Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Case Studies
Midterm Review
135
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
02/26/2011

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What are the basic rule-outs for scours in 21 day old piglets?
Definition

-TGE

- Diet Change 

Can be taken off a highly digestible protein source too early.  Soybean protein can also cause hypersensitivity, but diarrhea will resolve in 2 weeks. 

- Clostridium dificile 

- Colibacillosis

- Entercoccus 

- Grower scours 

- Rotavirus 

Term

What does "PRRS positive but stable" mean?

 

Definition
That the animal is serologically positive but not shedding
Term
What is the expected weight of a 19 day old piglet?
Definition
Approx 13-14 lbs. 
Term
How much does a 19 day old piglet consume per day?
Definition
Approx. 1.5 lbs per day 
Term

What is the purpose of having 100g/ton CTC in feed?

(Chlortetracycline)

Definition
The chlortetracycline acts as a prophylactic and allows for growth promotion. 
Term
Can change in feed ration cause a problem of scours in piglets?
Definition
Yes, the pigs were introduced to a new diet too soon that didnt contain a highly digestible protein source. 
Term

What is more cost effective in treating piglets with scours?

A) Inject all of the piglets with Excede 

B) Inject only sick piglets with Excede

C) Use neomycin with all piglets in water

Definition

ANSWER: Neomycin 

Packets of neomycin in water are significantly less expensive.

Term
Why would live pigs be sent to a lab for examination instead of dead ones?
Definition

Live pigs would not have autolysed tissues - especially the intestines. 

The acutely ill pigs would still have bacteria or virus present within them, they should also be untreated. 

Term
What route and site would be used for injectable antibiotics in piglets?
Definition
Antibiotics should be administered IM at the base of the ear to avoid reaction in areas where meat is taken from. 
Term
How are electrolytes administered to 19 day old piglets?
Definition
It is best to give electrolytes via water
Term

What bacterial agent would be least likely to be the cause of diarrhea in young piglets?

A) Escherichia coli 

B) Salmonella cholerasuis

C) Clostridium perfringens

D) Clostridium difficile

Definition
Answer: Salmonella cholerasuis 
Term

Which of the following is a reason to send live piglets to the diagnostic lab?

A) To avoid postmortem autolysis 

B) To prevent secondary bacterial invasion 

C) The diagnostic lab can obtain all the correct samples 

D) All of the above

Definition
Answer: All of the above
Term

What is the mechanism of neomycin?

 

A) Inhibitor of the 50r ribosome 

B) Inhibitor of DNA synthesis 

C) Inhibitor of the 30s ribosome 

D) Inhibitor of protein synthesis 

Definition
Answer: C) inhibitor of the 30s ribosome
Term
What antibiotics could be effective against E.coli in piglets?
Definition

Ceftiofur

Neomycin

Enrofloxacin

Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole

Term
How is supplemental heat provided to piglets?
Definition
Heat is provided via heating pads and lamps, which should only be provided in a portion of the living quarters, so pigs can prevent themselves from overheating.
Term
How do E. Coli infections originate in swine herds?
Definition

E. coli can contaminate the skin and mammary glands of dams which are ingested by piglets. When piglets are shipped and weaned the stress can decrease immunity can cause clinical disease. 

Bacteria can survive in the environment and infect more. 

Term

How does E. coli cause scours in piglets? 

(bacterial mechanisms) 

Definition

Immune system suppression + exposure to bacteria 

enterotoxigenic strains attach to enterocytes by special pili.  Pilus recognized by antigens (K88, K99, F18).  

TOXINS 

Heat labile toxin (LT): increases cAMP = osmotic diarrhea (increased secretion of chloride, sodium, water) 

Heat stable toxin (ST): increases cAMP

Shiga toxin: inhibits protein synthesis 

Term
What type of vaccination program should be initiated in newborn piglets?
Definition

"Porcine Pilishield"

Killed autogenous vaccine given IM prior to farrowing 

Ab from colostrum - so vaccinated dams

K88 & K99

Term
What type of vaccination program should be initiated in weanling piglets?
Definition

Killed autogenous vaccine 

F18 

Term
What diagnostic testing should be done in piglets with scours?
Definition

- Giardia SNAP test

- Fecal smear

- Parasite exam 

- PCR to test for DNA of pili and toxins produced

Term
At what age are mares first bred?
Definition

Approx 4 years 

They start cycling at 18 months, but still too young

Term
What is the normal gestational length in horses?
Definition
335 - 342 days or about 11 months
Term
What type of placentation does the mare have?
Definition
Diffuse (microcotelydonary) 
Term
Is premature lactation normal in the mare?
Definition

It is usually not a good sign! 

If abnormal may indicate placentits, metritis, abortion, etc. 

BUT it can be normal waxy buildup that can occur up to a weeks before parturition.

Term
What can be the cause of pre-partum vaginal discharge?
Definition

Infectious endometritis 

Placentitis

 

Term
[image]
Definition
PLACENTITIS
Term
What are the normal parameters for heart rate, respiratory rate and temperature in a neonatal foal?
Definition

HR = 80-120 beats per minute

Resp Rate = 40 - 50 breaths/min

Rectal temp = 99 - 102OF

Term
What is the most likely cause of a continuous heart murmur in a 10 day old foal?
Definition
Patient Ductus Arteriosus
Term
What are the characteristics of the immune system in a newborn foal?
Definition

Native 

present but decreased 

Complement activity 

Neutrophil and macrophage activity

Interon production, NK cell function 

Acquired 

Primary response only - no memory cells 

Decreased lymphocyte response 

T-helper 2 cells 

Colostrum transfers maternal antibodies

Term
What time course and tissues are involved in colostral globulin absorption in a foal?
Definition

Immunoglobulins are not degraded in the stomach of a neonate until 24 hours after birth.  There is little proteolytic activity until this time when normal apithelial cells replace = closure time. 

Term
What is fibrinogen?
Definition
A soluble plasma glycoprotein that is synthesized by the liver and is converted to fibrin by thrombin during coagulation cascade. Most often in response to inflammation/clot formation.
Term
How does one collect and store blood for culture?
Definition

Prep venipuncture sight 

Collect blood 3 times within 24-48 hour period

collect 2 tubes each time 

Total: 3 for aerobic, 3 for anaerobic testing

Best time to collect bloos is right before a fever spike. 

Term
How would you define Septicemia vs Sepsis ?
Definition

- Septicemia: Presence of bacteria in the blood, associated with severe infections. Serious, life threatening, and gets worse very quickly. 

 

- Sepsis: life threatening illness where the immune system responds to a bacterial response and overwhelms the normal processes in the blood. This results in a small clot formation, blocking blood flow to vital organs.

 

Term
What is failure of passive transfer?
Definition

Animal fails to acquire systemic immunity from mother's colostrum.  

 

Failure can occur at many aspects of immunity:

Mother didnt make colostrum 

Premature birth 

Failure to concentrate IgG

Ingestive failure

Absorptive failure

Term
How would you treat a foal with failure of passive transfer?
Definition

- provide supplemental IgG

- If gut if closed, give IV/IP plasma or commercial immunoglobulin

 

Term

What are possible bacterial causes of septicemia in foals?

 

Definition

E. coli

Klebsiella

Enterobacter

Actinobacilus 

Pseudomonas

Rhodococcus 

Enterococcus 

Streptococcus 

Term
What is the antibiotic choice for infections with Enterococcus durans?
Definition

Erythromycin 

*Gentamycin/Penicillin

Term
What are the differentials for acute lameness in a neonatal foal?
Definition

Septic arthritis 

Trauma 

Congenital malformation 

Term
What is BST and how/why is it used in dairy production?
Definition
BST - injectable bovine somatotropin (hormone) that are given to cows to stimulate increased milk output by inhibiting destruction of mammary cells.  
Term
What is the J5 vaccine that is used in cattle?
Definition
It is an E. coli vaccine against exposed care antigens of the bacteria, doesn't prevent disease but causes fewer and milder cases of disease. 
Term
What is the Pili-guard vaccine used in cattle?
Definition
A vaccine against the pili of E. coli
Term
What are the common causes of scours in neonatal calves?
Definition

Viral: BVD, Rotavirus, Coronavirus

Bacterial: E. coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens

Parasitic: Coccidiosis, Cryptosporidium 

Term
What are possible caues of bloody diarrhea and death in a first-calf heifer?
Definition

BVD

E coli

Term
What are causes of abortion in cattle (infectious and non infectious)?
Definition

Non-infectious: Toxins, genetic abnormalities of fetus

Infectious: BVD, IBR, Brucella abortus, leptospira, neosporum caninum.

Term
What factors would you consider when deciding which calves to select for necropsy in diagnosing diarrhea?
Definition

- Bull calves (worth less money) 

- Untreated 

- Showing clinical signs of illness

- Freshly euthanized to decrease autolysis 

or taken most recently deceased 

Term
What are the minimum tissue samples that would need to be collect and sent to a diagnostic lab in determing cases of diarrhea in cattle?
Definition

Ante mortem: 

Fresh feces (for bacterial culture, salmonella, bovine rotavirus, bovine coronavirus, parasite tests)

Fresh ear notch (BVDV on ELISA) 

Frozen feces in anaerobic container (clostridium)

Post mortem:

Tied off bowel loop (rotavirus, coronavirus, BVDV)

Intestinal loop: several locations, adjacent LN

Spleen, esophagus for histopath

Term

What are the steps involved in RT-PCR?

 

Definition

- Denature the DNA

- Anneal the primer 

- extend primer to produce new DNA 

- several cycles

- run results through gel electrophoreisis 

- compare to control sample of suspected agent 

(this was in the case of potential BVD) 

Term
Why would you retest RT-PCR in potential BVD cases?
Definition
You would retest them because to determine any persistantly infected calves.  After 2 weeks, most calves would have fought off infection, but any PI will continue to shed the virus. 
Term
What recommendations would you have for a farm manager regarding management of BVD positive calves?
Definition

- Separate out positive calves from negative ones

- Take care of these calves last when feeding and cleaning to prevent tracking virus to healthy.

- Clean calf pens more frequently with lots of bleach to prevent reinfection.

Term
What are the most important tissues to collect for a complete abortion work up by the daignostic lab?
Definition

Placenta of cow

Kidney, lung, spleen, lymph nodes, thymus, and any diseased tissues. 

Term
What pathologic findings are typically associated with in utero BVD virus infection of bovine fetuses?
Definition

Cerebellar hypoplasia

Micropthalmia

Hydrocephalus 

Renal Dysplasia

Contracted tendons

Mummified fetuses 

Term
What is the purpose of testing a milk sample from a bulk tank? What will the results indicate, and what are the limitations of the test?
Definition
PCR is used on bulk tanks to test for the presence of Persitantly infected animals.  This is an economically effective way to screen for BVD. There is a limit of 1 in 250 animals, and you wouldnt be able to tell which one from the test. 
Term
What are some reasons for conflicting pathologic diagnoses and virologic tests in BVD?
Definition

Accuracy - technical error 

postmortem autolysis of samples 

Incorrect tissue type used in PCR

Virus not distributed equally in tissues

 

Term
What does ear notch testing provide that is different from other BVD test?
Definition

Ear notch can be stained with IHC, this detects PI animals only without interference by maternal AB or TI.  This can be used on neonatal animals.  

Determines if animal is currently infected and not just exposed. 

Also has reduced cost.

Term

What is the main goal of vaccination protocol in controlling BVD? 

 

Definition
Vaccination exposes herds to a vaccine strain so they can mount immunity to the virus, in case they do come in contact with the virus in which case they will already have immunoglobulins prepared to attack it. 
Term
When should FP5 vaccines be given in cattle regarding BVD protection?
Definition

Give a month before breeding

Calves over three months can be vaccinated if dam was vaccinated in the past 12 months. 

Revaccinate annually.

Term
How quickly would you expect the vaccination program to decrease or eliminate BVD virus associated disease in the herd?
Definition
Vaccine program alone will not eliminate BVD from a herd. Managment considerations should be taken to decrease the BVD, keeping closed herd, and not buying untested cows. 
Term

What congenital malformations might beseen in BVD-infected stillborn and newborn live calves?

At what age would the calves have been infected?

Definition

Cerebellar hypoplasia, micropthalmia, contracted tendons, hydrocephalus 

 

Infection typically occurs 75-120 days into gestation.

Term
What factors go into estimating total economic empact of a BVD outbreak on a dairy farm?
Definition

Cost of vaccination 

testing 

lack of replacement animals 

open low cost 

abortions 

 

Term
Discuss the canine estrus cycle and how long is the bitch in heat?
Definition

Diestrus: 60 days

Anestrus: 90-150 days 

Proestrus: 9 days 

Estrus: 9 days (this is when the female dog is receptive to breeding by a male = heat) 

Average "heat": every 6-7 months

 

Term
What are the clinical signs of a "dog in heat"?
Definition

flagging

interest in male dogs 

edematous vulva

serosanguinous vaginal discharge 

 

the estrous behavior is from an increase in estrogen occured in proestrus as produced by dominant follicle.

Term
How would a veterinarian determine the stage of estrus that a dog is in?
Definition

Less accurate: look for signs of heat like flagging, vulvar swelling, discharge, bleeding 

More accurate: vaginal cytology

Term
Where are the best locations to take a pulse on a dog?
Definition

Jugular

Femoral 

Dorsal pedal 

others

Term
What are the different types of shock?
Definition

Cardiogenic 

hypovolumic

neurogenic 

pooling of blood in microvasculature 

(sepsis, anaphalyctic)

Term
Why might a dog that was hit by a car have ventricular tachycardia?
Definition

Stress myocarditis following trauma of HBC 

or could be trauma from HBC

Term
What types of arrhythmias are commonly associated with different types of trauma?
Definition

Ventricular ectopic complexes: HBC trauma (premature heart beat originating in ventricular chamber) 

Ventricular tachycardia: manifests in 24-48 hours after trauma.  Often transient after trauma such as GDV.

Ventricular arrhythmias very common

 

 

Term
What can cause ventricular tachycardia?
Definition

Heart disease 

metabolic disease

electrolyte imbalance 

toxicity 

cancer

pancreatitis 

GDV

Trauma 

Term
What is the drug protocol in preforming surgery for a diaphragmatic hernia?
Definition

-Pass endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen 

-IV bolus of Vasopressin (increases peripheral vascular resistance, thus increasing arterial blood pressure)

-Lactated ringers for replacement fluids

- lidocaine: antiarrhythmic drug (treats ventricular tachycardia by altering cardiac action potentials of ion channels) 

 

Term
What is the effectiveness of lidocaine in treating ventricular tachycardia, and what is the dosing frequency?
Definition

Typically effective at correcting ventricular tachycardia

- ventricular excitability depressed 

- SA node unaffected 

 

Onset of injection is 45 - 90 seconds 

action lasts for 10-20 minutes 

Term

What drugs can be used to correct ventricular tachycardia?

Which one has least negative effects?

Definition

Pricainamide

Procainamide

Quinidine 

Lidocaine - doesnt produce significant decrease in arterial pressure or cardiac contractile force

Term
What is the difference between compensatory and non compensatory premature ventricular complexes?
Definition

Preventricular contraction = heart beat initiated by ventricle instead of SA node

Non-compensatory pauses = SA reset and new sinus cycle begins, not an exact multiple of regular PP interval.

Conpensatory preventricular complex= Starts in ventriclesfrom often a hypoxic focus.  depolarizes ventricles, not SA node. SA not reset and fires at normal timing. 

Term
What surgical precautions should be kept in mind before and during diaphragmatic hernia repair surgery?
Definition
Keep the animals front end elevated to allow gravity to keep the abdominal organs from pushing further into the thoracic cavity.
Term

Why might a dog with a diaphragmatic hernia become cyanotic and have a weakened pulse when rolled on their back in order to preform midline laparotomy?

What could be done to prevent this? 

Definition

When dog was rolled on their back, displaced organs compressed vena cava thus decreasing venous return and causing hypoxia.

This cannot realy be prevented, but can try not rolling her on her back and instead performing a lateral laparotomy, but there is very narrow access to the body cavity. 

Term
How is pulmonary function affected in an anesthetized animal with an open laparotomy incision and torn diaphragm?
Definition

Anesthesia decreases total volume and respiratory rate, and increases end tidal CO2.  A torn diaphragm reduces respiratory rate and tidal volume, with abdominal muscles partially compensating. An open laparotomy will eliminate the negative pressure present in the thoracic cavity. 

= Decreased pulmonary function

Term

What should be recommended when sending home a post-op diaphragmatic hernia patient?

What are some possible complications?

Definition

Recommend removal of chest tube once nothing is aspirated (about 1-2 days) 

Caomplications: Pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, cardiac arrhythmias, surgical site infections, reperfusion injuries. 

Term
What are the options in diagnosing potential pregnancies in dogs? When can they be used?
Definition

Palpation (28-35 days) 

Ultrasound (28-30 days) 

Blood test (after 28 days) 

Radiographs (after 48 days) 

 

Term
Do you need the permission of an owner to obtain blood work results? Why or why not?
Definition
YES - you do need the permission of the owner. ACCORDING TO THE AVMA: medical records are property of the practice and are privleged and confidental information, that cannot be released except by court order or owner's written consent. 
Term
Why is surgery required to remove a 4 day old linear foreign object?
Definition

Because of the duration of exposure of the linear foreign object.  After 4 days of going unnoticed, a an object like a string, would have a good chance of being embedded int he mucosa of the GI tract.  Also the object could be far down the GI tract, like into the duodenum. 

If left to pass it would likely cause an obstruction.

Term
What are some post op complications associated with removal of a linear foreign body?
Definition

Intestinal necrosis 

perforation

leakage

dehiscence

peritonitis

endotoxic shock

stenosis 

 

2 days hospitalization recommended 

Term
What are the recommended anesthetic protocols for abdominal surgery to remove a linear foreign body?
Definition

Premedication: Butophanol 

if not dehydrated- buprenorphine or acepromazine

Induction: Ketamine or propofol

Inhalant: Sevoflurane or Isoflurane 

(NOT Nitrous oxide because it expands tissues/organs)

 

Term
What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine?
Definition

Disrupts the CNS by causing overstimulation 

Inhibits GABA, may block serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the CNS.

Term
What is the mechanism of action of Acepromazine?
Definition

Blocks post-synaptic dopamine receptors in the CNS 

May inhibit release of dopamine.

Term
What is the mechanism of action of Butorphanol?
Definition

Provides analgesia through antagonistic activity inthe limbic system 

 

Term
What is the mechanism of action of Glycopyrolate?
Definition
It acts as an antimuscarinic
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Isoflurane?
Definition
It interferes with functioning nerve cells in the brain by acting on the lipid matrix of the membrane
Term
What is a "farrow-to-finish" swine farm?
Definition
This is a swine operation where swine are born and raised to their finishing weight in the same operational facility. 
Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of NURSERY pigs?
Definition

Weaned at 21-24 days of age 

Weigh 10-20 lbs.

Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of feeder pigs?
Definition

6 weeks of age 

20-60 lbs.

Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of finisher pigs?
Definition

16-20 weeks 

240-270 lbs.

Term
What are the factors in determining when to wean pigs?
Definition

Age: around 21 days 

Weight: 11 -15 lbs.

 

Term
What is the typical protein composition of swine feeds?
Definition

Lysine 

Tryptophan

Threonine

Methionine

Isoleucine

Phenylalanine

Arginine

Histadine

Leucine

Valine

 

Term
What is the mineral composition of swine feeds?
Definition

Ca, P, Na, Cl, Fe, Zn, I, Se, CU, Mn

 

These allow for optimal skeletal structure and metabolic function

Term
What is the vitamin composition of swine feeds?
Definition

Vitamins A, D, E, K, B12, Biotin, Choline, Niacin, Pantothenic Acid, Riboflavin, Folacin

 

These maintain normal growth, maintenance, and reproduction

Term
Lacking of what substance can kill a pig more quickly than any other nutrient?
Definition
WATER
Term
How is protein provided to swine feed?
Definition

Soybean meal 

meat/bone meal

cottonseed oil 

poultry by-product

 

Term
What is meant by "base mix" in regards to swine feed?
Definition

Contains ground grain + Proteinsource + Mineral and vitamin basemix.  This is added to grain and supplement 

 

The is a flexible, simple and popular feed choice 

Term
What is meant by a "pre-mix" in regards to swine feed?
Definition

Contains ground grain + protein source + calcium source + phosphorus source + vitamin premix + Trace mineral premix

 

This is best for large operations: least expensive but most complex

Term
What are the 4 major swine feeding systems?
Definition

Complete Diet (Ration) System 

Complete Supplement System 

Basemix system 

Premix system 

Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for nursery pigs?
Definition
18-20% Crude protein
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for a grower pig?
Definition
Approx 16% Crude Protein
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for a finisher pig?
Definition
14-15 % crude protein
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for gestating/lactating sows?
Definition
14% crude protein
Term
What is lyncomycin?
Definition

A lincosamide antibiotic that comes from the actinomyces Streptomyces lincolnensis.  

 

Macrolide that inhibits the 50S ribosomal subunit

Commonly  known as clindamycin

associated with treatment with overgrowth of Clostridium difficile - can be used in humans

Term
Why is lincomycin added to swine feed?
Definition

Treatment and control of swine dysentery 

Control of porcine proliferative enteritis (Lawsonia intracellularis) 

Reduce severity of mycoplasma pneumonia (Mycoplasma hyopneumonia) 

Increase rate of weight gain in growing-finishing swine

** No withdrawl time in US**

Term
What is the withdrawl time for 200 g lincomycin/ton of swine feed (this is a typical concentration)?
Definition

ZERO DAYS 

There is no withdrawl for lincomycin in the US

Term
What government agency supplies information about extra-label use of drugs?
Definition
FDA
Term
Does excessive lincomycin in feed constitute extra-label drug usage?
Definition
YES. Extra label use of antibiotics is strictly prohibited in food animals. 
Term
What are the consequences of feeding inadequate protein to nursery pigs?
Definition
It can possibly affect the swine's rate of gain and increase the occurance of rickets, but only if the protein deficiency is for an extended period of time.
Term
What is the proper sequence of adding ingredients to prepare swine feed?
Definition

START WITH THE LIMITING agent - often a supplement.

 

(in our cases it was then lincomycin, and then feed ration)

Term
How can E. coli be transmitted among pigs?
Definition

Vertical/horizontal transmission 

Direct contact with contaminated skin/MAMMARY GLANDS

Environment 

Piglet-piglet transmission

 

Term
What type of diarrhea is associated with Colibacillosis?
Definition
Infections with E. coli typically produce non-mucoid, blood free diarrhea. 
Term
What techniques can be used in an antibiotic free system to treat E. coli infections?
Definition

-Supporative care (replenish fluids & ELECTROLYTES) 

-Use probiotics to redirect intestinal bacterial population growth back to beneficial organisms

-Change gut pH to make unfavorable environment for E. coli growth

-Isolate clinically ill animals to prevent spreading

Term

What is the gestational cycle of horses?

(Length, type, etc)

Definition

Horses are seasonally poly-estrous 

induced by photostimulation 

have 21 day cycle

Length of gestation: 335 -342 days (11 months) 

 

Term
What are the different ways to check for pregnancy in horses, and when can they be preformed?
Definition

Ultrasound: 9-11 days 

Palpate rectally: 28 days 

Evaluate eCG in blood/urine - only found in pregnant mares, but doesnt determine duration of pregnancy.

- Embryo wil be at the base of uterine horn by 15 days

Term
What are some bacterial causes of placentitis in horses? 
Definition

Ascending:

Streptococcus equi sbsp. zooepi

E. coli 

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Klebsiella pneumonia 

Hematogenous:

Leptospirosis 

Salmonella 

Histoplasma


Term
How features can contribute to fecal contamination in uterine infections? How can that be prevented?
Definition

Features: 

Upward sloping vulva

angle combination + position of anus

Older mares = cranial movement, horizontal slope to anus

FAT mares can effect positioning

Prevention: 

Caslick's procedure (temp close vulva) 

Evaluate slope before breeding

Improve physical condition (get her trimmed up)

Term
What are the three types of joint infections (based on location of infection) ?
Definition

- Synovial: from innoculation of synovial membrane

- Epiphysial: subchondral bone infection present

- Physial: infection of the growth plate (least common)

Term
How do you treat joint infections?
Definition

- Joint lavage: with polyionic fluids for 3 days 

- Regional perfusion with antimicrobials 

- Restrict excerise to prevent trauma to cartilage

Term
What is the dry cow protocol?
Definition

- Cows dried for 65 days before freshening in dry lot 

- moved to calving barn 2 weeks before calving 

- calves should be immediately removed and put in individual pens 

given two quarts colostrum within 4 hours 

another 2 quarts colostrum within 12 hours

Term
What lesions are associated with BVD?
Definition

-Erosions and ulcerations of entire length of the GI tract 

- Hemorrhage and necrosis of lymphoid tissues 

PEYERS patches

Term
What are the lesions associated with Rotaviruses in cattle?
Definition

- sloughing of enterocytes

- reduced villus height 

 

Term
What lesions are associated with infection with coronavirus?
Definition

-Sloughing of enterocytes 

-infection of epithelial cells of LI

- Atrophy of colon ridges

Term
What lesions are associated with E. coli intestinal infections?
Definition

- cecum, colon, distal SI edematous enteritis

- erosions, ulcerations, hemorrhage

Term
What lesions are associated with salmonella ?
Definition

- Lower ileum and LI 

shortened villi and loss of epithelial cells

necrotic debris 

hemorrhage and ulcerations

 

Term
What are the lesions associated with Clostridium intestinal infections?
Definition

- Lesions of jejunum and ileum 

- Necrotic villi and colonized mucosa 

- Jejunal emphysema 

- ulcers and hemorrhage

 

Term
What is the best treatment for calves persistantly infected with BVD?
Definition

EUTHANSIA

These animals will continue to shed the virus for their entire life, and will keep the virus spreading within a herd.

Term
What are the basic pros and cons of modified live vaccines?
Definition

Pros: 

Provide better and longer immunity

Cons: 

Potential risk of abortion or disease 

Term
What are the pros and cons of using killed virus vaccine?
Definition

Pros:

Doesn't produce disease 

Cons: 

can cause decreased milk production

Term
What is hypovolumic shock and how can it be treated?
Definition

Internal or external circulation of fluids.

Treatment:

Colloids - pull fluids from body tissues 

LRS - provides electrolytes

Vasopressin (ADH) - increased water absorption in the kidneys, increases peripheral resistance

Term
What can cause muffled heart sounds in a dog? (DDX)
Definition

Effusion/fluid 

Decreased blood volume 

Obesity 

Lung disease 

Term
What three components make up the uvea?
Definition

Ciliary body

Iris 

Choroid

Term
What are some rule outs for a geriatric canine with kidney and liver dysfunction (icterus), difficulty walking, lethargy, corneal cloudiness, right lens luxation and an elevated CRT? 
Definition

D:degenerative - OA, ligament tear, hepatic cirrhosis, renal fibrosis

A:autoimmune - glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis 

M:metabolic - diabetes mellitus, nephrotic syndrome, hepatic lipidosis, amyloidosis

N: Neoplasia - hepatic or renal neoplasia, metastasis

I:Inflammatory - lepto, Lyme disease, septicemia, monocytis ehrlichiosis, canine adenovirus 1

T: toxin/trauma - ethylene glcol

P: Parasite - flukes, kidney worms

There is more likely more than one problem here!

Supporting users have an ad free experience!