Term
| (211) How can a health care worker assess a patient's level of pain? |
|
Definition
| observing a patient's reaction to pain through vital signs, positions, and emotional responses by the patient. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| endogenous analgesics produced within the brain as a reaction to severe pain or intense exercise. The endorphins block the transmission of pain |
|
|
Term
| (211) what are the three classifications of analgesics? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| (211) list the side effects of opioids |
|
Definition
sedation, confusion, euphoria, restlessness, hypotension and bradycardia.
the respiratory rate may be depressed, urinary retention may occur, along with blurred vision, and seizures with large doses |
|
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Term
| (what does the lay public need to be aware of when considering nonopioid analgesics? |
|
Definition
| aware of the dangers of self-medication, over dosage, side effects and interactions by inappropriate use of these readily available drugs. |
|
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Term
| (211) list the five disorders anti-inflammatories are commonly prescribed for. |
|
Definition
| arthritis, bursitis, gout, muscle strains and sprains that cause swelling limiting an individual's mobility. |
|
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Term
| (211) explain the function of a COX-2 inhibitor |
|
Definition
| newer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that selectively inhibit cyclooxygenase-2, prostaglandin synthesis, they do not inhibit platelet aggression |
|
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Term
| (211) barbiturates are commonly associated with what situations and why? |
|
Definition
| fatalities due to accidental overdoses, especially when combined with other CNS depressants or alcohol. they are particularly dangerous because they are metabolized and excreted slowly and remain in the system longer. |
|
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Term
| (211) list the side effects of nonbarbiturates |
|
Definition
| nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, rash, dizziness, and ataxia, leukopenia with prolonged use, daytime sedation, confusion and headache, amnesia and hallucinations. It is contraindicated for patients with known severe liver and renal impairment, and porphyria |
|
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Term
| (212) How do psychotropic medications work? |
|
Definition
| Exert a therapeutic effect on an individual's mental process, emotions or behavior. |
|
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Term
| (212) Why are CNS stimulants given? |
|
Definition
| Promoting central nervous system functioning. |
|
|
Term
| (212) antidepressents work in conjunction with which neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
| Dopamine, Serotonin, Norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| (212) What is the function of an antidepressant? |
|
Definition
| Enables neurotransmitters to travel across the synapse (the contact point of two neurons) to transmit the messages between the nerve cells. |
|
|
Term
| Both Remeron and Serzone are used for the treatment of what disorders? |
|
Definition
| Calming antidepressants that are useful in treating agitated depression, mixed anxiety and depression, or fibromyalgia. |
|
|
Term
| (212) what is the antidepressant action of MAOIs? |
|
Definition
| Increase the concentration of serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine in the neuronal synapse by inhibiting the monoamine oxidase enzyme. |
|
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Term
| (212) What are the signs of lithium toxicity? |
|
Definition
| Drowsiness, confusion, blurred vision, and photophobia. With toxicity some of the side effects signs worsen, such as tremors, muscle weakness, seizures may develop, or the cardiovascular system may collapse resulting in coma or death. |
|
|
Term
| (212) Describe the final progressive stage of alcoholism. |
|
Definition
| The alcoholic deteriorates in all facets of their life including loss of family, a collapse of their socio-economic status as a result of occupational failure and financial disrepair, physical trauma, and irrational fears. |
|
|
Term
| (212) what are the actions of psychomotor stimulants? |
|
Definition
| produce wakefulness, increased activity, and decreased appetite. |
|
|
Term
| (212) How long does marijuana last in the body system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (213) What are some of the factors considered when antiarrhythmics are chosen? |
|
Definition
| the type of arrhythmia, the frequency, cardiac and renal condition, and the current signs and symptoms the patient is showing. |
|
|
Term
| (213) How do B-adrenergic blockers work? beta blockers |
|
Definition
| by inhibiting adrenergic (sympathetic) nerve receptors. |
|
|
Term
| (213)the use of local anesthetics for antiarrhythmic therapy is contraindicated for what type of patients? |
|
Definition
| patients who are hypersensitive to local anesthetics (amide-type), which have repiratory depression or known heart block, children and for women who are pregnant and lactating. |
|
|
Term
| (213) What are the initial treatments used for mild hypertension? |
|
Definition
| The initial treatment includes life style changes that range from diet modification (low sodium), weight reduction, mild exercise program, smoking cessation, and stress reduction planning. |
|
|
Term
| (213) What drug is used to treat hypertensive patients with neuropathy and why? |
|
Definition
| ACE inhibitors can be used alone or combined with a diuretic. ACE inhibitors slow the progression of renal disease. |
|
|
Term
| (213) Explain the action of coumarin derivatives. |
|
Definition
| Coumarin derivatives alter the synthesis of blood coagulation factors in the liver by interfering with vitamin K. |
|
|
Term
| (213) Explain the guidelines for giving thromolytic agents. |
|
Definition
| Administration of a thrombolytic agent is administered in the emergency room, or intensive care unit in the first few hours (less than 6) after the onset of acute myocardial infarction or cerebral vascular accident. Close monitoring of hemodynamics and vital signs is standard for the first 48 hours with thromolytic therapy. |
|
|
Term
| (214) the choice of antacid used will be dependent on what factors? |
|
Definition
| palatability, adverse effects, acid neutralizing capacity, the sodium content and the patient's renal and cardiovascular function. |
|
|
Term
| (214) what is the primary use of antidiarrheal agents? |
|
Definition
| reduce the number of loose stools an individual is having. |
|
|
Term
| (214) What should the patient education include when taking absorbents and protectants? |
|
Definition
| avoid self-medication for longer than 48hrs, or if a fever develops, diet should consist of bland foods such as apples without peels or sugar added, rice, or bananas. Roughage should be taken out of the diet when trying to control diarrhea, increase their fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Drinking soda and apple juice should be avoided, but encourage water or power drinks with high electrolyte content in moderation. |
|
|
Term
| (214) What are the contraindications for taking Lomatil and Imodium? |
|
Definition
| Diarrhea induced by infection or poisoning, patients with colitis associated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, ulcerative colitis, and cirrhosis. It is contraindicated to medicate young children and pregnant patients with these drugs. |
|
|
Term
| (214) Lactinex is used for the treatment of what conditions? |
|
Definition
| Simple diarrhea caused by antibiotics, infection, irritable colon, colostomy or amebiasis. |
|
|
Term
| (214) What is the treatment of choice for simple constipation, and are available in what form? |
|
Definition
| Cellulose derivitives and bran, powders, flakes, granules, tablets, or liquids. |
|
|
Term
| (214) Which form of cathartic is the primary choice for pregnant women and children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (214) Stimulant laxatives are used for what situations? |
|
Definition
| used when rapid, thorough emptying of the bowel is required. When a patient si scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy, GI x-rays when barium is used or proctoscopies, the use os stimulant laxitives is commonly given as pre-procedure medication dosaging. |
|
|
Term
| (214) Emetics should not be used under what conditions? |
|
Definition
1: Ingestion of corrosive substances such as mineral acids or caustic alkalis such as drain cleaners, ammonia, dishwasher detergent and lye. Vomiting can result in additional tissue damage.
2: Ingestion of volatile petroleum products such as gasoline, lighter fluid and kerosene. Vomiting can cause aspiration and or asphyxiation.
3: Ingestion of convulsants such as strychnine or iodine. Vomiting can result in seizures.
4: When an individual is semiconscious, severly inebriated, in shock, convulsing or has no gag reflex.
5: If a patient is less than one year of age. |
|
|
Term
| (214) Antiemetics are used to treat what conditions? |
|
Definition
| to treat or prevent nausea, vomiting, or motion sickness. |
|
|
Term
| (215) How do the adrenal glands function? |
|
Definition
| Secrete hormones called corticosteroids that act on the immune system to suppress the body's response to either infection or trauma. |
|
|
Term
| (215) Explain hypothyroidism, and the signs and symptoms. |
|
Definition
| Underutilization of the thyroid, fatigue, dry skin, weight gain, sensitivity to cold, irregular menses and mental deterioration if untreated. |
|
|
Term
| (215) Why is insulin administered parenterally? |
|
Definition
| Administered parentally because it is destroyed through the GI tract. |
|
|
Term
| (215) Explain peak, onset, and duration of medication concentration. |
|
Definition
| The onset is the amount of time between the time a drug is administered and the first sign of its effects. The peak is the highest concentration attained from a dose. The duration is the time period from the onset of the drug action to the time when response is no longer seen. |
|
|
Term
| (215) list the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, and when do these signs usually occur? |
|
Definition
| Develops suddenly and is usually seen during the peak of the insulin action. These symptoms may include increased perspiration, irritability, confusion or bizarre behavior. Individuals may experience tremors, weakness, headache or tingling of the fingers. In severe cases the individual may lose consciousness and convulsions if untreated. |
|
|
Term
| (215) List the contraindications of sulfonylureas. |
|
Definition
| Patients with known liver and kidney impairment, debilitated or malnourished patients, and patients with severe infection. |
|
|
Term
| (215) Explain the action of Glucophage. |
|
Definition
| Works by decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insuling sensitivity in muscle. |
|
|
Term
| (216) What is the first step in antiinfective drug therapy? |
|
Definition
| Determine the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive. |
|
|
Term
| (216) List the four classifications of cephalosporin's and what they treat. |
|
Definition
1: first generation is usually effective against many gram-positive organisms, such as those that cause some pneumonias or urinary tract infections.
2: Second generations are usually effective against many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria like many strains causing bacterial influenza.
3: Third generation drugs are used in the treatment of mostly gram-negative bacteria and sometimes used for sexually transmitted diseases such as gonorrhea.
4: the fourth generation of cephalosporins is new. Works well with both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| (216) What instructions should be given to patients being treated with erythromycin? |
|
Definition
| Instructed that GI side effects are expected and adding buttermilk or yogurt to their diet may help regulate the intestinal flora and reduce the incidence of diarrhea. Erythromycins should be taken with a full glass of water 1hr before or 2hrs after meals. |
|
|
Term
| (216) penicillins are used prophylactically for what diseases? |
|
Definition
| Rheumatic fever and endocarditis. |
|
|
Term
| (216) List the contraindications or extreme cautions of quinolones. |
|
Definition
| contraindicated or extreme caution for elderly patients, especially with GI diseases or arteriosclerosis. Children or adolescents are at higher risk for cartilage damage. Patients who are pregnant, lactating, have severe renal impairment, seizure disorders, or cardiac disease must be monitored for adverse effects. |
|
|
Term
(211) which of the medications primary action is pain relief?
a. analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics
b. endorphins, hypnotics and sedative.
c. placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics.
d. stimulant, sedatives, and placebo. |
|
Definition
| a. analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics |
|
|
Term
(211) Anti inflammatory actions are associated with
a. curing joint dysfunctions
b. increased kidney functions
c. the recovery of alcohol abuse
d. preventing the formation of prostaglandins |
|
Definition
| d. preventing the formation of prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
(211) contraindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except
a. when taken with dairy
b. for patients with asthma
c. for patients taking anticoagulants
d. when undergoing elective surgery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
a. caffeine
b. dexadrine
c. concerta
d. ritalyn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) selective seratonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which neurotransmitter?
a. adrenaline
b. dopamine
c. serotonin
d. norepinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) antianxiety medications are also referred to as
a. uppers
b. stimulant
c. sedatives
d. minor tranquilizers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) Before administering digitalis, it is important to check which of the following pulse points?
a. apical
b. brachial
c. pedal
d. radial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213)toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
a. bradycardia
b. diplopia
c. tachcardia
d. vertigo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
a. diabetes militeus
b. renal and hepatic impairment
c. heart block and congestive heart failure
d. lung conditions that cause bronchospasm |
|
Definition
| d. lung conditions that cause bronchospasm |
|
|
Term
(213) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to
a. treat anemia
b. produce bradycardia
c. increase myocardial excitabilitiy
d. maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion |
|
Definition
| d. maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion |
|
|
Term
(213) when angiotensin-converting enxyme (ACE) inhibitors are takin in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators what affect is produced?
a. synergism
b. potentiate depression
c. potentiate hypotension
d. antagonize hypokalemia |
|
Definition
| c. potentiate hypotension |
|
|
Term
(213) Mr. Johnson has undergone hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin post sugically to prevent
a. deep vein thrombosis
b. peripheral vein collapse
c. gastrointestinal bleeding
d. headaches post spinal anesthesia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) While undergoing heparin treatment Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for which type of food?
a. legumes
b. whole milk
c. fish oils and salmon
d. green leafy vegetables |
|
Definition
| d. green leafy vegetables - think vit K |
|
|
Term
(213) the most seious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
a. arrhythmia
b. bleeding
c. tachycardia
d. vasoconstriction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) aminoglycosides are used for
a. long term treatment
b. short term treatment
c. the treatment of tinnitis
d. the treatment of renal dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) after 5 days of the penicillin treatment TSgt Adams develops diarrhea. What advice would be appropriate?
a. stop taking the medication
b. crush the penicillin before taking the dose
c. add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes.
d. bring the medication in to exchange for a differnt lot to begin treatment over. |
|
Definition
| c. add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes. |
|
|
Term
(217) Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?
a. anthrax
b. hepatitis B
c. influenza
d. small pox |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) how many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) upon entry to the military all Air Force recruits receive a booster of which vaccine?
a. anthrax
b. influenza
c. small pox
d. tetanus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) what is the most likely reason a provider prescribes sorbital as a pre flexible sigmoidoscopy procedure medication?
a. produce a calming effect before the procedure
b. increase fecal production to use for sampling
c. produce constipation and stop any feces expulsion
d. clear the bowels of excess water and feces |
|
Definition
| d. clear the bowels of excess water and feces |
|
|
Term
(217) emetics are used to
a. alter stool consistency
b. produce constipation
c. induce vomiting
d. slow intestinal motility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) how should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?
a. 30 minutes before expected motion
b. 2 hrs before expected sleep
c. when in a large crowd for longer than 30 min.
d. when activity will raise heart rate over 80bpm |
|
Definition
| a. 30 minutes before expected motion |
|
|
Term
(215) Endocrine medication therapy is which therapeutic drug action category?
a. curative
b. palliative
c. restorative
d. supportive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) some of the symptoms associated with type II diabetes are all of the following except
a. polydispia
b. slow healing
c. vision problems
d. excessive weight loss |
|
Definition
|
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