Dirt

Tools

Lead Seals

All of the above

(005) For cleaning purposes, you should never use compressed air greater than what number of pounds per square inch (psi)?

(006) What does fire symbol three (3) indicate?

Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a mass fire.

(006) What does fire symbol four (4) indicate?

Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a moderate fire.

(006) The colors of a radiation placard are

magenta and yellow.

(007) What information does an explosive facility license contain?

Location and quantities of explosives authorized.

(008) What equipment can you as an aircrew flight equipment journeyman operate?

Only items you are trained and authorized to use.

(008) What can you do to ensure maximum benefits from tools and reduce the chances of serious injury?

Observe all safety guidelines.

(009) Using damaged tools is not a correct tool habit, why?

Damaged tools can damage the item you are working on.

(009) Which piece of safety equipment is used to limit damage from falling objects?

Safety shoes.

(010) What are the different types of screwdrivers normally used in an aircrew flight equipment shop?

Common, cross-tip, cross-point, offset, jeweler’s, and ratchet.

(010) You can identify the Phillips screwdriver by its

cross-tip and blunt end.

(010) When using a screwdriver, how can you prevent damage to the screw slot and surface of the screw head?

Maintain downward pressure on the screwdriver.

(010) What two wrenches have been combined to make up a combination wrench?

Open-end and box.

(010) You identify socket sets by their

drive size.

(010) What is one rule to follow when using an adjustable wrench to remove a nut?

Ensure a tight fit on the nut.

(010) A drift punch is used to

remove shafts and pins.

(010) What are the two types of woodworking chisels?

Socket and tang.

(010) How do you remove a hollow punch from a lead block?

Twist it out.

(011) How do you hand shears to another person?

Closed and offer the handle.

(011) What type of stone should be used to sharpen shears?

Fine to medium.

(011) If a power tape is allowed to snap back into itself, the

hook end can shear off.

(011) If a long measuring tape is allowed to sag, it

can increase the measurement.

(011) What is the purpose of an awl?

Find and punch holes.

(011) What type of hand needle is best suited for installing hidden stitches?

Curved.

(011) The parachute packing paddle (fid) can be made out of any suitable, strong, and pliable material execept

wood.

(011) What can result if you do not use stencil paper in the stencil machine?

The dies and punches can be dull.

(011) Why are shot bags brightly colored?

Accountability.

(011) What type of grommet is used for heavy-duty applications?

Spurred.

(011) What is the advantage of the portable press?

The ability to be used in tight places.

(011) Which snap fastener installation press is to be used as a last resort?

Portable.

(011) When using an adjustable snap fastener press, what distance required between the chuck and die in the press?

1/32 of an inch.

(012) Which format would normally indicate a calibration due date of 8 January 2009 on an inspection label for a test measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) item?

Julian date (09008).

(013) After using torque devices, what must you do with the device?

Set to lowest setting.

(013) What tester tests Combined Advanced Technology Enhanced Design “G” Ensemble (COMBAT EDGE) equipment but requires a compressed air or oxygen cylinder?

TTU–529/E.

(013) Which tester(s) uses a 9V battery as a power source?

DMH–1 and Multimeter.

(014) Which type of technical order (TO) do you use to find the status of all TOs within a specific TO category?

Index.

(014) Which technical order is referred to as the index of indexes?

0–1–01.

(015) While they may be printed in parts, job guides (JG) provide

detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.

(015) Technical order (TO) numbers always begin with the TO

category.

(016) Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) must be accomplished within a maximum of how many days?

(017) What type of technical orders (TO) establish policies and are not issued against specific military systems?

Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO).

(017) Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO) differ from TOs dealing with specific equipment because they

are general in nature.

(018) Which letter designation in the technical order (TO) number designates fighter aircraft?

(018) The first part of a technical order (TO) numbering system identifies the

equipment categories.

(019) Which technical orders (TOs) would be found in a TO binder with a binder label reading

14P4–1–151 thru 15X5–4–1–101?

14S1–3–51.

(019) Changed pages of technical order (TO) page supplements (TOPS) are filed facing the

page containing outdated instructions.

(020) If you discover a deficiency in a technical order (TO), how do you correct the problem?

Submit an AFTO Form 22.

(020) Within how many calendar days after your submittal of a routine report must replies be sent?

(021) What element of supply would you contact if you wanted to obtain steel-toed boots?

Retail sales.

(021) What element of supply would you contact to turn in equipment?

Equipment management.

(021) What element of supply is the first point in the process when ordering supplies?

Demand processing.

(022) The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government

property caused by misuse or negligence is known as what type of liability?

Pecuniary.

(022) The term “custodian” as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to a

caretaker.

(022) If property is not serviceable, it is turned in and transferred to the

Receipt in-place location (RIPL).

(023) The last nine digits of a national stock number (NSN) is known as the

National item identification number.

(024) An example of an expendable supply item would be a

pencil.

(024) What form does equipment custodians use to request turn-in of equipment on the custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA?CRL)?

AF Form 601 or AF Form 2005.

(025) Which condition tag do you use to identify a serviceable survival kit?

DD Form 1574.

(025) An HGU–55/P helmet was brought to your shop for repair; however, not all of the parts

have been received from supply to make the necessary repairs. What condition tag do you attach to the helmet?

DD Form 1577–2.

(026) Which supply control document lists the status of accountable and controlled assets?

Due-In From Maintenance Listing.

(026) What form do you use to temporary issue equipment?

AF Form 1297.

(027) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) requires your shop to have a budget?

AFI 11–301V1.

(027) By having a detailed budget, your shop is

able to justify everything you need to complete your mission.

(027) We write our budgets for how many fiscal years in advance?

One.

(028) The expendability, recoverability, reparability cost (ERRC) designator code that identifies due-in from maintenance (DIFM) items is

XD.

(201) How many ounces does the HGU55/P lightweight helmet shell reduce the total weight of the helmet compared to the standard HGU55/P helmet shell?

4.

(201) How many inch-pounds of torque, if any, do you apply to the HGU55 helmet integrated cin and nape strap (ICNS) screws?

13 ± 1.

(201) Which lightweight visor assembly used on the HGU–55 series helmet has a viscosity of 15 to

25 percent color shade?

(202) What is used to clean the lightweight visor lens on the HGU–55/P helmet?

Household detergent and water.

(202) One purpose of the AFTO Form 334, Helmet and Oxygen Mask/Connector Inspection Data,

is to

record modifications to a helmet.

(203) What is the approximate measurement, in inches, from the center eye position to the helmet

edge roll when fitting the HGU–55 series helmet?

2 ± ¼.

(203) What knot is used to tie off the standard nape strap after a proper fit is achieved on the HGU 55/P helmet?

Square.

(204) How are the extra small (XS) and extra-extra small (XXS) HGU–56/P helmet sizes obtained?

Use a thicker energy absorbing liner (EAL).

(204) The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU–56/P helmet by using a

nylon cord.

(204) Where is the connector located that is used to attach the communication earplugs (CEP) to

the HGU–56/P helmet shell?

right rear.

(205) Which component is mounted to the structure of the helmet display unit (HDU) of the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) that provides an electrical signal representative of the pilot’s head position?

Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).

(205) What is the maximum amount, in inches, the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System

(JHMCS) visor should be trimmed at one time?

⅛.

(206) What component of the EEU–2/P goggles’ internal lens holder assembly is replaceable?

Controller.

(207) When referring to night vision goggles (NVG), the image produced by the image intensifier tube (ITT) is focused onto the

diopter lens.

(207) The AN/AVS–9 (V) night vision goggles (NVG) consist of how major component(s)?

2.

(207) What is the maximum voltage direct current (VDC) the power supply output can be adjusted to on the AN/AVS-9(V) night vision goggles?

(207) Which adjustment control on the AN/AVS–9(V) binocular assembly is used to adjust aircrew’s the line of sight?

Tilt.

(207) How many pounds per square inch (psi) of nitrogen do you apply to the goggle monocular

during a leak test?

3 ± ½

(207) Which solution is used to clean night vision goggle lens?

Denatured alcohol.

(207) What wattage light bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane?

7.

(207) What degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for the AN/AVS–10(V) panoramic night

vision goggles (PNVG)?

95.

(207) What is the total weight, in grams, of the AN/AVS–10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles

(PNVG)?

700.

(208) Aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices are designed to protect against

specific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths.

(208) Where are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) assets stored?

A locked storage container.

(208) How often are the aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) glasses inspected after receipt?

180 days.

(208) How are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices fitted on the aircrew member?

As close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.

(209) What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?

Altitude.

(209) The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is

greater near the surface of the earth.

(210) What is the maximum pounds per square inch (PSI) charge of a low-pressure oxygen storage cylinder?

450.

(210) The continuous-flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

30,000.

(210) The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

35,000.

(210) How many ways are there to provide sufficient pressure in the lungs to force oxygen into the blood?

2.

(211) What type manifold block is the CRU–60/P oxygen connector?

Three-way.

(211) Where does disconnection from the aircraft oxygen supply hose connector take place on the

CRU–60/P connector during ejection or emergency egress from the aircraft?

Lower intake port.

(212) A qualified specialist must inspect the CRU–60P connector every how many days?

30.

(212) What is the maximum length, in fractions of an inch, that the excess restraint cord can be after being trimmed when it is replaced in the CRU–60/P connector?

¼.

(212) How many pounds should the friction disconnect force be when checking the CRU–60P

oxygen regulator to mask connection?

12 to 20.

(212) What is the maximum standard cubic centimeters per minute (SCCM) leakage rate allowed during the LOW RANGE leakage test of the CRU60/P connector?

250.

(213) How many liters of aviator oxygen are contained in the single oxygen cylinder within the

emergency oxygen passenger system (EPOS)?

18.

(214) The purpose of the breathing valves located in the valve body of the passenger oxygen mask

is to

provide an anchor for the head strap.

(214) What is the maximum number of days between inspection intervals for passenger oxygen masks that are used in a non-fixed environment?

90.

(215) The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU–12/P oxygen mask with

capped T-nuts and a self-locking screws.

(215) In inches, how long is the MBU–12/P oxygen mask hose?

17½.

(215) What type of cord is used to tack down the buckles on the MBU–12/P straps and buckle

assembly to prevent movement?

Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed.

(216) What prevents oxygen from being released accidentally from the emergency oxygen

assembly?

Caution tag with pin.

(217) The Scott 358 series folding quick-don mask assembly is secured to the wearer’s face with

spring-loaded telescopic mounts on a suspension assembly.

(218) What are the three types of acceleration an aircraft can encounter?

Linear, angular, or centripetal.

(218) At what negative gravity forces is there a danger of brain hemorrhage and death?

3 to 4.

(218) What type of gravity forces act upon the body from head to foot?

Positive.

(218) What aircraft maneuvers cause positive gravity forces?

Pullout maneuvers, tight turns, and upward ejection.

(219) The CSU–13 B/P anti-gravity garment bladder casings are constructed of

polyurethane-coated taffeta cloth.

(219) When the CSU–13B/P anti-gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (PSI), the bladders automatically bleed down to

1.5 psi in 4 seconds.

(220) What measurements from the aircrew members are needed to properly size their CSU–13 series anti-gravity suit?

Weight and height.

(220) If the individual being fitted for a gravity suit is borderline between sizes, what action is

taken?

Use the smaller size.

(221) In the event of a slide fastener failure, the secondary restraint device on the CSU 23/P

antigravity suit is designed to

prevent the bladder from interfering with the cockpit operations.

(221) Where is the air hose located on the CSU–23/P antigravity suit that facilitates connecting to

the anti-gravity valve on the F–22 aircraft?

Right side.

(222) Why must the HGU–55 series helmet be modified when it is used with COMBAT EDGE

equipment?

To provide for automatic mask tensioning.

(222) Which CRU regulated connector do you perform a flow test and an altitude pressure

breathing test on?

120/P.

(222) In feet, what is the maximum altitude that the CRU122/P regulated integrated terminal block (ITB) can be used?

60,000.

(223) Approximately how far above the chin strap do you position the lower front rivet of the bayonet receiver for it to be properly located on the HGU55P helmet?

1 inch.

(223) What is the maximum amount you can trim the MBU–20 series mask face piece for confort?

½ inch.

(223) During a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check, what is the maximum number of breaths an aircrew member may take at pressures below 34 inches of water gauge (in. Wg)?

5.

(223) How many inches of water gauge (in. Wg) should the OUTPUT PRESSURE gauge read

during a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check?

32 ± 2.

(224) How many inches should the 100 pound (lb) parachute cord be when being replaced inside

the integrated terminal block (ITB) connector?

24.

(224) How many seconds minimum should the inhalation and exhalation valves be swished in an alcohol solution when cleaning them?

10.

(224) What torque is required on the screws when installing a microphone into the MBU20/P mask?

15 +/-1 inch ounces.

(225) What does an aircrew member’s survival time depend on in water temperatures above 70 degrees Fahrenheit?

Degree of immersion, fatigue factor, and swimming ability.

(225) Inspect the CWU–16/P anti-exposure coverall prior to issue and every how many days?

180 ± 10.

(225) What is the longest linear (straight) tear that can be repaired on the CWU–16/P antiexposure coverall?

2½ inches.

(225) Why do the tops of the CWU–67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to CWU–74/P anti-exposure suit?

Reduce bulk and restriction.

(225) An aircrew flight equipment journeyman performs a periodic inspection on the CWU–74/P

anti-exposure suit every how many days?

180.

(225) How many sizes do the CWU86/P and CWU87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?

24.

(225) In years, what is the service life of the CWU86/P and CWU87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls?

12.

(225) What length must the damage be less than in order to repair the neoprene layer of a wrist seal of the CWU86/P and CWU87/P coveralls?

½ inch.

How many sizes does the MBU19/P mask–hood assembly come in?

4.

(226) How many volts direct current (VDC) is required to operate the CQU–7/P blower assembly

when it is connected to an aircraft power supply?

28 ± 4.

(226) What position on the MXU835/P communication subsystem is listen only?

2nd.

(226) How many modes of operation does the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP)

system have?

4.

(226) A CQU–7/P blower failure is indicated to the wearer by

the loss of lens de-mist and increased breathing resistance.

(227) How often do you perform operational checks on the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection

(AERP) ensemble that are fitted for contingency operations?

18 months.

(227) What is the maximum number of times you can launder the CWU66/P aircrew chemical ensemble (ACE)?

10.

(227) What is the minimum hours of cure time for the adhesive when replacing the plenum tubes during repair of the MBU19/P mask?

12.

(227) By what part of an inch must the edges overlap when repairing tears on the CWU-66/P-77/P aircrewchemical ensemble (ACE)?

¼.

(227) What torque is required when installing the bayonet and strap assembly to the MBU19/P mask?

(227) What is the required torque when installing the hose barb of the drinking tube assembly to the pass-through on the MBU-19/P mask?

5 inch-pounds.

(227) How many hours must be allowed for the silastic adhesive to cure when you replace the

microphone gasket on Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) equipment?

24.

(228) How should the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) tear-away pull knobs be

positioned during wear?

Under the lower harness straps.

(228) When fitting the MBU–19/P aircrew chemical ensemble to a non-helmeted system the face piece should be trimmed no more than what fraction of an inch during the first cut?

⅛.

(228) What is the maximum length, in inches, the MBU19/P mask adjustment strap can be after a proper fit is made?

3.

(228) What is the length of the CWU66/P if a male is over 6 feet, 1-inch tall?

Long.

(229) The purpose of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is to provide

detection, contamination control, and processing provisions for aircrews

(229) When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), once the consistent wind

direction is determined, the processing direction is established at a

45 to 60 degree deviation (angle) towards the wind direction.

(229) Who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color when setting up an

aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

ACCA manager.

(229) What item is not used for decontamination of equipment in the field?

A solution of a mild detergent and water.

(229) A minimum of how many trained technicians are required to run standard operations at an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

5.

(230) As an Aircrew Flight Equipment Journeyman, what is your first responsibility upon arrival of aircrew members from ground operations when chemical or biological contamination is suspected?

Apply all available decontamination methods to detect contaminates of personnel and assets.

(230) Up to how many attendants may be required to process one aircrew member in Area 1

 of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

3.

(230) What area of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is the boot and protective over garment removal phase?

(231) How many main components does the counter-radiological warfare (C-RW) concept of

operations consist of?

3.

(231) What is the minimum hours following an event in which installations will receive specialized federal assets?

12.

(401) The ML–4 survival kit is attached to the parachute harness by

one ejector snap assembly and one non-ejector snap.

(401) The advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit must not be packed to weigh less than

10 or more than 40 pounds

(401) What action may be taken if an advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit has a hole in the container assembly flaps?

Darn or patch with a single, outside patch.

(402) When using a soft-type kit, what is the minimum clearance required on each side of an

ejection seat survival kit between the kit and the seat with an aircrew sitting on it?

¼ inch.

(402) Which aircraft maintenance symbol is used when the aircraft condition is unsatisfactory but

does not warrant grounding of the aircraft or discontinuing use of the equipment?

Red diagonal (/).

(402) What action is required to indicate that an individual has completed the required maintenance on an aircraft or related equipment?

A black last-name initial entered over the symbol.

(403) How many sizes are available for the air ace survival vest?

2.

(404) The AIRSAVE vest is constructed with fire-retardant coated

nylon mesh.

(404) The AIRSAVE is intended to be worn the over top of the

torso harness.

(404) How often do you perform a periodic inspection to an in-service vest?

180 days.

(405) What is the maximum number of times that an aircrew body armor (ABA) cover should be

washed?

15.

(405) What is the maximum temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (F), the water must be when

washing the aircrew body armor (ABA) cover?

105F +/- 5F.

(406) On the lensatic compass, each click on the bezel ring represents

3 degrees.

(407) One way of identifying the night end of the MK–13 MOD 0 distress signal in total darkness

and without the aid of artificial light is by the

ring of embossed projections below the closure.

(408) How often must you perform a periodic inspection on one-man life rafts?

Every year ± 10 days.

(408) What is the periodic inspection interval for the 46-man life raft?

Every three years + 10 days.

(408) During a periodic inspection of life preservers, what percentage of the set (lot) is

functionally tested?

5.

(409) Which form is yellow and contains an inventory list for accessory kits?

AFTO Form 337, Life Raft Container Inspection Record.

(409) One purpose of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 46 is to

document preservers propositioned on an aircraft.

(410) What color vacuum hose do you use to help reduce tripping hazards?

Yellow.

(411) What equipment item is not used to indicate air pressure?

Dial push/pull gauge.

(412) What is the dial push/pull gauge designed to measure?

Compression and tension.

(413) What is the correct setting for the aft poise block when weighing an LPU–10/P carbon dioxide (CO²) cylinder?

100 gram notch.

(413) On a digital scale, what key switches the display from kilograms to decimal pounds?

UNITS.

(414) The LPU–10/P uses a FLU–1/P that incorporates a cell-venting capability which eliminates the need for a

breather clip.

(414) What color are the bladders on the LPU–38/P life preserver?

Yellow with a black cover.

(415) During which inspection procedure do you not open the life preserver?

Screening

(415) What type of inspection do you perform on flotation equipment when the equipment status

is questionable?

Special.

(415) How many LPU–10/P life preservers out of 100 will require a functional test?

5.

(416) What is the minimum allowable corrected pounds per square inch (psi) pressure during the 6 hour leak test of the LPU-10/P?

1.5 psi.

(417) What is the acceptable direct current voltage (VDC) reading during the FLU–9 B/P battery test?

12.0 VDC.

(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the initial pounds per square inch (psi) pressure

must you inflate the bladder to is

3.25 psi.

(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the minimum pounds per square inch (psi) pressure allowed on the bladders to pass the test after at least one hour is

2.50 psi.

(418) What item do you center on top of the last fold after completion of the folding procedure on

the LPU–10/P cell?

Oral inflation valve.

(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container using the top side folding procedure, the top should form a fold approximately how many inches wide?

3.

(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container, what is the required inch pounds (lbs.) torque value

on the exterior cover screws?

12 to 15 inch lbs.

(420) When fitting the LPU–10/P life preserver to a crewmember, where are the containers

placed?

Below the armpits.

(420) How is the tacking of excess straps on the LPU–38/P secured?

Surgeon’s knot, followed by a locking knot.

(421) How many primary inflators are on an A–A–50652 life preserver?

Two singles.

(421) What is the length of the nylon lanyard that is attached to the D-ring or waist strap on an

adult/child preserver?

10 feet.

(422) Which item is needed to remove air from the A–A–50652 life preserver?

Deflation adapter.

(422) If you check the sea-dye marker and the dye has hardened,

it will still work, but will take longer to dissolve.

(422) During inspection of the water activated light, check the battery case for cracks and

swelling.

(422) What setting should a multi-meter be adjusted to when checking a water-activated light

battery?

Volts.

(423) What type of gas cylinder is used to inflate the A–A–50652 life preserver?

Carbon dioxide (CO2).

(423) When packing the A–A–50652 life preserver, where do you position the inflators?

Bottom of container.

(424) Sealed and safety tied portions of the life preservers should not be opened for the

preflight inspection.

(425) A life preserver is considered beyond repair when which condition is present?

Valve stems separating.

(426) What is the required size of the cell protector for the LPU–10/P?

3½ by 4½ inches.

(426) What length of pile tape is required for the hook and pile cell connector on an LPU–10/P?

12 inches.

(427) The purpose of the ballast bags on the LRU–16/P one-man life raft is to

stabilize boarding.

(427) How is the floor inflated on the LRU–16/P raft?

By oral inflation.

(427) How is the oral inflation tube on LRU–16/P flotation tube identified?

The tube is either solid red or it has red tape wrapped around it.

(427) The purpose of the spray shield on an LRU–16/P life raft is to

protect the individual from rain.

(428) What is the required torque value in inch pounds (in-lbs) for securing the carbon dioxide (CO₂) cylinder to an LRU-16/P life raft?

50 to 60.

(428) When an LRU–16/P life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time that the raft

should inflate to its designed shape and size?

30 seconds.

(428) When performing an LRU–16/P buoyancy tube twist check, what size blocks are used and

where are they positioned?

3½ inch, diagonally.

(429) When inflating a spray shield on a life raft, what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi)

must you ensure the air source does not exceed?

5 psi.

(429) What is the minimum and maximum time an inflated LRU–16/P life raft can sit during a

leakage test?

6 hours; 8 hours.

(429) When figuring corrected pressure, which number is added or subtracted to the final pressure reading for each 1°F change in temperature?

0.031.

(429) On a one-man raft, what size lettering should be marked on the raft to annotate the date

inspected?

¼- to ½-inch.

(430) The purpose of securing the sea anchor on a one-man raft is to

prevent the bow from raising during boarding.

(430) What is the purpose of the adapter clip used with the LRU–16/P raft?

Prevents inadvertent release of the swag ball.

(431) The purpose of the diffuser on a multi-place life raft is to

break up the direct blast of carbon dioxide (CO2).

(432) What is used to inflate the 25-man life raft?

Compressed air augmented by ambient air.

(432) When fully configured, the 46-man life raft weighs approximately

200 pounds.

(433) When an F–2B life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time in which the raft

should inflate to its designed shape?

60 seconds.

(433) One hour after completing the functional test, what will be the compartment differential

pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the F–2B life raft?

1.5 to 2.2 psi.

(434) What is the required torque range in inch pounds (in-lbs) for installing the carbon dioxide (CO₂) cylinder to the F-2B life raft?

140 to 150 in-lbs.

(434) What is the last thing you must do prior to folding the F–2B life raft?

Remove the equalizer tube clamp.

(435) What type of knot do we use to attach the actuation line to the actuation cable on the F–2B

cylinder?

Bowline.

(435) What type of cord do you use to lace the side flaps on the F–2B wing well container?

8/4.

(436) What is the shape of the 22D23585 life raft when fully inflated?

Decagon.

(436) The compressed air cylinder on the 25-man life raft must receive a hydrostatic test every

3 years.

(437) Where do you position the jet pumps when packing the 25-man life raft?

Top edge of case.

(438) To what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the 46-man life raft inflated during a

leakage test?

2.0 psi.

(438) How long does the 46-man life raft undergo a leakage test?

6 hours.

(439) Before you pack the 46-man life raft, what is the maximum overall width of the folded raft?

16 inches.

(440) What is the maximum number of patches that can be applied to the flotation tube of a

single-place life raft?

3.

(440) What amount must the patch overlap the damaged area when applying a patch to any life

raft?

1½-inches.

(441) When you manufacture an inspection data pocket for a life raft carrying case, what size

material must be cut and where is the grommet positioned?

4 by 5 inches; centered on the 4 inch side.

(442) The C–5 type escape slide is packed into a

fiberglass breakaway case.

(443) How many jet pumps are on a KC–135 type escape slide?

1.

(443) What is the maximum time it should take for the KC–135 escape slide to inflate to its designed shape?

10 seconds.

(443) The KC–135 type escape slide is packed into

an envelope type container.

(444) The C–5 escape slide requires a periodic inspection every

12 months.

(445) The maximum number of non-parallel lamps that can be allowed to be inoperative on the C–5 escape slide is

2.

(446) When folding and packing the C–5 escape slide, how must you rotate the right side jet

pumps?

90 degrees clockwise.

(447) What size loop do you form when securing the KC–135 slide tie patches?

5⁄16-inch.

(447) You fold the KC–135 escape slide to achieve an overall width of

(447) During the packing process of a KC–135 slide, when are you required to remove the

vacuum adapter?

After inserting the slide into the container.

(448) What is the recommended shape of a C–5 escape slide repair patch?

Circular.

(449) KC–135 cylinders are condemned if 4,380 pressurizations have been met or after how many

years from the date of the first test?

24.

(449) What is the main difference between the C–5 and the KC–135 cylinder inspections?

Inspection or test.

(450) The AN/PRC–112B1 radio acts as a transponder supplying

bearing and distance ranging pulses and personnel ID information.

(450) What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC–112 series radio contain?

121 and 243.5 MHz.

(451) The ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications (SATCOM) mode supports two way secure messaging/geoposition (location identifier) between the AN/GRC–242 Radio Set Base Station, and the AN/PRQ–7 Radio Set (HHR) through a

UHF SATCOM channel.

(452) How many trailing antenna(s) is the AN/URT- 44 PLB equipped with?

2.

(452) On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT–44 provide homing signals?

121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.

(453) What is the flash rate for the MS–2000M strobe light?

50 ± 10 flashes per minute.

(601) The various styles of personnel parachutes are

seat, chest, back, and recovery.

(601) The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II system can operate at is

600.

(602) What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?

What are the minor components that make up the parachute assembly of the recovery parachute components?

Pilot parachute, bridle line, type of ripcord assembly.

(602) The pilot parachute C–9 canopy’s characteristics are best described as a

multicolored 28-feet diameter, flat circular canopy.

(602) What type of C–9 canopy quick release is used on back automatic parachutes?

PCU–4/P.

(603) What malfunction on the personnel parachute is caused by excessive opening forces?

Broken lines.

(604) What is the ideal temperature and relative humidity for working with parachutes?

75° and 60 percent.

(604) Why is controlling the relative humidity and temperature important in a parachute shop?

Prevents static electricity in the canopy cloth.

(605) What type of personnel protective equipment are you not required to wear when hoisting personnal parachutes in the drying tower?

Steel toe shoes.

(605) What percentage range of the manufacturer’s rated load do you apply to a hoist during a load test?

100 to 125.

(606) Who is responsible for ensuring all parachutes on the aircraft have been inspected prior to flight?

Aircraft commander.

(606) An aircrew flight equipment specialist determines if the aneroid of the Scot release is

leaking if the

aneroid edge is no longer visible.

(606) When performing a routine inspection on personnel parachutes, the ejector snaps

must release at 7 ± 2 pounds.

(607) Within how many hours may parachute components be used again if they are completely

rinsed after being immersed in salt water?

24.

(607) Which of the following statements is true about cleaning deceleration parachutes?

They may need to soak longer in fresh running water.

(608) How should you prepare serviceable canopies for return to the base supply system?

Loosely folded and placed into a polyethylene bag.

(609) Which form is initiated to reflect the date the assembly was removed from service when a

personnel parachute is prepared for shipping?

AFTO Form 392, Parachute Repack, Inspection and Component Record.

(609) How many and where are DD Forms 1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel, attached to a

serviceable parachute assembly packaged for shipping?

Two, attach one to the parachute and the other to the shipping container.

(610) The leg straps on a Class III parachute torso harness

prevents falling downward out of the sling.

(610) What is the purpose of the torso harness canopy release?

Allows jettisoning of the parachute canopy.

(611) What position is a crewmember in when you are fitting a torso harness?

Standing and leaning forward.

(611) Where and how should you position the chest strap when fitting the torso harness on a

crewmember?

10 to 12 inches below the chin and tighten.

(612) During a routine inspection of torso harnesses, remove surface dirt and contaminants with

semi-soft bristle brush.

(613) The Frost canopy releases are actuated by

squeezing the lever and then sliding toward each other.