1. The short definition of the Airfield Systems Technician specialty summary reads as follows:

a. Installs, maintains, and modifies fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground-to-air transmitters, receivers, and transceivers, maintains non-radar air traffic control and airfield operations communications equipment, accomplishes flight inspection duties, and analyzes equipment trends.

Answer:

a. Installs, maintains, and modifies fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground-to-air transmitters, receivers, and transceivers, maintains non-radar air traffic control and airfield operations communications equipment, accomplishes flight inspection duties, and analyzes equipment trends.

2. What AFMAN lists the specific duties of the airfield systems technician?

a.    36-2108

b.    26-2101

c.    21-116

d.    11-225

Answer:

a.    36-2108

3. The common elements of a fixed base normally are

a.    fixed navigation systems and a temporary control tower

b.    fixed navigation systems, helipad, and a permanent control tower.

c.    fixed navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower

d.    fixed navigation systems, weather systems, passenger services terminal, and a permanent control tower

Answer:

c.    fixed navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower

4. What determines the equipment that is located at a deployed base?

a.    UTC (unit type code)

b.    Chief of maintenance

c.    Mission of the base

d.    AFMAN 36-2108

Answer:

c.    Mission of the base

5. What is the minimum current that may render a victim incapable of releasing himself from a current source, and paralyze the needed muscles for breathing?

a.    10 mA

b.    12 mA

c.    14 mA

d.    16 mA

Answer:

d.    16 mA

6. What is the minimum level if current flowing through the body that is likely to produce permanent damage to nerve tissues and blood vessels?

a.    15 mA

b.    25 mA

c.    50 mA

d.    70 mA

Answer:

b.    25 mA

7. Substances that are poisonous and can eat away flesh on contact are:

a.    Inflammables.

b.    Electrolytes.

c.    Corrosives.

d.    Irritants.

Answer:

c.   Corrosives.

8. In addition to the eyes, what organs of the body is/are most susceptible to overexposure to RF radiation?

a.    Brain.

b.    Kidneys.

c.    Appendages.

d.    Reproductive organs.

Answer:

d.   Reproductive organs.

9. the weather-related hazards of climbing are lightning, rain, and

a.    Ice

b.    Snow

c.    Wind

d.    Cold

Answer:

a.    Ice

10. While climbing, the greatest hazard posed to bulky clothing is

a.    Decreased flexibility increasing your chances of slipping.

b.    Getting snagged and losing your balance.

c.    Ripping your clothing.

d.    Heat related stress.

Answer:

b.    Getting snagged and losing your balance.

11. the two categories of human hazard factors are

a.    Job related and domestic

b.    Physical and emotional

c.    Job related and mental

d.    Mental and physical

Answer:

d.    Mental and physical

12. Being distracted from a task while thinking of personal problems is an example of which type of human hazard factor?

a.    Emotional

b.    Domestic

c.    Physical

d.    Mental

Answer:

d.    Mental

13. Which T.O. describes the procedures and techniques employed to assign TO numbers?

a.    00-15-1

b.    00-5-2

c.    00-5-18

d.    00-24-235

Answer:

c.    00-5-18

14. Category “0” T.O.’s such as 0-2-1 contain

a.    Ground electronic equipment

b.    Airborne systems and equipment

c.    Alphabetical indexes and cross reference tables

d.    Methods and procedures of the technical order system

Answer:

c.    Alphabetical indexes and cross reference tables

15. What specific type of manual is T.O. 31M-2GMQ34-1?

a.    Installation instructions and test procedures

b.    Illustrated parts breakdown manual.

c.    Work unit code manuals.

d.    Operating instructions

Answer:

d.    Operating instructions

16. What specific type of manual is T.O. 31M1-06?

a.    Inspection requirements

b.    Work unit code manuals

c.    Service or maintenance instructions

d.    Installation instructions or test procedures

Answer:

b.    Work unit code manuals

17. What type of TO includes information for ordering TO’s?

a.    Operations and maintenance

b.    Time compliance

c.    Abbreviated

d.    Index-type

Answer:

d.    Index-type

18. All TO’s whose designator begins with “0-1” are

a.    Index-type

b.    Abbreviated

c.    Time compliance

d.    Operations and maintenance

Answer:

a.    Index-type

19. What type of TO contains detailed information and instructions for installation, operation, maintenance, and inspection?

a.    Index-type

b.    Abbreviated

c.    Time compliance

d.    Operations and maintenance

Answer:

d.    Operations and maintenance

20. What chapter of an operations and maintenance TO usually contains installation instructions?

a.    1.

b.    2.

c.    3.

d.    4.

Answer:

b.    2.

21. Which chapter of an operations and maintenance T.O. usually contains the principles of operation?

a.    1.

b.    2.

c.    3.

d.    4.

Answer:

d.    4.

22. Which T.O. gives a complete description of the TCTO system?

a.    00-5-1

b.    00-5-2

c.    00-5-15

d.    00-5-18

Answer:

c.    00-5-15

23. Which type of TO do we use to make modifications; validate or verify T.O.’s; make changes to software; or update, retrofit, or reconfigure equipment?

a.    Index-type

b.    Abbreviated

c.    Time compliance

d.    Operations and maintenance

Answer:

c.    Time compliance

24. Which type of TCTO corrects conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

a.    Immediate action

b.    Routine action

c.    Urgent action

d.    Record

Answer:

a.    Immediate action

25. What type of T.O. is general in content and not issued against any specific military systems or commodities?

a.    Abbreviated

b.    Time compliance

c.    Methods and procedures

d.    Operations and maintenance

Answer:

c.    Methods and procedures

26. Which type of abbreviated T.O. depicts a basic planned work schedule?

a.    Checklists

b.    Inspection workcards

c.    Inspection worksheets

d.    Inspection sequence charts

Answer:

d.    Inspection sequence charts

27. Refer to figure 3-2. For the ILS localizer, area A’s surface roughness should not exceed

a.    ± 0.5 feet

b.    ± 1 foot

c.    ± 2 feet

d.    ± 3 feet

Answer:

a.    ± 0.5 feet

28. Refer to figure 3-2. For the ILS localizer, area B's surface roughness should not exceed

a.    ± 0.5 feet

b.    ± 1 foot

c.    ± 2 feet

d.    ± 3 feet

Answer:

c.    ± 2 feet

29. Refer to figure 3-3. For the ILS glide slope, area A’s surface roughness should not exceed

a.    ± 0.5 feet

b.    ± 1 foot

c.    ± 2 feet

d.    ± 3 feet

Answer:

a.    ± 0.5 feet

30. Refer to figure 3-3. For the ILS glide slope, area B’s surface roughness should not exceed

a.    ± 0.5 feet

b.    ± 1 foot

c.    ± 2 feet

d.    ± 3 feet

Answer:

c.    ± 2 feet

31. When siting navigational equipment, the area in front of the glide slope must be free of reflecting objects within a radius of

a.    200 feet

b.    500 feet

c.    1,000 feet

d.    2,500 feet

Answer:

b.    500 feet

32. Metallic fences, power lines, and control lines are not permitted within how many feet of a VOR site?

a.    250 feet

b.    500 feet

c.    750 feet

d.    1,000 feet

Answer:

c.    750 feet

33. A 4-foot diameter obstruction at the same elevation as the AN/FMQ-13, Digital Wind System, sensor must be located at least how many feet from the sensor?

a.    4 feet

b.    20 feet

c.    40 feet

d.    400 feet

Answer:

c.    40 feet

34. A 10-foot diameter obstruction at the same elevation as the AN/FMQ-13, Digital Wind System, sensor must be located at least how many feet from the sensor?

a.    10 feet

b.    100 feet

c.    500 feet

d.    1,000 feet

Answer:

b.    100 feet

35. AFI 21-116, Maintenance Management of Communication Electronics, defines facility verification as the act of validating your current facility’s performance based on a comparison with

a.    FAA tolerances

b.    Commissioning flight check data

c.    Technical order tolerances

d.    Facility reference data

Answer:

d.    Facility reference data

36. Which is not a type of facility certification?

a.    Annual

b.    Special

c.    Periodic

d.    Repair/adjustment

Answer:

c.    Periodic

37. Who must designate in writing which technicians are authorized to perform facility certifications?

a.    Chief of air traffic control operations

b.    Workcenter supervisor

c.    Chief of maintenance

d.    Unit commander

Answer:

d.    Unit commander

38. All NAVAIDSs facilities must be certified at a minimum of every

a.    180 ± 10 days

b.    240 ± 12 days

c.    365 ± 15 days

d.    480 ± 20 days

Answer:

c.    365 ± 15 days

39. A RF interference complaint would most likely result in what type of facility certification?

a.    Annual

b.    Special

c.    Periodic

d.    Repair/Adjustment

Answer:

b.    Special

40. An aircraft mishap would most likely result in what type of facility certification?

a.    Annual

b.    Special

c.    Periodic

d.    Repair/Adjustment

Answer:

b.    Special

41. An exceptionally heavy snowfall would most likely result in what type of facility certification?

a.    Annual

b.    Special

c.    Periodic

d.    Repair/Adjustment

Answer:

b.    Special

42. On the facility certification form, what information do you place in the “comments” block?

a.    Why you did the certification, what you did, and the results of comparison with reference data

b.    Remote flight check data and the results of the comparison with the reference data

c.    Local flight check data and the results of the comparison with the reference data

d.    Signature of the certifier and the recorded meter readings from the baseline

Answer:

a.    Why you did the certification, what you did, and the results of comparison with reference data

43. On the facility certification form, which block under “purpose of certification” would you check if you completed a facility certification after replacing a transmitter phaser?

a.    Annual

b.    Special

c.    Periodic

d.    Repair/Adjustment

Answer:

d.    Repair/Adjustment

44. Who manages the update process for the CSIRs on base?

a.    Base comptroller

b.    Base C4 systems officer

c.    MAJCOM programming office

d.    Communications squadron chief of maintenance

Answer:

b.    Base C4 systems officer

45. What types if documents comprise CSIRs?

a.    Administrative records, drawing records, acceptance certificates

b.    Administrative records, drawing records, maintenance records

c.    Acceptance certificates, cost history, administrative records.

d.    Cost history, drawing records, maintenance records.

Answer:

b.    Administrative records, drawing records, maintenance records

46. Who actually performs an annual review of CSIRs?

a.    CSO

b.    Comptroller’s office

c.    Civil engineering office

d.    Maintenance workcenter

Answer:

d.    Maintenance workcenter

47. If the technical order states a transmitter has a frequency accuracy of 0.0001 percent, which of the following is an acceptable output with an operating frequency of 225 MHz?

a.    224.999975 MHz to 225.000225 MHz

b.    224.997750 MHz to 225.225000 MHz

c.    224.999000 MHz to 225.001000 MHz

d.    224.975 MHz to 225.225 MHz

Answer:

a.    224.999975 MHz to 225.000225 MHz

48. If an oscilloscope displays a modulation envelope having an Emax of 200 volts and an Emin of 20 volts, what is the modulation percentage?

a.    81.8 percent

b.    85.5 percent

c.    88 percent

d.    122 percent

Answer:

a.    81.8 percent

49. Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?

a.    Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics

b.    Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics

c.    Overmodulation increases bandwidth die to the output’s increases amplitude.

d.    Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output’s decreased amplitude

Answer:

a.    Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics

50. Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

a.    More total power

b.    A reduction in carrier power

c.    No reduction in carrier power

d.    A reduction in carrier and sideband power

Answer:

c.    No reduction in carrier power

51. In the AN/GRT-21 and the AN/GRT-22, there is a clipper circuit in the BUFFER MODULATOR A5 module to

a.    Suppress harmonics

b.    Prevent overmodulation

c.    Keep the audio at a constant 2.5 V level

d.    Ensure minimum distortion due to overdriving the amplifiers

Answer:

b.    Prevent overmodulation

52. In the AN/GRT-22 transmitter, the purpose of the E/L relay when operating in the 50-watt mode is to

a.    Bypass the LPA in the event of high VSWR

b.    Route the high current directly to the antenna

c.    Bypass the LPA in the event of overmodulation

d.    Bypass the antenna in the event of high VSWR

Answer:

a.    Bypass the LPA in the event of high VSWR

53. In the A10 module of the AN/GRT-21, the purpose of the TUNE/OPERATE switch is to

a.    Tune the servo drive

b.    Energize the T/R relay

c.    Protect the tunable filter during tuning operation

d.    Protect the power supply during tuning operation

Answer:

c.    Protect the tunable filter during tuning operation

54. Referring to foldout 6, if the 50-watt output decreases,

a.    The E/L relay energizes

b.    AR1 increases its amplification and brings the output back up

c.    Conduction of Q3 increases which causes a more positive APC voltage

d.    The increase at AR1’s output causes the APC amplifier to conduct less

Answer:

c.    Conduction of Q3 increases which causes a more positive APC voltage

55. Referring to the Tuned Cavity in foldout 9, C1 and C2 are tuned to pass

a.    Only the operating frequency

b.    The AC voltages required for tube operation

c.    The operating frequency and the 4th harmonic

d.    The operating frequency and the 2nd harmonic

Answer:

a.    Only the operating frequency

56. The LPA FWD and RVS power sensor voltages are amplified and level-shifted in the LPA A5 module

a.    To provide AGC

b.    To operate the T/R relay in the exciter

c.    for APC voltage development and VSWR detection

d.    to enable development of plate and screen voltages

Answer:

c.    for APC voltage development and VSWR detection

57. In a receiver, why can’t we connect the antenna directly to the mixer circuit?

a.    Because the intelligence hasn’t been extracted yet

b.    The signal’s frequency is too high to be converted.

c.    The oscillator signal might be radiated out into space

d.    If the receiver were keyed, high VSWR may damage the mixer circuit

Answer:

c.    The oscillator signal might be radiated out into space

58. Which statement is true concerning receiver operation?

a.    In order to change the operating frequency, we must change the IF only

b.    Changing the local oscillator frequency has no effect on our operating frequency

c.    When we change the frequencies, the IF does not change, local oscillator frequency does

d.    When we change frequencies, the IF changes by an amount equal to the change in the local oscillator frequency

Answer:

c.    When we change the frequencies, the IF does not change, local oscillator frequency does

59. With an operating frequency of 150 MHz and an IF of 10.7 MHz, which is a possible image frequency?

a.    21.4 MHz

b.    140.7 MHz

c.    160.14 MHz

d.    171.4 MHz

Answer:

d.    171.4 MHz

60. What are the basic requirements for any type of demodulation?

a.    Sensitivity and linearity

b.    Sensitivity, nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, and filtering

c.    Selectivity, nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, and filtering

d.    Sensitivity, nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, filtering, and conversion

Answer:

b.    Sensitivity, nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, and filtering

61. Which statement is true concerning diode detectors?

a.    They are relatively complex devices

b.    They can only handle relatively small signals

c.    They can give high fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude

d.    They are relatively simple devices and provide a tremendous amount of power gain

Answer:

c.    They can give high fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude

62. In the AN/GRR-23, which module provides the function of preselection?

a.    The ANTENNA COUPLER A7 module

b.    The TUNABLE FILTER FL2 module

c.    The MIXER MULTIPLIER A2 module

d.    The OSCILLATOR SYNTHESIZER A1 module

Answer:

b.    The TUNABLE FILTER FL2 module

63. Which module of the AN/GRR-24 receiver prevents interference from radar pulses?

a.    NOISE LIMITTER A5

b.    BUFFER AMPLIFIER A4

c.    AGC/SQUELCH Module A3

d.    CRYSTAL PULSE FILTER A3

Answer:

a.    NOISE LIMITTER A5

64. The purpose of the AGC voltage is that

a.    It provides a comparison voltage in the power supple

b.    varies the output level when the output impedance changes

c.    Ensures a constant output level with varying input signal strength

d.    Decreases the amplification of the IF section when the input signal decreases

Answer:

c.    Ensures a constant output level with varying input signal strength

65. In the AN/GRR-24 Mixer/Multiplier, what frequency is C12 (grid B2) tuned to pass?

a.    Intermediate frequency

b.    Oscillator input frequency

c.    Frequency of the AC power source

d.    4th harmonic of the oscillator input frequency

Answer:

d.    4th harmonic of the oscillator input frequency

66. In the AN/GRR-24 Mixer/Multiplier, the output of Q8 (grid B5) is tuned to pass the

a.    Audio signal

b.    Injection frequency

c.    Operating frequency

d.    Intermediate frequency

Answer:

d.    Intermediate frequency

67. What is the output power of the AN/GRC-171 and AN/GRC-211?

a.    20 watts for AN/GRC-211 and 25 for AN/GRC-171

b.    20 watts for AN/GRC-171 and 25 for AN/GRC-211

c.    20 watts for both

d.    25 watts for both

Answer:

b.    20 watts for AN/GRC-171 and 25 for AN/GRC-211

68. Sidetone in the AN/GRC-211 is

a.    A detected sample of the modulated RF output

b.    A detected sample of the AF output

c.    Used as a backup output

d.    Not used by the operator

Answer:

a.    A detected sample of the modulated RF output

69. Which are keying options for the AN/GRC-171?

a.    VOX, voltage, current and ground keying

b.    Voltage, current and ground keying

c.    Voltage and ground keying

d.    None of the above

Answer:

a.    VOX, voltage, current and ground keying

70. Which statement concerning the timing of the two keylines in the AN/GRC-211 is correct?

a.    Key1 = slow attack, fast release | Key2 = fast attack, slow release

b.    Key1 = fast attack, fast release | Key2 = slow attack, slow release

c.    Key 1 = slow attack, slow release | Key2 = fast attack, fast release

d.    Key1 = fast attack, slow release | Key2 = slow attack, fast release

Answer:

d.    Key1 = fast attack, slow release | Key2 = slow attack, fast release

71. Which statement about the AN/GRC-171 is true during receive?

a.    The output power is 25 watts

b.    No AC power is consumed

c.    Both keylines are high

d.    All the above are true

Answer:

c.    Both keylines are high

72. What functions does the RF FILTER A7 module perform during receive operation?

a.    RF filter and IF amplifier

b.    RF mixer and IF amplifier

c.    RF filter and RF attenuator

d.    RF mixer and RF attenuator

Answer:

c.    RF filter and RF attenuator

73. Which is not on the chassis of the radio?

a.    Local frequency thumbwheels.

b.    An RF PREAMPLIFIER.

c.    System metering.

d.    Radioset control

Answer:

d.    Radioset control

74. In the AN/GRC-171 you will find

a.    One switching regulator and several series regulators

b.    One series regulator and several switching regulators

c.    One switching regulator

d.    One series regulator

Answer:

a.    One switching regulator and several series regulators

83. Resistance of the conductor material in a transmission line leads to

a.    Copper loss

b.    Radiation loss

c.    Inductive loss

d.    Skin-effect loss

Answer:

a.    Copper loss

84. the amount of skin-effect loss is directly proportional to

a.    Line length

b.    Signal frequency

c.    Signal voltage level

d.    The amount of I2R loss

Answer:

b.    Signal frequency

85. Which type of transmission line loss can you minimize by using a hollow conductor?

a.    Skin-effect loss

b.    Resistive loss

c.    Induction loss

d.    Leakage loss

Answer:

a.    Skin-effect loss

86. Leakage loss in a transmission line can be minimized by using a

a.    Thinner conductor

b.    Thicker conductor

c.    Very low-resistance dielectric

d.    Very high-resistance dielectric

Answer:

d.    Very high-resistance dielectric

87. Which statement best describes the term “cutoff frequency” when we discuss transmission line properties?

a.    The frequency where XL becomes so low that the signal is shunted

b.    The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted

c.    The lowest frequency that the line can pass successfully

d.    The frequency at which standing waves are maximum

Answer:

b.    The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted

88. Which statement concerning wavelength is true?

a.    Wavelength is inversely related to frequency

b.    Wavelength is directly related to frequency

c.    Wavelength is determined by a line’s length

d.    Wavelength is expressed in lambdas

Answer:

a.    Wavelength is inversely related to frequency

89. if a wavelength is has a physical length of 10 meters, determine the wavelength if we change the frequency from 150 MHz to 250 MHz

a.    12.0 meters

b.    3.0 meter

c.    1.5 meters

d.    1.2 meters

Answer:

d.    1.2 meters

90. using figure 7-4, determine the electrical length if we change the frequency from 150 MHz to 250 MHz

a.    8.33 meters

b.    8.33 wavelengths

c.    83.3 meters

d.    83.3 wavelengths

Answer:

b.    8.33 wavelengths

91. when discussing transmission lines,

a.    Resonant lines we often refer to as flat lines

b.    Maximum power transfer results from a resonant line

c.    Maximum power transfer results from a nonresonant line

d.    Loss and damage to equipment result if we use a ronresonant line

Answer:

c.    Maximum power transfer results from a nonresonant line

92. If a transmission line is terminated in a short,

a.    Signal loss would be negligible

b.    There would be significant signal loss

c.    Current would be at maximum at the termination

d.    Voltage would be at minimum, at the termination

Answer:

b.    There would be significant signal loss

93. If a transmission line is terminated in a short,

a.    Current is at maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination

b.    Current is at minimum and voltage at maximum at the termination

c.    There would be a nominal amount of signal gain

d.    The line would be nonresonant

Answer:

a.    Current is at maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination

94. the purpose of a balun is to

a.    Enable us to weigh a transmission line

b.    Provide an impedance match between two antennas

c.    Allow multiple antennas to be connected to one receiver

d.    Provide an impedance match between transmission line and antenna

Answer:

d.    Provide an impedance match between transmission line and antenna

95. when two or more signals of the same frequency arrive at the receiver simultaneously, the resultant interference is termed

a.    Skip interference

b.    Phase interference

c.    Harmonic interference

d.    Multi-patch interference

Answer:

d.    Multi-patch interference

96. The ability of an antenna to receive as well as transmit effectively we call

a.    Fidelity

b.    Capacity

c.    Reciprocity

d.    Transquality

Answer:

c.    Reciprocity

97. If an antenna’s electric lines of force lie in a vertical direction, we can say that the antenna is

a.    Vertically polarized

b.    Highly bi-directional

c.    Horizontally polarized

d.    Impervious to man-made interference

Answer:

a.    Vertically polarized

98. An antenna that concentrates a strong signal in one direction while the signal is reduced in other directions

a.    Bi-directional

b.    Unidirectional

c.    Omnidirectional

d.    Quad-directional

Answer:

b.    Unidirectional

99. Log periodic antennas

a.    Cannot be rotated whereas the AN/FLR-9 can

b.    Are commonly used in direction-finding applications

c.    Automatically rotate towards the distant end when RF is detected

d.    Exhibit essentially constant characteristics over the entire frequency range

Answer:

d.    Exhibit essentially constant characteristics over the entire frequency range

100. How many channels can be connected to the CU-547/GR antenna multicoupler?

a.    One

b.    Two

c.    Four

d.    Eight

Answer:

c.    Four