Term
| A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration? |
|
Definition
| Technicians are permittedt to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. |
|
|
Term
| The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are |
|
Definition
| allergies and current medications |
|
|
Term
| Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these names is is used primarily by chemists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those "rights" when medications are administered? |
|
Definition
| Choose the method of administration. |
|
|
Term
| Which is not included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A provider can initiate a drug order in |
|
Definition
| two ways (AF Form 3066 & Verbal). |
|
|
Term
| What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied? |
|
Definition
| Computer-generated product. |
|
|
Term
| Drug administration is controlled primarily by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use? |
|
Definition
| Schedule I (LSD, Heroin, & Marijuana). |
|
|
Term
| Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as |
|
Definition
| Schedule II drugs (Opium, Morphine, Meperidine, Codeine, Cocaine, Amphetamines, & Secobarbital). |
|
|
Term
| What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances? |
|
Definition
| Controlled Substances Act. |
|
|
Term
| Penicillian admnistered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? |
|
Definition
| Lower digestive system content. |
|
|
Term
| Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? |
|
Definition
| Warmer temperatures increase circulation. |
|
|
Term
| Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? |
|
Definition
| PDR (Physician's Desk Reference). |
|
|
Term
| What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines? |
|
Definition
| Local facility formulary. |
|
|
Term
| An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preperation called a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preperation called a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration to a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which element is not required on a medical order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the route of administration part of a required medical order? |
|
Definition
| Some medications are available in more than one form. |
|
|
Term
| Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneouse injections? |
|
Definition
| Only small amounts of a drug may be administered. |
|
|
Term
| The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parts of a syringe are the |
|
Definition
| barrel, plunger, and tip. |
|
|
Term
| The parts of a needle are the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured |
|
Definition
| at the patient's bedside. |
|
|
Term
| You are administering a tablet or lozenge buccally to a patient. To do this properly, you would place the medication |
|
Definition
| between the upper molars and the cheek of the patient. |
|
|
Term
| The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to |
|
Definition
| assess patient's vital signs before, during, and after therepy. |
|
|
Term
| When administerin eye medications, you should ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other. This will aid in |
|
Definition
| preventing the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. |
|
|
Term
| Into what body cavity are otic medications adminsitered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe |
|
Definition
| downward to straighten the canal. |
|
|
Term
| Vaginal suppositories are |
|
Definition
| administered to combat infection. |
|
|
Term
| You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To do this properly, you would hang the bag |
|
Definition
| 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. |
|
|
Term
| Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotention, and lower central venous pressure? |
|
Definition
| Hypovolemia (Fluid Volume Deficit). |
|
|
Term
| Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausia, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalances? |
|
Definition
| Hypokalemia (Potassium Deficit). |
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhymias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
| Hyperkalemia (Potassium Excess). |
|
|
Term
| Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most direct approach for administering medications is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The basic purpose of infusion therepy is to |
|
Definition
| administer fluids into the circulatory system. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A scalp vein needle (commonly used in pediatric patients) is an example of a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intraveneous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on a patient scheduled for long-term therepy, you must change the intraveneous (IV) site every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intraveneous (IV) solution, you would |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an inflammation of a vein. |
|
|
Term
| The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intraveneous (IV) solution is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilites is to document a patient's transfusion on |
|
Definition
| a Standard Form 518 (Blood or Blood Component Transfusion). |
|
|
Term
| What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The diet that is inadiquate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's NG tube? |
|
Definition
| Check for tube placement. |
|
|
Term
| Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? |
|
Definition
| 90 degrees; 6 to 10 inches. |
|
|
Term
| When administering an enema, the patient is preferably positioned |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of a colostomy irrigation is to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration)is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmanory disease (COPD)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a |
|
Definition
| flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device (FROPVD). |
|
|
Term
| To prevent hypoxia, suction should be limited to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Closed-chest drainage is a system used to |
|
Definition
| reexpand a collapsed lung. |
|
|
Term
| A patient describes a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within of his or her chest. This condition is called heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set the difibrillator at |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to insertion of a central veneous pressure line to decrease the change of an air embolism, the patient is taught the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The best time to schedule patient activities is |
|
Definition
| when the patient is energetic. |
|
|
Term
| You are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? |
|
Definition
| Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression. |
|
|
Term
| What grade of a decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? |
|
Definition
| Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain. |
|
|
Term
| Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To use the internal girdle of support, you must |
|
Definition
| simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles. |
|
|
Term
| Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? |
|
Definition
| Size and capabilities of the patient. |
|
|
Term
| Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient who has back or chest injuries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by |
|
Definition
| using good teamwork and proper body mechanics. |
|
|
Term
| The person in charge of a bed to a strecher transfer should be positioned |
|
Definition
| at the head of a the bed on the stretcher side. |
|
|
Term
| A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent |
|
Definition
| pressure on the back of the legs. |
|
|
Term
| Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher? |
|
Definition
| Drawsheet and roller board. |
|
|
Term
| The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of exercise would you provide for a patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle |
|
Definition
| contraction without body movement. |
|
|
Term
| Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit? |
|
Definition
| Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight. |
|
|
Term
| How many pounds of baggage are allowed for the patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When planning nursing activities, what is the main goal? |
|
Definition
| Help the patient reach the highest possible level of health. |
|
|
Term
| Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? |
|
Definition
| A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. |
|
|
Term
| What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action would you take when recovering a postoperative patient who is hypoxic due to respiratory depression from the anesthetic agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which position is the bed placed in preperation ro recieve a postoperative surgical patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The postoperative patient is required to turn, cough, and deep breathe every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dressing is applied to a wound when debridement is needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What size suture material is used to close an incision on the bottom of the foot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A prolonged heat treatment can cause what reflex action in the human body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of traumatic fracture does a whiplash cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Avoid the semi-recumbant position for long periods of time for the orthopaedic patient because it |
|
Definition
| promotes flexion deformities of the hip. |
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which procedure or treatment is used to prevent or alleviate irritation around the edge of a cast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control? |
|
Definition
| Established daily rituals and routines. |
|
|
Term
| The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when the lose their sense of control is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of sleep required at nightly by elderly patients is generally |
|
Definition
| less because of frequent daytime naps. |
|
|
Term
| Which is a sign of uremia (urine in the blood)? |
|
Definition
| Oliguria (urine output less than 400mL). |
|
|
Term
| Moodiness, bad temper, and extreme neatness are influenced by what factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which psychatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the rehabilitation process begin? |
|
Definition
| As soon as the patient is admitted. |
|
|
Term
| Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except |
|
Definition
| electroconvulsive therapy. |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse? |
|
Definition
| Spouse states it will never happen again. |
|
|
Term
| Which classification of a harmful substance causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After questioning a patient, what should be done if the patient is still not sure whether or not he or she is allergic to an immunization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After receiving a vaccine, how long may it take for immunity to develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A proctoscopy is an inspection of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The person who assumes the responsibility of patient education in the "shaving clinic" is the |
|
Definition
| aerospace medical service technician. |
|
|
Term
| What phase in the treatment of pseudofolliculitis barbae begins when inflammation has subsided and ends with complete control of the problem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many inches is the Amsler's grid chart held away from the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the unit of measurement for the near point of accomodation test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is that part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes are motionless? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common visual field defect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Noise assessment is conducted by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many years is the certification for hearing conservation valid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The measurement expressed in Hz refers to what principle of sound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the vehicle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For accidents involving hazardous materials, where should you park the ambulance and how far away should you remain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The "A" in AVPU stands for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide |
|
Definition
| ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen. |
|
|
Term
| For what type of patient is a rapid trauma assessment performed and what is looked at? |
|
Definition
| Patient with a significant mechanism of injury & the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. |
|
|
Term
| When you ask the medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are questioning about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are questioning about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you ask a medical patient what has triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A bruise behind the ears called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within how many minutes is the recommended interval for reassessment of a stable patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients breathing adequately are placed in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients suffering from a flail chest will most likely exhibit |
|
Definition
| paradoxical motion of chest wall. |
|
|
Term
| The all encompassing term used by EMT's to indicate any kind of problem with the heart is cardiac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many shocks are recommended to be delivered after analysis of a shockable rhythm by the operation of an auto or SAED? |
|
Definition
| A set of three stacked shocks. |
|
|
Term
| After a set of shocks, if the patient's pulse does not return, your next step is to |
|
Definition
| resume CPR and repeat cycle of shocks. |
|
|
Term
| Oral glucose is administered to the diabetic with an altered mental status who is able to swallow, because it |
|
Definition
| counteracts the effects of low blood sugar on the brain. |
|
|
Term
| Activated charcoal should not be given when the patient has ingested |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the contact poison phosphorus removed from the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within how many hours does a Black Widow spider bite victim usually develop systemic reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Passive rewarming involves |
|
Definition
| simply covering the patient. |
|
|
Term
| A condition in which the placenta is formed low in the uterus and close the cervical opening preventing the normal delivery of the fetus is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient's usual first emotional reaction to rape is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for questioning and examining a rape patient or for notifying legal authorities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To open the airway of a child, you must never |
|
Definition
| hyperextend the child's neck. |
|
|
Term
| A detailed physical exam on a child is completed from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bulging fontanelles on an infant could indicate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your responsiblilites of suspected child abuse include |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A situation in which a patient exhibits abnormal behavior within a given situation either due to extremes of emotion leading to violence or a psychological or physical condition is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the key to helping defuse a suicide attempt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For an adult, how much sudden blood loss is considered serious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many cc of blood loss is considered serious for an infant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The time within which surgery must take place for a successful resuscitation from shock called the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of shock is caused by a loss of blood or other body fluids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The PASG can compensate for up to what percentage of lost blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of shock is an internal failure of the body to control the diameter of the blood vessels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which acronym is used by EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture? |
|
Definition
| PSD (Painful, Swollen, Deformity). |
|
|
Term
| Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because a greater blood loss is possible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With injuries in and around a joint, make sure that the splint immobilizes the |
|
Definition
| bone above and below the injury |
|
|
Term
| There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure with in how many minutes of the accident? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A burn is classified as moderate if it involves |
|
Definition
| full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface. |
|
|
Term
| When caring for a patient with electrical burns, your first priority is |
|
Definition
| to protect yourself from the electricity. |
|
|
Term
| What regulations govern the number, type, colors, and locations of the rotating beacons and warning lights on the ambulance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which emergency response refers to an emergency with lights and sirens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much vacuum must suctions units provide when the tube is clamped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what speed (mph) does hydroplaning occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the correct order for applying a short spine immobilization device? 1. Secure the device to the patient's torso. 2. Secure the patient's head to the device. 3. Position device behind the paitient. 4. Evaluate torso fixation and pad behind neck as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mass casualty victims are categorized according to |
|
Definition
| priority for treatment and transportation. |
|
|
Term
| Using the civilian four-level triage system, a patient with complicated burns is classified as priority |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are patients classified under the military triage system? |
|
Definition
| Minimal, Immediate, Delayed, and Expectant. |
|
|
Term
| Under the military triage system a patient with extensive burns is classified as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to document patient evaluation and treatment in wartime situation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specifically, who makes the finals determination on return to flying status when aircrew members are treated in other clinics or medical specialties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flight surgeons review all mishap reports and summaries to |
|
Definition
| identify human factor elements pertinent to the flying mission. |
|
|
Term
| What major command is responsible for intercontinental ballistic missle (ICBM) operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missle systems? |
|
Definition
| Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished. |
|
|
Term
| Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when |
|
Definition
| there is an intent for flight. |
|
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Term
| What class of mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The four triage categories are |
|
Definition
| minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant. |
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Term
| What is the triage category for a patient with partial thickness burns of less than 15 percent of the body? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Who must give permission to remove the fatalities following an off-base accident that involves a military aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Local civilian officials. |
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Term
| At a crash site, if there is a possible hazard from life suport equipment, what agency should be notified? |
|
Definition
| Explosive Ordinance Disposal. |
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|
Term
| You must report any episode that produces abnormal physical, mental or behavioral symptoms that are noticed by individual crewmembers or by others during or after the flight, as what type of physiological event? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found in |
|
Definition
| AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports. |
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|
Term
| The overall purpose of flightline visits from the flight surgeon is to |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to providing flyers' with medical care, which of the following sevices is also provided by the flight surgeon and 4N0X1 in support of the flying mission? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following lists include rated officers only? |
|
Definition
| Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons. |
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Term
| Who is responsible for completeing an AF Form 1042? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completeded? |
|
Definition
| File it in the individual's health record. |
|
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Term
| For transient personnel, how many copies of the AF Form 1042 are sent with the original to an individual's home bse flight surgeon's office? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you start a new AF Form 1041? |
|
Definition
| First day of every month. |
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|
Term
| Administration of the soft contact lenses (SCL) programs is the responsibility of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for training aircrew members on the emergency removal of soft contact lenses (SCL)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary refrence of everyday Air Force writing is |
|
Definition
| AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paper is used for intra-departmental memos and letters? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What do you do if you make a mistake while documenting information on a patient record? |
|
Definition
| Draw a single line through the error, make the correction, and initial the error. |
|
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Term
| What is the primary device used to store information on a computer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What administration tool identifies each and every record series maintained for an office record, regardless of the record's location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in |
|
Definition
| AFAM 48-133, Physical Examination Techniques. |
|
|
Term
| Whenever a member's qualifications for continued service are questionable, the member's case is processed under the provisions provided in all of the following except |
|
Definition
| AFPAM 48-133, Physical Examination Techniques. |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report is to |
|
Definition
| communicate information to nonmedical authorities in layman terms. |
|
|
Term
| For members possessing 4T profiles, the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report, must be reviewed every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Including the "X" factor, how many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main consideration (function of the body part) under the physical profile factor "E"? |
|
Definition
| Distant visual acuity only. |
|
|
Term
| A strength aptitude test (SAT) is rated in profile factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you use the Department of the Army (DA) Form 3349, Physical Profile Seria, in lieu of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial, what must be done (if anything) to the Army 3 profile grade to identify an Air Force member as not compatible with worldwi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process to determine members who are not worldwide qualified? |
|
Definition
| Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) |
|
|
Term
| Record review in lieu of board processing is accomplished when |
|
Definition
| a defect is discovered as an incidental finding and the evaluee seems qualified for continued military service. |
|
|
Term
| The body responsible for determining if a member's physical defect or condition renders the memer unfit for duty is the |
|
Definition
| Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) |
|
|
Term
| Who has the authority to retire or seperate members who are found physically unfit to perform the duties of their office or grade? |
|
Definition
| The Secretary of the Air Force or a designated special assistant only. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) recommended disposition? |
|
Definition
| Forward to Medical Evaluation Board. |
|
|
Term
| Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list (TDRL) for not more than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The phyiscal, psychological, and educational qualifications all members must meet for each AFSC can be found in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals applying for Personnel Reliability Program status must meet the medical requirements specified in |
|
Definition
| AFI 36-2104, Nuclear Weapons Personal Reliability Program. |
|
|
Term
| Potentially disqualifying information (PDI) is any information regarding, but not limited to, a person's |
|
Definition
| physical, mental, and emotional status. |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for reporting potentially disqualifying information to the commander of a TDY individual on PRP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action is taken when a disqualifying defect is found during a flying class I physical examination? |
|
Definition
| Complete the exam regardless of the defect and send it to the appropriate certifying authority. |
|
|
Term
| The ultimate waiver authority for all medical waivers is |
|
Definition
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