Term
| (001) The movement of stabilized patients from forward medical locations to another pre-arranged destination is the definition of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when AE is available? |
|
Definition
| Significantly increase with AE |
|
|
Term
| (001) What is the ratio of C-17’s used for EMEDS versus 25 bed Air Transportation Hospital? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) The EMEDS components are broken down into which3 increments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) Which EMEDS increment has no inpatient beds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) Which EMEDS increment is capable of performing 10 major surgeries in 24 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) UTC FFDAB, the Flight Medicine Team, provides care and treatment for a maximum of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) EMEDS Basic requires both routine AE support and urgent AE support with in how many hours of notification? |
|
Definition
| 24 hours for routine AE support and 12 hours for urgent AE support |
|
|
Term
| (001) For what is the UTC FFGL2, the Medical Preventative and Aeromedical team responsible? |
|
Definition
| Ensuring safety of food & water supply |
|
|
Term
| (001) What capabilities is the UTC FFMFS, Medical Mobile Field Surgical team responsible for providing? |
|
Definition
| Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS |
|
|
Term
| (001) How many personnel are assigned to the EMEDS +10 increment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) How many tents make up the EMEDS +10 increment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) How many critical care patients can be cared for by the EMEDS +10 increment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) What is the total number of personnel assigned to the EMEDS +25? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) EMEDS +25 provides primary care support for how many deployed personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) How many major surgeries is the EMEDS +25 team able to perform in 72 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) Which EMEDS increment provides advanced surgical and trauma support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) What function does the UTC FFEP 5, EMEDS Surgical Augmentation team, provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) Which UTC contains enough supplies for 30 days, operating 24 hrs/day, 7 days a week? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) Air Reserve Command has a total of how many personnel assigned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) How many Individual Mobilization Augmentees (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) How many AF Reserve units are located in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (001) On what type of schedule do the IMA fulfill their work commitment? |
|
Definition
| IMA’s work during the normal work week |
|
|
Term
| (002) The Air Force Career Field Manager has what skill level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (002) The Senior NCO Board evaluates based on what concept? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (002) What percentage of SMSgt makes up the enlisted ranks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (002) How is the AFCFM selected? |
|
Definition
| Must volunteer and have a broad breath of experience needed for the position |
|
|
Term
| (002) What conference can you attend where you will have input to the CFETP? |
|
Definition
| Utilization and Training Workshop |
|
|
Term
| (002) The AFCFM utilizes what survey to determine jobs currently being performed by the career field? |
|
Definition
| Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey |
|
|
Term
| (002) Who develops and maintains currency of the CFETP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) Who is responsible for forecasting unit supplies requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) Who has the final approval authority for equipment request? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) A list of supply items that are used routinely with in a duty section are found on what issuing report/list? |
|
Definition
| Shopping guide issue list |
|
|
Term
| (003) The automatic restocking of primary supply storage is accomplished under what medical logistics system? |
|
Definition
| Internal distribution operation |
|
|
Term
| (003) What type of logistics issue is accomplished for the request of a one-time order with no foreseeable demand for one year? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) What transaction must be completed before an item previously on back order, shows up on the using activity issue list? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) When there is a change in procedures or mission, how do you manage the equipment NOT in use? |
|
Definition
| Contact MEMO for turn-in action |
|
|
Term
| (003) Who appoints property custodians? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) When taking over as the custodian for a new supply account, what is the first task to be accomplished? |
|
Definition
| Ensure you and the losing custodian perform a thorough inventory |
|
|
Term
| (003) While performing an inventory of all equipment what else should be checked? |
|
Definition
| The serviceability, maintenance, & calibration of equipment |
|
|
Term
| (003) When can the AF Form 601 be destroyed? |
|
Definition
| When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list |
|
|
Term
| When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility? |
|
Definition
| The custody receipt locator list |
|
|
Term
| (003) How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) What information does the last page of each customer support listing contain? |
|
Definition
| The dollar value summary, refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the dollar value of non-refundable/on-reimbursable items |
|
|
Term
| (003) Approximately how much of the budget is spent on medical supply purchase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (003) The Annual units budget will be reduced when the budget spending for the year has dropped by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (004) What is the definition of manpower? |
|
Definition
| The number of people contributing to or needed for a workforce |
|
|
Term
| (004) One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (004) The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade & skill level table, approved variances and a processes analysis summary is the definition of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (004) Information found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within and MTF? |
|
Definition
| Unit Manpower Document (UMD) |
|
|
Term
| (004) What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (004) Each position in the UMD is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (004) Who authorizes a change to manpower requests? |
|
Definition
| Resource Management Office |
|
|
Term
| (004) When requesting manning assistance, who pays for the individuals TDY expenses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (005) What is the first element of the time management? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (005) The responsibility of reviewing and approving staff schedules lies with the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (006) Another term for a 12 hour schedule is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (006) How many hours a day do people on a conventional schedule work? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (007) What tools do supervisors use to set clear expectations for subordinates? |
|
Definition
| Position descriptions and Performance Standards |
|
|
Term
| (007) How often are the unit positions descriptions reviewed and updated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (007) To provide an outline of the functions and activities required to achieve organizations objective and aid in the selection for the right person for a particular job, is the explanation for? |
|
Definition
| Purpose of a position description |
|
|
Term
| (007) What tool can be used to identify potential training needs while maintaining continuity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (007) The quality or quantity of a task is written in what document? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (007) Which document provides outside agencies with the valuable information necessary for nursing personnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (008) What document is used when evaluating if a member has met the standard? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (008) If a performance can be evaluated by how much, how fast and how often, what performance criterion is used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (008) What factors does a performance standard evaluation report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (009) The assessment of an individual’s ability to perform a certain job is the definition for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (009) What is the minimum time for up-grade training to a 7-skill level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (009) An active duty SMSgt, 9-skill level, must keep what certification current if required by duty position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (009) Which part of the CFETP is designed to provide formal course developers and field supervisors with information necessary to identify, plan and conduct training? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (010) What document identifies tasks applicable to the member’s duty section? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (010) The six-part folder was implemented for mandatory use by the 4N0XX career field in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (010) Who approved the changes to the CFETP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (010) AF Form 623b, individual training record is ALWAYS mandatory for which skill levels? |
|
Definition
| 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels |
|
|
Term
| (010) AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is found in which part and section of the six-part folder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (010) What are the only certification documents kept in the six-part folder? |
|
Definition
| NREMT-B Card and CPR Card |
|
|
Term
| (011) How are reengineering Primary Care services known as primary care optimization, and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector being accomplished through? |
|
Definition
| Population Health Management |
|
|
Term
| (011) When enrolling in TRICARE Prime, what important decision is made? |
|
Definition
| Who your Primary Care Manager will be to care for your family |
|
|
Term
| (011) An effective and efficient process for rapidly improving the health of the population affected by acute medical conditions and the related medical costs is the purpose of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (011) When properly executed, condition management can provide? |
|
Definition
| Continuity in provider practices |
|
|
Term
| (012) Which team member takes on the responsibility of developing patient care plans everyone can follow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (012) What guidance authorizes the Aerospace Medical technician to order laboratory tests and x-rays for patients prior to seeing the nurse or provider? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (012) Which team member known as the information expert? |
|
Definition
| Health service management specialist |
|
|
Term
| (013) In response to the patients demand for health care exceeding the current system capability, the Department of Defense introduced what program to continue providing the best health care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (013) What classifies health care financing for the poor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (013) Health Maintenance Organizations gained federal support for corporate practice in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (013) Seventy-five percent of all TRICARE patients care is received through the? |
|
Definition
| Local military treatment facility |
|
|
Term
| (013) What is one key success to the TRICARE program? |
|
Definition
| Through the effective use of information systems |
|
|
Term
| (014) One of the key features of TRICARE prime is? |
|
Definition
| Guaranteed access to timely Medical care |
|
|
Term
| (014) Which of the TRICARE options is a fee-for service? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (014) TRICARE Extra is limited in what area? |
|
Definition
| The providers participating in the TRICARE Extra network |
|
|
Term
| (014) TRICARE For Life was made available? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (201) What actions can the health care team provide to alleviate some of the concerns Mr. Jones has concerning how he will ever recover in order to return to work to meet the families’ financial needs? |
|
Definition
| Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family |
|
|
Term
| (201) Above what altitude level is supplemental oxygen or positive cabin pressure necessary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (201) Which of the gas laws demonstrates molecular concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (201) Plasma lipids include what three substances? |
|
Definition
| Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol |
|
|
Term
| (201) What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (201) Self-esteem is interrelated with which attribute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (201) Jessica is born five weeks premature and is admitted to the NICU. Jessica’s health care team has taught both TSgt and Mrs. Adams many of the daily basic care skill necessary for Jessica. Which of the following physiological needs is the health care team providing for Jessica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (202) What systematic method is used to identify a patient’s problem and methodically organize interventions needed to assist the patient to the expected outcome of recover? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (202) What are three different ways assessment information is gathered? |
|
Definition
| Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal |
|
|
Term
| (202) Choosing specific intervention during the planning step of the nursing process involves collaboration among the? |
|
Definition
| Nurse, AMSC, and the patient |
|
|
Term
| (202) What is the next step when the expected outcomes of the nursing care plan are not met? |
|
Definition
| Process starts all over again, beginning with the assessment of the current problems |
|
|
Term
| (202) When a mistake is made when determining a patient’s need what action should be taken? |
|
Definition
| Apologize and take action to make things right for the patient |
|
|
Term
| (202) What attitude or personality is projected when you are not facing a patient when you are speaking to them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (202) Which of the following non-verbal body language does not portray a pleasing, helpful and approachable attitude? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (202) The rule of thumb to keep and individual on hold is how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) What universal measurement is used to represent the true hydrogen ion concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) What universal measurement is used to represent the true hydrogen ion concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) The term basic when referred to chemical compounds is also known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) Organic compounds contain both hydrogen and? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) The three primary inorganic molecules are? |
|
Definition
| Water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide |
|
|
Term
| (203) Which inorganic ion is necessary for the polarization of cell membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by? |
|
Definition
| Acetone in the breath and urine |
|
|
Term
| (203) Through the deamination process, the liver removes what protein molecule resulting in urea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) The body’s response to shivering is to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (203) How does high humidity affect body temperature? |
|
Definition
| Humid air is saturated with water making it very difficult for sweat to evaporate and cool the body |
|
|
Term
| (204) Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can result in? |
|
Definition
| Neural tube defects in newborns |
|
|
Term
| (204) Vitamin C does not include which of the following functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) A vitamin D deficiency causes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Vitamin E is not necessary for which of the following functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Vitamin K will not treat which of the following ailments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) What organs regulate the blood concentration of sodium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen? |
|
Definition
| Through an excessive amount of fluid loss |
|
|
Term
| (204) Where would you find a concentration of potassium is concentrated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) The primary route of treatment for potassium deficiency due to severe dehydration is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Oral iron supplements should not be taken with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (204) Which route is injectable iron administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes? |
|
Definition
| Protect against disease at the cellular level |
|
|
Term
| (205) Which protein is necessary for proper cell reproduction and division? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) What type of fluid is found in lymphatic capillaries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) Lymph nodes contain what cells in large number in order to fight invading microorganisms? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| (205) Which region of lymph nodes receives lymph from the lower limbs, external genitalia, and the lower abdominal wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) The thymus gland functions in association with which body system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) The endocrine activity of the thymus is dependant on which hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) Which organ is the largest lymphatic organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body’s response is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) How many days from first exposure to chickenpox will it take for an individual’s antibody concentration be high enough to detect the susceptibly to develop chickenpox? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (205) Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by |
|
Definition
| Artificially acquired active immunity |
|
|
Term
| (205) When an individual has received an injection of antiserum, they are protected by? |
|
Definition
| Artificially acquired passive immunity |
|
|
Term
| (206) The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (206) The bright red color and the pain associated with a cyst is due to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (206) How long could the reconstruction healing stage for a secondary intention closure take? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (207) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (208) All of the following are principles of asepsis except? |
|
Definition
| Promoting a septic environment |
|
|
Term
| (208) Using barriers as necessary for all patients is the definition of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (208) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a? |
|
Definition
| Knife with a detachable blade |
|
|
Term
| (208) What information should not be documented on the labels of any pathology specimens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (209) Fifteen milliliters are equal to how many tablespoons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (209) Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except? |
|
Definition
| For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day |
|
|
Term
| (209) Modified six medications rights include which of the following? |
|
Definition
| Patient, amount, medication, time, route, and documentation |
|
|
Term
| (209) The largest amount of a drug dose that will produce a therapeutic effect without producing symptoms of toxicity is known as what kind of dose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) All of the following are sources of medication except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) Ibuprofen can be administered to achieve which of the following drug actions? |
|
Definition
| Palliative and supportive |
|
|
Term
| (210) Palpitations, nervousness, and tachycardia are all side effects of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated with patients having the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) Increased gastrointestinal peristalsis, bladder contraction, and increased sweat secretions are the actions of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) The medications that block the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (210) The drug action 3D, is commonly seen with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (211) Which of the medications’ primary action is pain relief? |
|
Definition
| Analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics |
|
|
Term
| (211) Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with? |
|
Definition
| Preventing the formation of prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| (211) Contraindications of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (212) Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (212) Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the re-absorption of which chemical neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (212) Anti-anxiety medications are also referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) Before administering digitalis, it is important to check which of the following pulse point? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with? |
|
Definition
| Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm |
|
|
Term
| 213) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to? |
|
Definition
| Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion |
|
|
Term
| (213) When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators what affect is produced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin post surgically to prevent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) While undergoing heparin treatment Mr. Johnson’s diet should be monitored closely for which type of food? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (214) Aminoglycosides are used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (214) After five days of the penicillin treatment TSgt Adams develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? |
|
Definition
| Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes |
|
|
Term
| (215) Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (215) How many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (215) Upon entry to the military all Air Force recruits receive a booster of which vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (216) What is the most likely reason a provider prescribes sorbital as a pre-flexible sigmoidoscopy? |
|
Definition
| Clear the bowels of excess water and feces |
|
|
Term
| (216) Emetics are used to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (216) How should Dramamine be taken when orally administered? |
|
Definition
| 30 minutes before expected motion |
|
|
Term
| (217) Endocrine medication therapy is which Therapeutic drug action category? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (217) Some of the symptoms associated with type H diabetes are all of the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (218) What are the four types of diabetic neuropathy? |
|
Definition
| Autonomic, peripheral, focal, and proximal |
|
|
Term
| (218) Autonomic neuropathy affects the body system that? |
|
Definition
| Restores blood glucose levels to normal after a hypoglycemic episode |
|
|
Term
| (219) When is a seizure considered a life-threatening emergency? |
|
Definition
| After five minutes of seizure activity |
|
|
Term
| (220) Individuals in a persistent vegetative state retain? |
|
Definition
| Non-cognitive function and normal sleep patterns |
|
|
Term
| (220) For patients who are immobile, a primary nursing care is to? |
|
Definition
| Prevent pneumonia and bed sores |
|
|
Term
| (220) An endotrachael tube is used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (220) Ensuring the proper placement of an endotrachael tube is accomplished by what means? |
|
Definition
| Auscultation or chest x-ray |
|
|
Term
| (221) High priority patient conditions include all of the following except? |
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Definition
| Chest pain with systolic blood pressure less than 150 |
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|
Term
| (221) All of the following are recognized civilian triage colors except? |
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Definition
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Term
| (222) What arrhythmia is represented by no electrical activity in the heart? |
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Definition
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Term
| (223) During combat situations military fighting forces are expected to be affected by combat stress when? |
|
Definition
| Exposed to continuous combat for more than 100 days |
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Term
| (223) Individuals suffering from combat stress should be? |
|
Definition
| Allowed to carry out normal activities |
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|
Term
| (223) When using the Principles of BICEPS, what is the “E”? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (223) Most combat stress patients are returned to their unit? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| (224) The need for water intake is? |
|
Definition
| Necessary even when soldiers are not thirsty |
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|
Term
| (224) Fluid intake should not exceed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (224) What is the principle component of the wet bulb globe temperature? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| (224) The activity level of cleaning a rifle is considered? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| (225) When using the physical examination processing program (PEPP) the Standard Form (SF) 88 will be printed as? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| (225) What reference will provide the guidelines for DD Form 2766? |
|
Definition
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Term
| (225) Who is responsible to determine the dispositions for every flyer or special operator after every health care visit? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| (226) Which limitation code would be assigned for an individual who has normal vision of 20/400 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye, corrected to 20/20? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| (226) The term waiver applies to? |
|
Definition
| Flying or special operation duty personnel |
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|
Term
| (226) Guidance for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) can be found in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (226) When a unit with a Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) does not have a competent medical authority (CMA) assigned, how is documentation of medical care documented? |
|
Definition
| The Independent Duty Medical Technician will consult with a preceptor to review all findings and report them to the certifying official |
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|
Term
| (227) What preparation is used when performing specimen collection form aircrew members involved in a mishap? |
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Definition
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