Term
1. (401) The military member’s physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is
considered their
a. retirement designation.
b. place of residency.
c. desired location.
d. home of record. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. (401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new
location you may change your
a. legal voting residence.
b. home of record.
c. citizenship.
d. residency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. (401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you
last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your
a. legal federal residence.
b. legal state of residence.
c. desired state residence.
d. desired federal residence. |
|
Definition
| b. legal state of residence. |
|
|
Term
4. (401) Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine
residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes?
a. State.
b. Local.
c. Federal.
d. Municipal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. (401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to
a. prescribe or fix, or attempt to prescribe or fix, the qualifications of voters.
b. influence or attempt to influence the vote of a member of the Armed Forces.
c. require or attempt to require a member of the Armed Forces to march to a polling place.
d. provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. |
|
Definition
| d. provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. |
|
|
Term
6. (401) Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from
candidates, governors, United Stated Senators and Representatives?
a. Air Force Inspector General employees.
b. Voting Information Center staff.
c. Installation commanders.
d. Major command staff. |
|
Definition
| b. Voting Information Center staff. |
|
|
Term
7. (401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for
review, to evaluate the effectiveness, and ensure compliance with Department of Defense (DOD)
regulations and public law?
a. Air Force Inspector General office.
b. Voting Information Center.
c. Installation command.
d. Major command. |
|
Definition
| a. Air Force Inspector General office. |
|
|
Term
8. (401) Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer
(IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or
media training course?
a. Air Force Inspector General personnel.
b. Voting Information Center employees.
c. Installation commanders.
d. Major command staff. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO)
he or she must make sure the civilian’s minimum grade is
a. GS–07.
b. GS–09.
c. GS–11.
d. GS–12. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer
(IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member’s minimum grade is
a. O–2.
b. O–3.
c. O–4.
d. O–5. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. (401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting
Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of
a. E–4.
b. E–5.
c. E–6.
d. E–7. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. (402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption
expenses, per adoptive child, up to
a. $1,000.
b. $1,500.
c. $2,000.
d. $2,500. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. (402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary
adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to
a. $3,000.
b. $4,000.
c. $5,000.
d. $6,000. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. (402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a
request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?
a. 12.
b. 15.
c. 18.
d. 24. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. (403) In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other
than Air Force personnel (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval
authority is the
a. Secretary of the Air Force.
b. Air Force Chief of Staff.
c. Secretary of Defense.
d. Joint Chief of Staff. |
|
Definition
| b. Air Force Chief of Staff. |
|
|
Term
16. (403) Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization
program to name streets, buildings, rooms and facilities?
a. Major command.
b. Wing command.
c. Numbered Air Force.
d. Air Force Chief of Staff’s office. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. (403) All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must
be staffed for approval by the
a. Joint Chief of Staff.
b. Secretary of Defense.
c. Air Force Chief of Staff.
d. Secretary of the Air Force |
|
Definition
| c. Air Force Chief of Staff. |
|
|
Term
18. (404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
a. Provide casualty representative reports of casualties to ensure timely notification.
b. Eliminate delays in providing benefits to the next of kin (NOK).
c. Closely track all casualty reports and notifications.
d. Assist the family with funeral arrangements. |
|
Definition
| d. Assist the family with funeral arrangements. |
|
|
Term
19. (404) Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of
a. supervision.
b. command.
c. personnel.
d. control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. (404) Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and
operation of the Air Force Casualty Program?
a. Chief, Casualty Matters Division.
b. Casualty assistance representative.
c. Force Support squadron commander.
d. Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief. |
|
Definition
| a. Chief, Casualty Matters Division. |
|
|
Term
21. (404) Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services
information and training during the Commander’s Orientation Program?
a. Force Support Squadron.
b. Casualty assistance office.
c. Wing commander’s office.
d. Major command. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. (404) Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU),
and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental
instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification is the responsibility of the
a. Wing commander.
b. Casualty assistance representative.
c. Force Support squadron commander.
d. Military Personnel Section commander. |
|
Definition
| b. Casualty assistance representative. |
|
|
Term
23. (404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of
casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the
member’s
a. religion, age, home address, date of birth, and gender.
b. name, age, home of record, and marital status.
c. name, age, home of record, race, and awards.
d. age, home of record, race, and gender. |
|
Definition
| c. name, age, home of record, race, and awards. |
|
|
Term
24. (405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander,
who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact?
a. Mortuary affairs representatives.
b. Security forces commander.
c. Casualty team.
d. Honor guard. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25. (405) When a commander determines that a person’s absence is involuntary and there is
insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as
a. Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN).
b. Missing (Non-hostile).
c. Missing (hostile).
d. Very Seriously Ill. |
|
Definition
| b. Missing (Non-hostile). |
|
|
Term
26. (406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is
the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?
a. Casualty Report.
b. Casualty Repeat.
c. Casualty Release.
d. Casualty Identify. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly
application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without
excessive
a. manual guidance.
b. manual typing.
c. documents.
d. usage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft
Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of
application?
a. Independently sourced.
b. Minimally operated.
c. Well equipped.
d. Stand alone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. (406) After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the
casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined
by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 12. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. (406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to
family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item
a. TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.
b. UNDETERMINED.
c. UNCONFIRMED.
d. UNKNOWN. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. (406) Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual?
a. Force Support Squadron commander.
b. Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief.
c. Installation commander.
d. Major command staff. |
|
Definition
| c. Installation commander. |
|
|
Term
32. (406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered
reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
a. Statements of witnesses to the incident.
b. Circumstances of the incident.
c. Location of the incident.
d. Search results. |
|
Definition
| c. Location of the incident. |
|
|
Term
33. (407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?
a. AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures.
b. AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.
c. AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.
d. AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services. |
|
Definition
| d. AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services. |
|
|
Term
34. (407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without
permission?
a. Name and gender.
b. Date and location of the incident.
c. Gross pay and basic allowance for housing.
d. Pay date, military base pay and allowances. |
|
Definition
| c. Gross pay and basic allowance for housing. |
|
|
Term
35. (407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released?
a. Pay date, military base pay, and allowances.
b. Any information on the member’s family.
c. Age and date of birth.
d. Home of record. |
|
Definition
| b. Any information on the member’s family. |
|
|
Term
36. (407) For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime,
do not share personal information that pertains to
a. name and rank.
b. casualty status.
c. age and date of birth.
d. date and location of incident. |
|
Definition
| c. age and date of birth. |
|
|
Term
37. (408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental
assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments?
a. EQUAL.
b. EQUAL-Plus.
c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
d. Base-level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
38. (408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on
individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound
assignment technician have to verify the member’s eligibility?
a. 7.
b. 14.
c. 15.
d. 30. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39. (408) If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no
indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section
(MPS) take regarding the assignment selection?
a. Request a replacement and forward rip.
b. Request an extension to resolve condition.
c. Reclama the assignment and not forward rip.
d. Reclama the assignment and forward rip to Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). |
|
Definition
| c. Reclama the assignment and not forward rip. |
|
|
Term
40. (408) Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a
member, how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the
Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
a. 7.
b. 14.
c. 15.
d. 30. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. (408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date
(RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how
many calendar days?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 7. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. (408) After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the
unit commander, the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days?
a. 7.
b. 13.
c. 15.
d. 21. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43. (408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?
a. 63.
b. 93.
c. 899.
d. 965. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. (408) If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the
current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the
member’s commander?
a. Statement of service.
b. Memorandum of agreement.
c. Security verification checklist.
d. Security requirement memorandum. |
|
Definition
| d. Security requirement memorandum. |
|
|
Term
45. (408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas
with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT
a. 63.
b. 899.
c. 965.
d. 1466. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
46. (408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change
of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
47. (408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she
can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. (409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force
Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online
a. Request for Terminal Leave.
b. Initial Separation Briefing.
c. Separation Incentive Briefing.
d. Release from Duty Counseling. |
|
Definition
| b. Initial Separation Briefing. |
|
|
Term
49. (409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation?
a. Parenthood.
b. Erroneous enlistment.
c. Entry-level performance and conduct.
d. Progressively downward trend in performance ratings. |
|
Definition
| d. Progressively downward trend in performance ratings. |
|
|
Term
50. (409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily
completed a commitment to military service?
a. Favorable.
b. Honorable.
c. Under Honorable (General) Conditions.
d. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
51. (409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the
characterization for discharge is
a. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions.
b. Under Honorable Conditions.
c. Honorable.
d. Favorable. |
|
Definition
| a. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions. |
|
|
Term
52. (409) Without retaining for six months, who may directly discharge an officer that is considered a
threat to good order and discipline?
a. Secretary of the Air Force.
b. Air Force Chief of Staff.
c. Secretary of Defense.
d. Joint Chief of Staff. |
|
Definition
| a. Secretary of the Air Force. |
|
|
Term
53. (409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed
standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and
when they
a. pose a threat to themselves.
b. pose a threat to national security.
c. fail to meet the commander’s suspense.
d. fail to meet the minimum fitness standards. |
|
Definition
| b. pose a threat to national security. |
|
|
Term
54. (409) What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a recommendation on a tendered
resignation as a result of a pending court-martial?
a. Expense.
b. Timeliness.
c. Availability.
d. Embarrassment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55. (409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many
years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have?
a. 5.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56. (410) In order for a military member to obtain a critical personnel reliability program (PRP)
position, that member must possess all of these attributes except
a. has access and technical knowledge.
b. has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit.
c. can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon.
d. is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons. |
|
Definition
| d. is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons. |
|
|
Term
57. (410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they
must possess all of these attributes except
a. has access, but no technical knowledge.
b. controls access into areas containing nuclear weapons.
c. has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors.
d. has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit. |
|
Definition
| c. has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors. |
|
|
Term
58. (410) Within how many work days following the review of a permanent decertification, does the
reviewing official (RO) notify the individual and certifying official (CO) of the findings and
conclusion?
a. 7.
b. 15.
c. 21.
d. 30. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. (410) Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing official (RO) on personnel
reliability program (PRP) matters and appointing an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties?
a. Group.
b. Vice wing.
c. Force support squadron.
d. Military personnel section. |
|
Definition
| c. Force support squadron. |
|
|
Term
60. (410) Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual identified for personnel
reliability program (PRP) duties is the responsibility of the
a. reviewing official.
b. certifying official.
c. unit PRP monitor.
d. installation PRP monitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
61. (410) Coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel reliability program (PRP)
personnel security investigation (PSI) requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner, and
followed up for adjudication is the responsibility of the
a. reviewing official (RO).
b. certifying official (CO).
c. unit PRP monitor.
d. installation PRP monitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
62. (410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and
members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or
she works with the
a. primary care manager.
b. medical group commander.
c. medical records technician.
d. competent medical authority. |
|
Definition
| d. competent medical authority. |
|
|
Term
63. (410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the
personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed,
the member may receive certification as
a. initial.
b. interim.
c. controlled.
d. disqualified. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. (410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals
from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include
a. advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance.
b. being arrested at the installation gate for an illegal substance in your vehicle.
c. using expired prescription medications after the intended use.
d. hitting a parked car after consuming too much alcohol. |
|
Definition
| a. advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance. |
|
|
Term
65. (411) The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Weighted Airmen
Promotion System (WAPS) database where the eligibility file is
a. monitored.
b. confirmed.
c. accepted.
d. created. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. (411) What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a Personnel Delivery
Memorandum (PSDM) with processing instructions for that upcoming cycle?
a. Promotion cycle.
b. Promotion file build.
c. Supplemental file build.
d. Supplemental release notification. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
67. (411) Before the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) testing cycle begins, HQ AFPC
flows a request for career development course (CDC) reference material for each promotion
eligible Airman to the
a. Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA).
b. Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS).
c. Senior enlisted advisor (SEA).
d. Career field manager (CFM). |
|
Definition
| a. Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA). |
|
|
Term
68. (411) The system used to select and classify individuals and assess their skills and knowledge in
various areas is called
a. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
c. Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS).
d. virtual enlisted promotion (EPROM) System. |
|
Definition
| c. Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS). |
|
|
Term
69. (411) For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test under the Weighted
Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) in their
a. Duty Air Force Specialty Code (DAFSC).
b. Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC).
c. Primary Air Force Specialty Code (PAFSC).
d. Secondary Air Force Specialty Code (2AFSC). |
|
Definition
| b. Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC). |
|
|
Term
70. (411) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to
query enlisted promotions results by name
a. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country.
b. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, and PAS code only.
c. unit, AFSC, PAS code, and PFE/SKT test scores.
d. AFSC and PAS code only. |
|
Definition
| a. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. |
|
|
Term
71. (412) Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive
categories, promotion zones, eligibility, and selection criteria?
a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)/CC.
b. Military Personnel Section (MPS) commander
c. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).
d. Major command (MAJCOM)/CC. |
|
Definition
| c. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF). |
|
|
Term
72. (412) The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that
is
a. fair and equitable.
b. fair and competitive.
c. eligible and qualified.
d. eligible and deserving. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
73. (412) Which element or function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status
for promotion?
a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Career Development element.
d. Force Management Operations element. |
|
Definition
| c. Career Development element. |
|
|
Term
74. (412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible
officer to the local base media containing all of this information except
a. the board convening date.
b. name and rank of the board president.
c. name and rank of the most junior officer.
d. name and rank of the most senior officer. |
|
Definition
| b. name and rank of the board president. |
|
|
Term
75. (412) Which organization implements the approved promotion program through a fair and
impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection
process?
a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Military Personnel Section (MPS).
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
d. Wing command. |
|
Definition
| a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
|
|
Term
76. (413) Which document contains personnel assigned, position numbers, duty Air Force specialty
codes (DAFSC), authorized grades, functional account codes, personnel accounting symbols, and
required security clearance levels?
a. Commander’s enlisted management roster.
b. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
c. Unit manpower document (UMD).
d. Alpha roster. |
|
Definition
| b. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR). |
|
|
Term
77. (413) Which document is used to outline the Military Personnel Section (MPS) requirements to
ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number, and to facilitate timely and accurate input
of current data after a member’s arrival?
a. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet.
c. Unit manpower document (UMD).
d. Alpha roster. |
|
Definition
| b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet. |
|
|
Term
78. (413) A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and
promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the
a. initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet.
b. unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
c. unit manpower document (UMD).
d. alpha roster. |
|
Definition
| c. unit manpower document (UMD). |
|
|
Term
79. (413) The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit
manpower document (UMD) will give you the manning
a. capability.
b. required.
c. strength.
d. allowed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
80. (414) Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of
a. accounting.
b. operations.
c. acquisition.
d. navigating. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
81. (414) Regarding contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status reporting, which is not a
deployment availability code (DAV) category?
a. Time.
b. Legal.
c. Physical.
d. Personal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
82. (414) When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case
Management System (CMS), what system will your commander utilize?
a. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM).
b. Assignment Management System (AMS).
c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
d. Case Management System (CMS). |
|
Definition
| a. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM). |
|
|
Term
83. (415) An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is given to a military member
upon their completion of
a. basic training.
b. technical training.
c. skill level upgrade.
d. in-processing actions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
84. (415) Designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for each officer and enlisted
Airman is the responsibility of the
a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Unit training manager (UTM).
c. Base training manager (BTM).
d. Military Personnel Section (MPS). |
|
Definition
| d. Military Personnel Section (MPS). |
|
|
Term
85. (415) When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an individual is most qualified
to perform in; one that reflects their skill level, experience, complexity, education and training,
equipment, and interests is called their
a. secondary.
b. primary.
c. control.
d. duty. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
86. (415) When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which factor is not a criteria
for eligibility?
a. Retraining.
b. Initial classification.
c. Special duty submission.
d. Downgrade or withdrawal. |
|
Definition
| c. Special duty submission. |
|
|
Term
87. (415) Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other than initial, retraining,
normal skill-level upgrade, and special duty identifier (SDI) actions are reviewed for propriety by
both the gaining and losing
a. Career field managers.
b. Base training managers.
c. Major command (MAJCOM) assignment managers.
d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers. |
|
Definition
| d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers. |
|
|
Term
88. (415) Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their control Air Force
specialty code (CAFSC) up to 130 days in a 12-month period?
a. The unit commander.
b. Total force service center.
c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
d. Force Management Operations element. |
|
Definition
| d. Force Management Operations element. |
|
|
Term
89. (416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training
a. monthly.
b. quarterly.
c. annually.
d. every two years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
90. (416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge
the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information
before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?
a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
91. (416) When performing system updates, it is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the
correct incident, duration, and for the correct person. Which code would you use in the military
personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect a member on a control roster?
a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 3. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
92. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a
member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment?
a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 3. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
93. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a
member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only?
a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 3. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
94. (416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
a. E.
b. F.
c. G.
d. H. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
95. (416) What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with adverse actions?
a. 12 and 14.
b. 12 and 16.
c. 16 and 18.
d. 16 and 20. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
96. (416) Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service members?
a. General court-martial (GCM) only.
b. Summary court-martial (SCM) only.
c. Special court-martial (SPCM) only.
d. SCM and GCM. |
|
Definition
| b. Summary court-martial (SCM) only. |
|
|
Term
97. (417) The total force development program will produce a total force and guide development
through levels of leadership. Which is not considered a level of leadership?
a. Tactical.
b. Strategic.
c. Functional.
d. Operational. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
98. (417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education
(PME) and formal training, what system would you use?
a. Personnel data training system (PDTS).
b. Oracle training administration (OTA).
c. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
d. Automated records management system (ARMS). |
|
Definition
| b. Oracle training administration (OTA). |
|
|
Term
99. (417) Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of these formal training requirements
except
a. establishing.
b. controlling.
c. planning.
d. funding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
100. (417) The policy on training line numbers (TLN) is focused on the formal training office being
located in the Force Support squadron under the Force Development flight (FSS/FSDE). If the
formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the
requirements outlined in this process?
a. Customer support element.
b. Force Management Operations element.
c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE.
d. HQ Air Force Personnel Center Education and Training Branch |
|
Definition
| c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE. |
|
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