Term
1. (201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may
arise from
a. adversaries.
b. dignitaries.
c. diplomats.
d. allies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. (201) What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
a. Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic.
b. Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal.
c. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.
d. Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military. |
|
Definition
| c. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military |
|
|
Term
3. (201) The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest
and objectives guided by
a. demobilization planning.
b. national security policy.
c. mobilization planning.
d. joint tactical policy. |
|
Definition
| b. national security policy |
|
|
Term
4. (201) What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national
objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of
national power?
a. Joint force concepts.
b. Operations planning.
c. Security strategy.
d. Doctrine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. (201) What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
a. Joint doctrine.
b. Basic doctrine.
c. Execution planning.
d. Operations planning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. (201) The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and
guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
a. basic.
b. joint.
c. tactical.
d. operational. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. (201) Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of
distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as
a. basic.
b. joint.
c. tactical.
d. operational. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. (202) Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic,
operational, and tactical levels of war?
a. Joint contingency planning.
b. Joint operations planning.
c. Mobilization planning.
d. Deployment planning. |
|
Definition
| b. Joint operations planning. |
|
|
Term
9. (202) At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks
to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish
these tasks?
a. Tactical.
b. Strategic.
c. Functional
d. Operational. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. (202) Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the
president through the
a. vice president.
b. chief of staff.
c. secretary of defense.
d. chief master sergeant of the Air Force. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. (202) What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations
plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?
a. Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment.
b. Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment.
c. Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution.
d. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment. |
|
Definition
| d. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment |
|
|
Term
12. (202) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of
readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
a. Sustainment.
b. Mobilization.
c. Employment.
d. Reconstitution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. (202) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from
their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint
operation planning activity?
a. Redeployment.
b. Employment.
c. Mobilization.
d. Deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. (202) The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain
specified military objectives within an operational area is
a. redeployment.
b. employment.
c. mobilization.
d. deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. (202) What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased
force deployment data (TPFDD)?
a. Concept.
b. Operational.
c. Functional.
d. Supporting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. (202) A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into
an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
a. Concept.
b. Operation.
c. Functional.
d. Supporting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. (202) Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed
single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and
execution?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
| b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES). |
|
|
Term
18. (202) Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation
planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
| a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). |
|
|
Term
19. (202) Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air
Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting
and supporting operations?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
| d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
|
Term
20. (202) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the
Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the
United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
| c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). |
|
|
Term
21. (203) Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and
retirees?
a. Functional directorates.
b. Functional dignitaries.
c. Functional managers.
d. Functional leaders. |
|
Definition
| a. Functional directorates. |
|
|
Term
22. (203) Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?
a. Air Force.
b. Marines.
c. Army.
d. Navy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. (203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
a. crisis.
b. peace.
c. politics.
d. conflict. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. (204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
a. federal and state missions.
b. federal and overseas missions.
c. state and community missions.
d. overseas and community missions. |
|
Definition
| a. federal and state missions. |
|
|
Term
25. (204) Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the
a. 1910s and 20s.
b. 1920s and 30s.
c. 1930s and 40s.
d. 1940s and 50s. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
26. (204) The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by
supporting what type of engagement?
a. Regional.
b. National.
c. Global.
d. Local. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. (204) The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what
form of movement?
a. Deployment.
b. Employment.
c. Mobilization.
d. Demobilization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. (204) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian
employment?
a. Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability.
b. Family, personnel stability, and community connections.
c. Manpower, people, and camaraderie.
d. Talent, depth, and experience. |
|
Definition
| d. Talent, depth, and experience. |
|
|
Term
29. (204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an
invaluable
a. responsibility.
b. commodity.
c. opportunity.
d. job. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. (204) Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the
unit along with what other strength?
a. Stability.
b. Liability.
c. Reliability.
d. Responsibility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. (205) To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary
Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?
a. train, manage, and equip.
b. equip, train, deploy, and sustain.
c. organize, train, equip, and sustain.
d. organize, manage, train, and equip. |
|
Definition
| c. organize, train, equip, and sustain. |
|
|
Term
32. (205) Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space
forces for what type of defense?
a. Aerial.
b. Global.
c. Regional.
d. National. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. (205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
a. war-fighter support.
b. stability to Airmen.
c. predictability to Airmen.
d. fair share tempo band support. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34. (205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to
employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and
space forces?
a. Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.
b. Organize, present, and deploy.
c. Deploy, present, and sustain.
d. Organize and sustain. |
|
Definition
| b. Organize, present, and deploy. |
|
|
Term
35. (205) The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. (205) In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational
rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
37. (205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to
a. win the war.
b. place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.
c. equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses
equal capabilities.
d. equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. |
|
Definition
c. equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses
equal capabilities. |
|
|
Term
38. (205) When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base
operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an
a. air and space expeditionary squadron.
b. air and space expeditionary group.
c. numbered expeditionary air force.
d. air and expeditionary wing. |
|
Definition
| d. air and expeditionary wing. |
|
|
Term
39. (205) What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting
organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary
task force (AETF)?
a. Air and space expeditionary squadron.
b. Air and space expeditionary element.
c. Air and space expeditionary group.
d. Air and space expeditionary wing. |
|
Definition
| a. Air and space expeditionary squadron. |
|
|
Term
40. (206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the
a. financial services office (FSO).
b. military personnel section (MPS).
c. medical treatment facility (MTF).
d. unit deployment manager (UDM). |
|
Definition
| b. military personnel section (MPS). |
|
|
Term
41. (206) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?
a. 14-month.
b. 18-month.
c. 20-month.
d. 24-month. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. (206) What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and
publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
a. Air Staff.
b. Joint Staff.
c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
d. Department of Defense (DOD). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43. (206) Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces
that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?
a. Unit type code (UTC).
b. Air expeditionary force (AEF).
c. Global Force Management (GFM).
d. Unit manpower document (UMD). |
|
Definition
| b. Air expeditionary force (AEF). |
|
|
Term
44. (206) At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or
pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?
a. one.
b. two.
c. four.
d. six. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. (207) A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when
a. new equipment needs to be replaced.
b. new equipment types enter the inventory.
c. no program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
d. deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission. |
|
Definition
| b. new equipment types enter the inventory. |
|
|
Term
46. (207) In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the
development of a unit type code (UTC)?
a. Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force
(NAF).
b. Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF.
c. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU
d. ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF. |
|
Definition
| c. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU |
|
|
Term
47. (207) What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space
expeditionary task forces?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents.
c. Time phased force deployment data.
d. Unit type code. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. (207) Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on
a case-by-case basis with whose approval?
a. President.
b. Chief of staff.
c. Secretary of defense.
d. Secretary of the Air Force. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
49. (208) The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces.
What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?
a. Increases military capability.
b. Decreases military capability.
c. Military capability stays the same.
d. Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces. |
|
Definition
| a. Increases military capability. |
|
|
Term
50. (208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly
transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to
a. partial mobilization.
b. full mobilization.
c. wartime posture.
d. reconstitution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
51. (208) Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for
mobilization?
a. partial.
b. spatial.
c. total.
d. full. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52. (208) If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members,
not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?
a. full.
b. total.
c. spatial.
d. partial. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
53. (208) Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful
mobilization?
a. Having an objective.
b. Ensuring timeliness.
c. Being subjective.
d. Being flexible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
54. (208) The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome
unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to
uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes
a. having an objective.
b. ensuring timeliness.
c. being subjective.
d. being flexible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55. (208) Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization
procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?
a. Having an objective.
b. Ensuring timeliness.
c. Being subjective.
d. Being flexible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56. (209) Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard
officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as
a. military personnel appropriation man-days.
b. noncommissioned officers man-days.
c. Reserve man-days.
d. Guard man-days. |
|
Definition
| a. military personnel appropriation man-days. |
|
|
Term
57. (209) Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how
many travel days?
a. one-day.
b. two-day.
c. three-day.
d. four-day. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
58. (209) When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are
entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period
of
a. 28 days or greater.
b. 29 days or greater.
c. 30 days or greater.
d. 31 days or greater. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. (210) When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component
(Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the
a. wing commanders.
b. squadron commanders.
c. major command commanders
d. numbered Air Force commanders. |
|
Definition
| c. major command commanders |
|
|
Term
60. (210) The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring
individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes
a. demobilization.
b. deactivation.
c. separation.
d. discharge. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
61. (210) In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is
documented by using which date?
a. Date on the mobilization orders.
b. Demobilization date authorized from tour completion by the applicable commander.
c. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214.
d. Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214. |
|
Definition
| c. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214. |
|
|
Term
62. (210) If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by
mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to
a. remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service.
b. remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service.
c. remain on active duty up to the original activation period.
d. return to civilian status immediately. |
|
Definition
| c. remain on active duty up to the original activation period. |
|
|
Term
63. (210) Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and
requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to
the appropriate agency?
a. Three duty days.
b. Three calendar days.
c. Five duty days.
d. Five calendar days. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. (211) During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of
Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is
critical to resuming normal
a. response time.
b. operations.
c. procedures.
d. functions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
65. (211) Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and
forwarded to the installation command post?
a. Installation deployment function.
b. Personnel readiness function.
c. Unit deployment manager.
d. Commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. (211) Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?
a. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.
b. It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone.
c. The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster.
d. The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster. |
|
Definition
| a. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded. |
|
|
Term
67. (212) After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel
Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when
a. affected personnel report to their place of duty.
b. affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS.
c. all members are notified that a natural disaster is imminent.
d. all members update, review, or change their information in AFPAAS. |
|
Definition
| b. affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS. |
|
|
Term
68. (212) When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT)
has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world
or exercise events?
a. Group CAT.
b. Air Force CAT.
c. Wing CAT/A1.
d. MAJCOM CAT/A1. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69. (212) In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which
agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted
threatened personnel?
a. HQ AFPC/DPSOA.
b. HQ AFPC/DPSIA.
c. HQ AFPC/PRC.
d. HQ A&FRC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
70. (212) In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has
the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online
(DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)?
a. HQ AFPC/DPSOA.
b. HQ AFPC/DPSIA.
c. HQ AFPC/PRC.
d. HQ A&FRC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
71. (212) Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the
ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members?
a. Supervisor.
b. First Sergeant.
c. Unit deployment manager.
d. Commanding officer representative. |
|
Definition
| d. Commanding officer representative. |
|
|
Term
72. (212) What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or
natural disasters?
a. ready and actionable.
b. realistic and predictable.
c. realistic and actionable.
d. ready and executable. |
|
Definition
| c. realistic and actionable. |
|
|
Term
73. (213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections
(MPS) war planner for personnel
a. deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters.
b. deployments, contingencies, and assignment limitation codes.
c. exercises, assignment limitation codes, and deployments.
d. assignment limitation codes, deployments, and rotational matters. |
|
Definition
| a. deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters |
|
|
Term
74. (213) To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel
deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?
a. Replacement.
b. Transitioning.
c. In-processing.
d. Out-processing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75. (213) Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)?
a. Wing/Installation commander.
b. Mission support group commander.
c. Force support squadron commander.
d. Military personnel section commander. |
|
Definition
| d. Military personnel section commander. |
|
|
Term
76. (213) During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel
control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?
a. Command post.
b. Group control center.
c. Military personnel section.
d. Installation personnel readiness element. |
|
Definition
| d. Installation personnel readiness element. |
|
|
Term
77. (213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel
support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except
a. developing training templates for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment.
b. training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates.
c. providing PERSCO team chief with information concerning plans, exercises, and deployments.
d. training the PERSCO teams, personnel readiness center, and the personnel deployment
function personnel to operate the Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment |
|
Definition
| b. training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates. |
|
|
Term
78. (214) What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate
replacement actions?
a. Employment requirements manning document.
b. Deployment requirements manning document.
c. Deployment schedule of events document.
d. Unit personnel manning document. |
|
Definition
| a. Employment requirements manning document. |
|
|
Term
79. (214) Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and
designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component
command policies describes what type of accountability?
a. Tasked wing.
b. Transient.
c. Strength.
d. Unit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
80. (214) Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the
personnel function necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources
describes
a. personnel support.
b. personnel reporting.
c. preparation of movement.
d. preparation for deployment. |
|
Definition
| c. preparation of movement. |
|
|
Term
81. (214) If a member’s legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what
responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?
a. Physical health.
b. Spiritual health.
c. Personal support.
d. Personnel development. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
82. (215) Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for
contingency operations (PERSCO) team?
a. Services squadron.
b. Force support squadron.
c. Mission support group.
d. Deployed logistics section. |
|
Definition
| b. Force support squadron. |
|
|
Term
83. (215) When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO)
team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the
a. least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed.
b. most junior trained personnel.
c. most senior trained personnel.
d. most qualified personnel. |
|
Definition
| d. most qualified personnel. |
|
|
Term
84. (215) Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability
programs and directives?
a. HQ AFPC/DPC.
b. HQ AFPC/DPW.
c. HQ USAF/A1PR.
d. HQ AFPC/DPWR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
85. (215) Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and
Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander Air Force forces’
(COMAFFOR) mission needs?
a. HQ AFPC/DPC.
b. HQ AFPC/DPW.
c. HQ USAF/A1PR.
d. HQ AFPC/DPWR. |
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Definition
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Term
86. (215) Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for deployment
availability codes and duty status reporting programs?
a. HQ AFPC/DPC.
b. HQ AFPC/DPW.
c. HQ USAF/A1PR.
d. HQ AFPC/DPWR. |
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Definition
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Term
87. (215) Overseeing air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART) to ensure
postured personnel unit type codes (UTC) meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of
the
a. combatant command J–1 Directorate.
b. force support squadron commander.
c. mission support group commander.
d. wing commander. |
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Definition
| c. mission support group commander. |
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Term
88. (215) Making sure that military personnel section (MPS) provides prompt support to deployed
commanders and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency
operations is the responsibility of the
a. military personnel section commander.
b. force support squadron commander.
c. chief, military personnel section.
d. installation deployment officer. |
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Definition
| a. military personnel section commander. |
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Term
89. (216) The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and
reviewed by the
a. Combatant commander.
b. Joint forces commander.
c. Support command personnel planner.
d. Component command personnel planner. |
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Definition
| d. Component command personnel planner. |
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Term
90. (216) Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and
resources to respond?
a. Planning.
b. Execution.
c. Sustainment.
d. Initial arrival. |
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Definition
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Term
91. (216) During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations
(PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section
within the timelines outlined in the
a. time phased force deployment data.
b. designed operation capability response time.
c. deployments manning requirements document.
d. Air Force Instruction 10–215, PERSCO Operations. |
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Definition
| b. designed operation capability response time. |
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Term
92. (216) Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military
personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as
a. ready-to-perform personnel deployment function.
b. ready-to-conduct inventory of supply kits.
c. ready-to-deploy.
d. ready-to-train. |
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Definition
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Term
93. (216) The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for
personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon
receipt of a (n)
a. warning order.
b. execution order.
c. evacuation order.
d. deployment order. |
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Definition
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Term
94. (216) Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an annual
inventory of supplies and equipment?
a. Chief, Military personnel section.
b. NCOIC, Installation personnel readiness element.
c. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.
d. Personnel support for contingency operations team chief. |
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Definition
| d. Personnel support for contingency operations team chief. |
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Term
95. (216) Equipment custodian (EC) for personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO),
logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action
Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the
a. Military personnel section commander.
b. Force support squadron commander.
c. Military personnel section chief.
d. Installation deployment officer. |
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Definition
| b. Force support squadron commander. |
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Term
96. (216) Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency
operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?
a. RFPF1.
b. RFPF2.
c. RFPF3.
d. RFPF4. |
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Definition
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Term
97. (216) It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy
of the accountability file because
a. the electronic information may not be correct.
b. the files management clerk requires a hard copy.
c. the TDY commander may request some accountability information.
d. electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction. |
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Definition
| d. electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction. |
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Term
98. (216) During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO)
team is required to collect what documents?
a. Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245.
b. Three copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a blank AF Form 245.
c. Two copies of the member’s immunization letter and a completed AF Form 245.
d. Three copies of the member’s immunization letter and a blank AF Form 245. |
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Definition
| a. Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245. |
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Term
99. (216) Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all
deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most
efficiently process personnel when the
a. reception control center is not established.
b. accountability actions are under control.
c. need for replacement forces is low.
d. projected aircraft is landing. |
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Definition
| a. reception control center is not established. |
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Term
100. (216) Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of
the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions?
a. Planning.
b. Execution.
c. Sustainment.
d. Redeployment. |
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Definition
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