twist the reefing line cutter lanyards around the mortar tube on the ACES II more than
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(631) How many inches of suspension lines do you leave unstowed on the ACES II recovery
parachute?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(632) What is the maximum size limitation for applying a double patch to the ACES II recovery canopy?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(632) When replacing the Velcro tape on the ACES II recovery parachute container, before applying the second coat of cement, you must wait for
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(633) How many pounds do the drogue riser assembly on the ACES II weigh?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(634) What do you inspect for on the hasp rod and retaining latch during the ACES II drogue
parachute compartment inspection?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(635) When preparing the ACES II drogue parachute for packing, tape the riser legs using
|
|
Definition
2 wraps of 1-inch pressure sensitive tape.
|
|
|
Term
(635) What torque value do you use when installing the nut of the bolt that passes through the ACES II drogue gun slug?
|
|
Definition
None, but the dome must show.
|
|
|
Term
(636) What size thread is used to replace a suspension line on the ACES II drogue canopy?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(637) You determine the material’s bias by a diagonal line that is at a
|
|
Definition
45-degree angle to the selvage edge.
|
|
|
Term
(638) What is a constructional feature of nylon?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(639) The tensile strength of stored synthetic material begins to be affected if it is exposed to incandescent light for periods longer than
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(640) Which letter do you form with the needle thread when threading the tension and thread
controller assemblies on the Consew 206RB sewing machine?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(641) The primary purpose of installing a finger guard on a sewing machine is to
|
|
Definition
keep the operator’s fingers away from the needle area and presser feet.
|
|
|
Term
(642) When performing a preventive maintenance inspection on a sewing machine, you check all of the following except
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(642) What should you use to dissolve built up grime on a sewing machine?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(643) To increase tension on the needle thread of the Consew 206RB sewing machine, you will turn the
|
|
Definition
thread controller stud thumbnut to the right.
|
|
|
Term
(644) While sewing very thick material your needle starts bending and finally breaks. To correct this problem you must install a
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(645) What component on the Consew 206RB sewing machine re-engages the safety clutch?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(646) What is the maximum size lift of the alternating presser feet on the Consew 199–2A zigzag sewing machine?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(646) What is the minimum number of stitches per inch (SPI) on the Consew 199–2A zigzag sewing machine?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(647) What type of feed does the Chandler 767 sewing machine have?
|
|
Definition
Drop feed with alternating presser feet.
|
|
|
Term
(648) Which type of hand needle is most appropriate to use when repairing and installing a seat cushion cover?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(648) Which type of hand needle should be used to sew fabrics with a loose or large weave?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(649) To hold plies of material together before machine sewing, use the hand-sewn seam pattern
known as
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(649) What permanent hand-sewn stitch would you use to attach metal hardware to material?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(650) All of the following are advantages of a machine-sewn seam over a hand-sewn seam except
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(650) In the machine-sewn seam specification symbol 301–SSa–1, 301 represents the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(651) When machine sewing, you may need to minimize the bulk of a seam. Which class of seam is used for that purpose?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(651) When installing binding tape on a seam, position the stitches from the selvage edge
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(651) When sewing, how far behind a row of stitches should you begin re-stitching if the thread
breaks?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(652) When considering threads used for sewing, determine the thread strength by the
|
|
Definition
size and number of yarns used.
|
|
|
Term
(653) What type of sewing knot is the simplest to use when joining two threads or cords?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(654) What are some ways you can use protective covers to fit a particular object?
|
|
Definition
Security, weather and dust protection.
|
|
|
Term
(654) Synthetic fabric made by laminating two layers of vinyl material over woven nylon is
called
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(655) Which seam formation provides your protective cover with watershed characteristics
during fabrication?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(655) How far, as a minimum, do you overstitch a hole while darning protective covers?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(655) When installing a patch to a protective cover, the standard amount of turn under is
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(655) What is the shape of a watershed patch used for repairing protective covers?
|
|
Definition
Square with a triangle top.
|
|
|
Term
(656) What are the two types of upholstery you use for fabric coverings and cushions on
aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(657) What is one disadvantage of using Naugahyde for upholstery?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(658) Which type of aircraft soundproofing material has heat-sealed edges?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(659) To ensure a re-fabricated soundproofing panel fits properly, you should
|
|
Definition
use the old panel as a pattern.
|
|
|
Term
(659) What type of material must you use to repair soundproofing panels?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(660) Which methods of installation are used to install thermal radiation barrier curtains on B–52
aircraft?
|
|
Definition
Rolling, folding, sliding, and snap fastener.
|
|
|
Term
(661) What is your first inspection requirement for all thermal radiation barrier curtains?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(661) Which type light is allowed to show through when you are inspecting closed thermal radiation barrier curtains?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(662) What is the minimum room temperature requirement before making any repairs to thermal radiation barrier curtains?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) The best way to show respect to other instructors after you have completed a class is to
|
|
Definition
remove any equipment you brought into the classroom.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the ability to deal with others without giving offense.
|
|
|
Term
(801) Of all the personal qualities used in aircrew instruction, which one should you not over use?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) Sincerity is defined as
|
|
Definition
honesty of mind or intention.
|
|
|
Term
(801) Why is good verbal support material during a hands-on training class necessary?
|
|
Definition
Clarifies, proves, and emphasizes key points.
|
|
|
Term
(801) What is the first quality you should have before trying to conduct hands-on training?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(802) Four of the most common presentation methods are lecture, demonstration, performance, and
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(802) Which method of instruction is such that the success of the lesson rests solely with the
instructor?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(802) In the discussion method of instruction, the main purpose of a “lead-off” question is to
|
|
Definition
open up an area of discussion.
|
|
|
Term
(803) The purpose of the aircrew flight equipment continuation-training program is to
|
|
Definition
keep aircrew members current and up-to date on equipment.
|
|
|
Term
(803) Which Air Force instruction establishes the need and requirements for a continuation training program within your aircrew flight equipment unit?
|
|
Definition
11-301 Volume 1, Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE)Program.
|
|
|
Term
(803) Who develops the approved Air Force Master Lesson Plan?
|
|
Definition
Career development course writer.
|
|
|
Term
(803) Who is responsible to review personal and wing lesson plans to make sure they comply with
the Air Force master lesson plan and are current?
|
|
Definition
Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer.
|
|
|
Term
(803) How often must aircrew flight equipment continuation-training (AFECT) lesson plans be validated?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(803) The primary purpose of a lesson plan is to make sure the instructor
|
|
Definition
considers every factor that might influence the effectiveness of a lesson.
|
|
|
Term
(803) Part I of a lesson plan contains
|
|
Definition
the lesson objectives and references.
|
|
|
Term
(803) What is the role of the attention step in the introduction of part II of a lesson plan?
|
|
Definition
Gains the attention of the aircrew.
|
|
|
Term
(804) Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training class is used for non-ejection egress class?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be inspected at intervals not to exceed
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) After completing the inspection for the equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training, you must
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be
|
|
Definition
stenciled “FOR TRAINING USE ONLY.”
|
|
|
Term
(804) When may operational aircrew flight equipment assets be used for training?
|
|
Definition
In critical cases, such as night vision goggles and combat survival radios.
|
|
|
Term
(804) Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) What should be your number one concern when instructing equipment continuation training courses?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) Who must verify that an operational risk management program has been implemented in your training program?
|
|
Definition
Aircrew flight equipment superintendent or aircrew flight equipment officer.
|
|
|
Term
(804) As an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor, your understanding and
successful implementation of the emergency action plan is critical to ensure
|
|
Definition
everyone is safe should an emergency occur.
|
|
|
Term
(805) What is one purpose of an aircraft safety investigation?
|
|
Definition
Reduce future mishap potential.
|
|
|
Term
(805) What is the classification of a mishap that costs $2,000,000 or more?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) What is the classification of a mishap with a direct mishap cost totaling $500,000 or more
but less than $2,000,000?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) What is the classification of a mishap that with a direct mishap cost totaling $50,000 or
more but less than $500,000?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) What is the classification of a mishap that involves any non fatal injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) How many different types of safety boards are there?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(806) What is the first responsibility of the Interim Safety investigation board?
|
|
Definition
Make sure the crash site has been secured properly.
|
|
|
Term
(807) What form do we use to document initial safety briefings?
|
|
Definition
AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
|
|
|
Term
(807) What is the first step in determining a training program for a new technician?
|
|
Definition
Review the Career Field Education and Training Plan/Specialty Training Standard.
|
|
|
Term
(807) Which is not a method we use to evaluate technical school graduates?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(807) When are field evaluation questionnaires conducted?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(808) What provides a life-cycle training management tool that identifies career path education, training requirements, and core tasks for each skill level or duty position?
|
|
Definition
The Career Field Education and Training Plan.
|
|
|
Term
(808) The master task list consists of a
|
|
Definition
Career Field Education and Training Plan and an AF Form 797.
|
|
|
Term
(808) How many days does a trainee have to complete each volume of their career development courses?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(809) What are the two types of on-the-job training?
|
|
Definition
Upgrade training and qualification training.
|
|
|
Term
(809) Who should be designated as a trainer?
|
|
Definition
Only the most competent individual on each task.
|
|
|
Term
(810) What document contains a complete history of your training progress?
|
|
Definition
AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.
|
|
|
Term
(810) What form is used to document tasks not listed in the CFETP.
|
|
Definition
AF Form 797, Job qualification Standard Continuation/Command Jobs.
|
|
|
Term
(810) Your supervisor must document all training actions on an
|
|
Definition
AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
|
|
|
Term
(811) All of the following are examples of the analytical troubleshooting method except
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(811) When performing testing and operational checks you should always
|
|
Definition
test in accordance with (IAW) applicable technical data.
|
|
|
Term
(812) Who can approve a highly experienced 5-level technician to be a quality inspector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(812) What is the form used to record quality control inspections?
|
|
Definition
AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.
|
|
|
Term
(813) What is the requirement for a quality control inspector?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(813) Who maintains records of all approved locally designed tools?
|
|
Definition
Quality assurance inspector.
|
|
|
Term
(814) What governs operating instructions in the Aircrew Flight Equipment shop?
|
|
Definition
AFI 11–301V1, Aircrew Life Support (ALS) Program.
|
|
|
Term
(814) Who must approve your shop’s operating instructions? |
|
Definition
Squadron commander or higher command authority.
|
|
|
Term
(815) What publication governs safeguarding and protecting all classified information?
|
|
Definition
AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.
|
|
|
Term
(815) What form do you use to show where the Air Force publication is filed?
|
|
Definition
DD Form 2681, Cross-Reference.
|
|
|
Term
(816) The following technical order and publications explain how electronic TOs will be filed except
|
|
Definition
AFI 11–301, Aircrew Flight Equipment Program.
|
|
|
Term
(817) At which level are deployment manning requirements determined?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(817) Deployment manning requirements are based on the
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(817) Unit type codes are represented with a
|
|
Definition
5-character alphanumeric code.
|
|
|
Term
(817) What do unit type codes define?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(817) What is the listing of all personnel assigned to a mobility position number to support a
tasking?
|
|
Definition
Deployment requirements manning document.
|
|
|
Term
(817) What is used to assign and update personnel for mobility positions?
|
|
Definition
Deployment Management System.
|
|
|
Term
(817) All personnel subject to deployment must complete all mandatory training except which of the following?
|
|
Definition
Chemical warfare defense training.
|
|
|
Term
(818) Prior to deployment, your test measurement and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) should be calibrated to what extent and marked as what on the TMDE master listing?
|
|
Definition
Maximum extent possible, War Readiness Material.
|
|
|
Term
(818) What personnel control the equipment by directing the folks in the transportation control
unit?
|
|
Definition
Deployment Control Center.
|
|
|
Term
(818) What is a LOGPLAN wing material list?
|
|
Definition
An automated listing that identifies all of you unit’s equipment as configured on your base by the OPLAN.
|
|
|
Term
(818) The forms used to identify hazardous material for military air transportation must have a certifying official's signature and a vertical
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(818) Where is a Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods form not required?
|
|
Definition
In an envelope forwarded with the shipment.
|
|
|
Term
(819) A limitation factor is a
|
|
Definition
factor or condition that either temporarily or permanently impedes mission accomplishment and requires the aid of higher headquarters to resolve.
|
|
|
Term
(819) All limitation factors are classified to at least what level?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(819) Who should be one of the first to deploy on the Advanced Echelon team?
|
|
Definition
Experienced AFE supervisor.
|
|
|
Term
(820) For equipment on a 120-day inspection cycle, before deployment aircrew flight equipment personnel should check to make sure it has at least how many days left before the next inspection?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(820) For aircraft contingency configuration requirements, refer to
|
|
Definition
AFI 11-301V1 and AFI 11-301V2.
|
|
|
Term
(821) What is contained in a “BUG OUT” kit? |
|
Definition
Minimum items needed to reestablish operations.
|
|
|
Term
(821) During combat operations, what is your number one job?
|
|
Definition
Protection of the aircrew.
|
|
|
Term
(822) The following are all steps in the OPSEC process except?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(822) Which component of COMSEC security allows the US governments the ability to transmit
a wide range of signals over unsecured (physical) communications path?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(822) An example of an emissions security is
|
|
Definition
a HOOK PRC-112 PLS data burst.
|
|
|
Term
(822) What is the usual classification of Air Tasking Orders?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(822) How often do Special Instructions need to be verified for currency?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(822) What electronic means is used to get SPINS information?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(823) During an attack, it is important to protect your resources; however, due to static electricity do not cover fuels of munitions with
|
|
Definition
|
|