Term
a. Rate, Volume, Force, Pitch |
|
Definition
What are the four components of a person's voice? a. rate, volume, force, pitch b. rate, tone, force, pitch c. rate, volume, tone, pitch d. tone, volume, force, pitch |
|
|
Term
1.Build rapport 2.Ask questions 3.Lsten 4.Position the product 5.Communicate the benefits 6.Ask for the Sale |
|
Definition
What are the 6 techniques in selling? |
|
|
Term
a. Building a first good impression |
|
Definition
What is the real key to building rapport? a. building a first good impression b. Take detailed notes c. Pay close attention to voice d. Ask Closed-ended questions |
|
|
Term
b. Using a positive tone of voice, positive body language, personalization |
|
Definition
What are the three components of an effective rapport building? a. ask open-ended questions, ask close-ended questions, ask for the sale b. using a positive tone of voice, positive body language, personalization c. Ask questions, listen to the customer, upsell d. talk softly, stare, listen |
|
|
Term
1.Remember the audience is your friend 2.Memorize what you're going to say 3.Practice positive self-talk 4.Breathe 5.Check your appearance |
|
Definition
What are the five ways to minimize Anxiety? |
|
|
Term
b. Visual,Auditory,Tactile |
|
Definition
What are the three adult learning styles? a. staring, listening, feeling b. visual, auditory, tactile c. positive talk, good body language, and by osmosis d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is what makes the product great a. Benefits b. both a & c c. Features d. Salesperson |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is how the features meet the customer's needs a. Benefits b. Features c. The right equipment d. both a & b |
|
|
Term
d. Closed Ended Questions |
|
Definition
Questions that prompt a "yes or no" answer a. Personal questions b. Open-ended questions c. Unrelated questions d. Closed-ended questions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Questions that prompt a wide variety of answer a. Closed ended questions b. Personal questions c. Open-ended questions d. unrelated questions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is a device or software that enables a compression and or decompression for digital video? a. DIVX b. .wav c. pdf file d. video codec |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the name of a family of standards used for coding audio-visual information? a. DIVX b. Flash c. MPEG d. Quicktime |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the Codec Application used in video CDs? a. MPEG3 b. MPEG2 c. MPEG4 d. MPEG1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the Codec used in DVDs,CATV, and HDTV? a. MPEG2 b. MPEG4 c. MPEG3 d. MPEG1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the Codec used in Internet streaming, cell phone video and interactive TV? a.MPEG1 b.MPEG4 c.MPEG3 d.MPEG2 |
|
|
Term
b. I-pictures, P-pictures, B-pictures |
|
Definition
What are the three kinds of encoded pictures? a. .jpeg, .bit, .gif b. i-picture, p-picture, b-picture c. MPEG1, MPEG2, MPEG4 d. a-frame, g-frame, n-frame |
|
|
Term
a. I-picture(intra-coded frame) |
|
Definition
It is encoded as a single freestanding image with no reference to preceding or subsequent pictures a. i-picture b. b-picture c. p-picture d. jpeg picture |
|
|
Term
c. P-picture(predictive frame) |
|
Definition
Calculated by comparing the previous and successive pictures and recording only the changes in the picture a. i-picture b. b-picture c. p-picture d. n-picture |
|
|
Term
d. B-picture(bi-directional frame) |
|
Definition
Uses both past and sunbsequent pictures as references to calculate the compressed picture date a. g-picture b. p-picture c. i-picture d. b-picture |
|
|
Term
d. DTCP(Digital Transmission Content Protection) |
|
Definition
Standards specification to provide protected digital entertainment in the home a. ACP b. Macrovision c. DHCP d. DTCP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Video Copy protection that prevents copy of DVD,VOD,PPV to a VCR a. CA b. DTCP c. Macrovision d. ACP |
|
|
Term
a. ACP(Analog Copying and Piracy Technology) |
|
Definition
What technology prevents or distorts copies made over and analog connection between a source player and a DVD recorder, DVR, PC or VCR? a. ACP b. DTCP c. Macrovision d. CA |
|
|
Term
b. CA-(Conditional Access) |
|
Definition
The protection of content by requiring certain criteria to be met before granting access to content a. DTCP b. CA c. ACP d. Macrovision |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Refers to how quickly computers on a network can communicate and share information a. Powerboost b. Operating System c. Network range d. Network speed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the maximum transfer speed of a wired network? a. 150 Mbps b. 100 Mbps c. 54 Mbps d. 11 Mbps |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This device contains a transmitter and receiver and operates in either 2.4GHz or 5GHz radio band a. AP b. switch c. hub d. gateway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
These devices refer to other wireless nodes in a network a. hubs b. clients/stations c. modems d. switches |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the operating radius of a wireless network? a. 100-300ft b. 20-75ft c. 50-100ft d. 25-125ft |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a term uses for areas where wireless networks are open the public a. MAN b. Hotspots c. WAN d. WPA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What wireless technology is backwards compatible to b/a/g, operates in 2.4GHz and 5GHz radio frequency and has a data speed of 160-300+Mbps and distance rating of 160-300+ft? a. 802.11n b. 802.1x c. 802.11f d. 802.12n |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What wireless standard operates in 2.4GHz radio frequency, with data rates of up to 54Mbps, and a distance range of 100-150ft range and is compatible with 802.11b? a. 802.11a b. 802.1x c. 802.11g d. 802.11n |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What wireless standard uses 5GHz radio band, with data speeds of up to 54Mbps, distance range from 25-75 ft, and is commonly used in offices? a. 802.11n b. 802.11a c. 802.12a d. 802.11b |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What wireless standard uses 2.4GHz radio band, with a distance range from 100-150 ft, and data rates of up to 11Mbps? a. 802.11g b. 802.11g c. 802.12b d. 802.11b |
|
|
Term
1.Virus 2.Spyware 3.Adware 4.SPAM 5.Hackers 6.Hijacking 7.Phishing 8.Cookies |
|
Definition
What are the eight common network security threats? |
|
|
Term
a.Executable, Email, Worms, Trojan horse |
|
Definition
What are the four main types of viruses? a. executable, email, worms, trojan horse b. Spam, email, worms, trojan horse c. Executable, Pop ups, worms, trojan horse d. Replication, event watching, camouflage, delivery d. executable, email, worms, |
|
|
Term
b.Replication, Event Watching,Camouflage ,Delivery |
|
Definition
What are the four actions of a virus? a. spyware, popups, spam, trojan horse b. replication, event watching, camouflage, delivery c. executable, email, worms, trojan horse d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When a virus inserts itself into other programs and files, this action is known as________? a. event watching b. delivery c. replication d. camouflage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When a virus checks for conditions at a specific time then delivers its destructive payload, this action is known as______? a. event watching b. camouflage c. replication d. delivery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the action called when a virus disguises itself to avoid detection? a. replication b. delivery c. event watching d. camouflage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the action called when a triggering condition is met, the virus unleashes its payload? a. replication b. delivery c. camouflage d. event watching |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the device that filters out intrusions by shutting down non-essential ports? a. switch b. gateway c. anti-spyware software d. firewall |
|
|
Term
a. Packet Filtering,Proxy, Stateful Inspection |
|
Definition
What are the three types of firewall rules? a. packet filetring, proxy, stateful inspection b. port triggering, port forwarding, port blocking c. packet filtering, port triggering, port blocking d. packet filtering, port forwarding, port triggering |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
looks for sections of the code triggered by time or date events routines to search for files formatted in .exe, .vbs, .bat a. spam b. virus c. heuristic detectors d. hackers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is a program that sends information about the user and sends the data to marketers and advertisers? a. virus b. spyware c. spam d. pop ups |
|
|
Term
a. Spyware scanner,Pop up blocker, Anti-spyware program |
|
Definition
What are the three ways in preventing spyware? a. spyware scanner, pop up blocker, anti-spyware program b. spyware scanner, hire a hacker, pop up blocker c. packet filtering, port triggering, port forwarding d. none of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of virus piggybacks on real programs a. worms b. trojan horse c. executable d. spyware |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of virus replicates itself then automatically mails itself to the victim's global address lists a. spyware b. pop ups c. trojan horse d. email virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of virus uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself a. spam b. worms c. pop ups d. spyware |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of virus claims to be one thing and unleashes its payload when ran a. trojan horse b. email virus c. pop ups d. worms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This individuals exploit weaknesses in a network or computer then gains unauthorized access for malicious intent a. IT guy b. person seating next to you c. hackers d. crackers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How do you end a continuous ping? a. type stop b. -t c. control+c d. control+s |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the term used when someone receives unsolicited bulk-email. a. spamming b. IM c. texting d. twittering |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a program that plays/displays advertisements a. spyware b. adware c. pop ups d. virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the term used to describe a range of malicious software that changes a browser's setting. a. hackering b. adware c. spamming d. hijacking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a system of computers, peripherals, terminals and databases connected by communication lines a. hub b. network c. servers d. none of the above, this is a trick question |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
defined as a geographically close set of computers on a single network using the same connection device a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. server |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a network that is geographically far apart a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. a & b |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Uses a public network to establish a secure connection within an organization's network a. LPN b. WAP c. VPN d. WPA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a technique by which several hosts or computers share a single ip address for access to the internet -provides a type of firewall that hides internal ip addresses a. PAT b. NAS c. VPN d. NAT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
forwards request for a particular IP port pair to another IP port pair a. NAT b. PAT c. NAS d. VPN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the concept of partitioning large networks into smaller segments a. networking b. hackering c. subnetting d. spamming |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Combined with the IP address,this number allows a device to know which other addresses are local and be reached through a gateway or router. This number explains which part of an IP address comprises the network address and which part is the host address. a. subnet mask b. network IP c. gateway IP d. broadcast IP |
|
|
Term
15uv/m from 54Mhz to above 216MHz |
|
Definition
What is the signal leakage limit at 30 meters? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the signal leakage limit at 3 meters? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How long should CLI data be kept at a minimum? a. 5 years b. 1 year c. 3 years d. 2 years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
defined as a figure of merit derived mathematically from the number of signal leaks in a cable system a. CLI b. SLM c. MER d. BER |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the figure of merit that the FCC requires on a CLI? a. 64 or more b. 64 or less c. 32 or more d. 59.2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a firewall function where packets that belong to a banned internet site are blocked. a. Proxy b. Stateful inspection c. Packet filtering d. port forwarding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a firewall function where all traffic is sent to a file server to be examined and then forwards the packets that obey the firewall rules. a. Port blocking b. Stateful Inspection c. Packet Filtering d. Proxy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a firewall function where packets that fail the test are discarded. a. Proxy b. Packet Filtering c. Stateful Inspection d. Port Triggering |
|
|
Term
a. Stop Errors, Memory Dump |
|
Definition
What are the two common types of a system errors in a PC? a. stop errors, memory dumps b. stop errors, virus c. virus, spyware d. pop up, adware |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of system error normally indicates a device or driver issue. a. memory dump b. stop errors c. stop dumps d. memory errors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of system error displays a blue screen along with a cryptic set of hexadecimal addresses. a. stop errors b. memory errors c. memory dumps d. stop dumps |
|
|
Term
1.Hardware issues 2.Configuration issues 3.Signal issues |
|
Definition
What are the three common types of network issues? |
|
|
Term
1.Incorrectly configured DHCP address 2.Incorrectly configured encryption key 3.Incorrectly configured mac address filters |
|
Definition
What are the three types of configuration issues? |
|
|
Term
a. Ringer Equivalency Number |
|
Definition
REN stands for a. Ringer Equivalency Number b. Ringing Equipment Number c. Ring Equalizing Number d. Ringer Equalizing Number |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the maximum REN per phone a. 10 b. 5 c. 12 d. 24 |
|
|
Term
1. 66 block 2. 110 block 3. NID(screw in terminal block) |
|
Definition
Name three different types of ILEC connections |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-also known as Embedded Multimedia Terminal Adapter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is an interface between the eMTA and a 66 or 100 block demarc point |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a device used by merchants to accept payment for merchandize and services rendered a. POS b. DOS c. REN d. CASH |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the baud rate recommended by Comcast for a POS machine? a. 5000 b. 9600 c. 1000 d. 2000 |
|
|
Term
a. Incorrect baud rate, wrong polarity |
|
Definition
What are the two common problems found in a POS service call? a. incorrect baud rate, wrong polarity b. signal problem, defective POS c. damaged drop, defective splitter d. signal issue, line problem |
|
|
Term
d. local power supply unit |
|
Definition
LPSU stands for a. Live Power Supply Unit b. Long Power Supply Unit c. Large Power Supply Unit d. Local Power Supply Unit |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the maximum power consumption of an ARRIS 8 line eMTA? a. 50 watts b. 60 watts c. 48 vdc d. 90 vdc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the maximum voltage of an Arris eMTA? a. 90 vdc b. 60 vdc c. 48vdc d. 60 watts |
|
|
Term
White, brown, blue,orange,green, black and red |
|
Definition
What is the color sequence of an LPSU telemetry and power cord? |
|
|
Term
Telemetry and backup battery is bypassed if AC power is connected to the eMTA |
|
Definition
Why shouldn't you connect AC power to the eMTA when using 48vdc power? |
|
|
Term
Channel Deletion Filter/Combiner |
|
Definition
It is a device that deletes unwanted channels and inserts local feed in place of the deleted channel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is where data wiring connects to an Ethernet switch |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the focal point in connecting multiple computers within one LAN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-also known as Incumbent Local Exchange Carrier |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Competitive Local Exchange Carrier |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This IP is the lowest in value and encompasses the entire network a. broadcast IP b. routable IP c. network IP d. gateway IP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This IP is used on the customer's equipment a. routable IP b. gateway IP c. network IP d. broadcast IP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This IP is assigned on the gateway. a. network IP b. gateway IP c. routable IP d. broadcast IP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This IP is the highest in value and identifies all hosts/devices on the LAN a. network IP b. routable IP c. gateway IP d. broadcast IP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This subnet is used for customers that have 1 routable static IP address |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the subnet mask of a /30 subnet? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the subnet mask of /29 subnet? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the subnet mask of a /28 subnet? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many routable static IP addresses are in a /29 subnet? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many routable static IP addresses are in a /28 subnet? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Private Branch Exchange |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Demilitarized Zone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Media Access Control |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-also known as trace route -it is a command tool used to determine the route taken by packets across an IP network |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Fully Qualified Domain Name |
|
|
Term
1.Firewall Protection 2.User Access Management 3.Advanced Security Features |
|
Definition
What are the three features that a Business IP Gateway provides? |
|
|
Term
1. Port Forwarding 2. Port Triggering |
|
Definition
Name two of the Advanced Security Features in Business Class IP Gateway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many hops does a traceroute fail to complete before its considered a routing issue? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary DNS server address used in a Comcast Business Gateway? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the secondary DNS server address used in a Comcast Business Gateway? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the default username for the Business Gateway login? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the default password for the Business Gateway login? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the default username for the customer login on a Business Gateway? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the default password for a customer login on a Business Gateway? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many routable static IP addresses are in a subnet of /24 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Routing Information Protocol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Trivial File Transfer Protocol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a firewall rule that allows direction of inbound internet traffic to connect to a specific application to a predefined port |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a firewall rule that provides ability to dynamically open a specific inbound port based on a request from a local computer |
|
|
Term
True Static IP Port Management |
|
Definition
This is a firewall rule that allows opening and closing of specific inbound ports to connected computers/firewalls configured with a public routable IP address |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This firewall rule enables restriction of specific local hosts from accessing particular internet applications. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the internet address of a Business Gateway? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the command for a continuous ping? |
|
|
Term
*63 Activate *83 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
*72 Activate *73 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
*77 Activate *87 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
*60 Activate *80 prompt 3 to Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Caller ID blocking per call |
|
|
Term
*230 Activate *231 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
*232 Activate *233 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
*66 Activate *86 Deactivate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2 +last 3 digits of phone number |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Directed Call Pick up without barge in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Directed Call Pick up with barge in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Starter 2. Business 3. Commerce 4. Professional |
|
Definition
What are the four types of web hosting packages? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as New Global Telecom -pre provisions, ports pones numbers, sets up soft switch, voicemail and passwords for business class voice |
|
|
Term
loop lengths up to 1500 ft of 26AWG |
|
Definition
What are the telephony requirements for an 8-line Arris eMTA? |
|
|
Term
Monitored Alarm system with line seizure |
|
Definition
What is an RJ31x used for? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the term for unwanted signal entering the network. |
|
|
Term
1.modulation content 2.strength 3.frequency |
|
Definition
Name three factors that affect appearance of beats. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appears when ingress allows a locally broadcast tv channel's signal to enter the tv along with the channel's signal supplied by the network -Appears to the right of the picture |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Caused by reflection on the cable system due to poor return loss at the reflecting device and poor directivity at the tap or device feeding set -Appears on the left of the picture |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a method of reception using an RF current of the proper magnitude and phase relation so the received voltage is of the same nature as the orignal wave. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Caused in one channel by the carrier of another transmitter operating from the same channel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Caused by ingress from transmitters operating in the upstream frequency bandwidth (CB radios,Amateur Radio transmitters) entering the tap or customer tv set. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Defined as noise produced from changes in voltage as a result of temperature changes above absolute zero. |
|
|
Term
Carrier to Noise Ratio C/N |
|
Definition
Defined as the difference in peak carrier level in relation to the noise floor. Both are measured in dBmv |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Cross Modulation Vertical bars are created from crossing of modulation from one channel to another |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Composite Triple Beat |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Defined as an undesired change in the waveform of a signal |
|
|
Term
1.XMOD 2.Discrete 2nd Order 3.Discrete 3rd Order 4.CTB 5.CSO |
|
Definition
List the five types of distortions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
True or False For every dB levels of an amplifier are raised, the carrier to cross modulation ratio gets 2 dB worse. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are the FCC STD and HRC specs for minimum coherent distortion? |
|
|
Term
no worse than 54dB STD and 49dB HRC |
|
Definition
What is Comcast recommended performance for minimum coherent distortion for STD and HRC? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What two channels are not affected by CTB distortions? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appears as a horizontal bar moving from the bottom to the top of the picture |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appears as two horizontal hum bars in a picture |
|
|
Term
30dB or better less than or equal to 3% hum) |
|
Definition
What is an acceptable ratio for a carrier to hum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Defined as amplifier circuit paths that allow AC voltage to be directed onto specific distribution cables. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the unit of measuremtn for RF signals? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Radio Frequency -defined as an electromagnetic signal above the audio and below the infrared frequencies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many states does QPSK have? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Quadrature Phase Shift Keying -defined as a phase modulation algorithm wherein a carrier is shifted in 90 degree steps. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are the four phases in which a carrier is sent in QPSK? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a version of frequency modulation where the phase of the carrier wave is modulated to encode bits of digital information in each phase change |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a form of phase modulation which is accompanied by the use of a discrete number of states |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a graphic depiction of the four phase states of a QPSK signal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Quadrature Amplitude Modulation -defined as a digital modulation scheme that allows 2 channels of information to be transmitted at the same time on a particular frequency by changing the phase and amplitude |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Signal to Noise Ratio -defined as a measure of signal strength relative to background noise in analog and digital communications |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the formula for SNR? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the unit of measure for SNR? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Noise Power Ratio -Calculates the activity levels in an unused channel of a multi-channel system when there is random activity on the other channels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Modulation Erro Ratio -measures the ratio of the error power to the average power in an ideal QAM signal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Bit Error Rate -measures how often an error occurs in a given amount of data |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Forward Error Correction -defined as method where additional data bits are added to the digital video bit stream to help identify and correct any errors that may be caused by the transmission system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Transmission Access Point |
|
|
Term
1. Identify 2. Isolate 3. Repair 4. Verify |
|
Definition
What are the 4 steps to troubleshooting? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Quality of Service -prioritization of voice packets during data transmission |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Converged Regional Area Networks |
|
|
Term
1.Private View 2.Public View |
|
Definition
What are the 2 types of Business Class tv? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Also known as Wired Equivalent Privacy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Cable Modem Termination System |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
also known as Wi-fi Protected Access |
|
|
Term
Basic, Information & Entertainment, Standard and Preferred |
|
Definition
Name the packages available to Business Class TV Private View |
|
|
Term
Basic, Digital Basic Plus, Digital Standard, Sports and Entertainment Standard,Digital Deluxe and Sports and Entertainment Deluxe |
|
Definition
Name the packages available to Business Class TV Public View |
|
|