Term
What are the basic rule-outs for scours in 21 day old piglets? |
|
Definition
-TGE
- Diet Change
Can be taken off a highly digestible protein source too early. Soybean protein can also cause hypersensitivity, but diarrhea will resolve in 2 weeks.
- Clostridium dificile
- Colibacillosis
- Entercoccus
- Grower scours
- Rotavirus |
|
|
Term
What does "PRRS positive but stable" mean?
|
|
Definition
That the animal is serologically positive but not shedding |
|
|
Term
What is the expected weight of a 19 day old piglet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How much does a 19 day old piglet consume per day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of having 100g/ton CTC in feed?
(Chlortetracycline) |
|
Definition
The chlortetracycline acts as a prophylactic and allows for growth promotion. |
|
|
Term
Can change in feed ration cause a problem of scours in piglets? |
|
Definition
Yes, the pigs were introduced to a new diet too soon that didnt contain a highly digestible protein source. |
|
|
Term
What is more cost effective in treating piglets with scours?
A) Inject all of the piglets with Excede
B) Inject only sick piglets with Excede
C) Use neomycin with all piglets in water |
|
Definition
ANSWER: Neomycin
Packets of neomycin in water are significantly less expensive. |
|
|
Term
Why would live pigs be sent to a lab for examination instead of dead ones? |
|
Definition
Live pigs would not have autolysed tissues - especially the intestines.
The acutely ill pigs would still have bacteria or virus present within them, they should also be untreated. |
|
|
Term
What route and site would be used for injectable antibiotics in piglets? |
|
Definition
Antibiotics should be administered IM at the base of the ear to avoid reaction in areas where meat is taken from. |
|
|
Term
How are electrolytes administered to 19 day old piglets? |
|
Definition
It is best to give electrolytes via water |
|
|
Term
What bacterial agent would be least likely to be the cause of diarrhea in young piglets?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella cholerasuis
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium difficile |
|
Definition
Answer: Salmonella cholerasuis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a reason to send live piglets to the diagnostic lab?
A) To avoid postmortem autolysis
B) To prevent secondary bacterial invasion
C) The diagnostic lab can obtain all the correct samples
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of neomycin?
A) Inhibitor of the 50r ribosome
B) Inhibitor of DNA synthesis
C) Inhibitor of the 30s ribosome
D) Inhibitor of protein synthesis |
|
Definition
Answer: C) inhibitor of the 30s ribosome |
|
|
Term
What antibiotics could be effective against E.coli in piglets? |
|
Definition
Ceftiofur
Neomycin
Enrofloxacin
Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole |
|
|
Term
How is supplemental heat provided to piglets? |
|
Definition
Heat is provided via heating pads and lamps, which should only be provided in a portion of the living quarters, so pigs can prevent themselves from overheating. |
|
|
Term
How do E. Coli infections originate in swine herds? |
|
Definition
E. coli can contaminate the skin and mammary glands of dams which are ingested by piglets. When piglets are shipped and weaned the stress can decrease immunity can cause clinical disease.
Bacteria can survive in the environment and infect more. |
|
|
Term
How does E. coli cause scours in piglets?
(bacterial mechanisms) |
|
Definition
Immune system suppression + exposure to bacteria
enterotoxigenic strains attach to enterocytes by special pili. Pilus recognized by antigens (K88, K99, F18).
TOXINS
Heat labile toxin (LT): increases cAMP = osmotic diarrhea (increased secretion of chloride, sodium, water)
Heat stable toxin (ST): increases cAMP
Shiga toxin: inhibits protein synthesis |
|
|
Term
What type of vaccination program should be initiated in newborn piglets? |
|
Definition
"Porcine Pilishield"
Killed autogenous vaccine given IM prior to farrowing
Ab from colostrum - so vaccinated dams
K88 & K99 |
|
|
Term
What type of vaccination program should be initiated in weanling piglets? |
|
Definition
Killed autogenous vaccine
F18 |
|
|
Term
What diagnostic testing should be done in piglets with scours? |
|
Definition
- Giardia SNAP test
- Fecal smear
- Parasite exam
- PCR to test for DNA of pili and toxins produced |
|
|
Term
At what age are mares first bred? |
|
Definition
Approx 4 years
They start cycling at 18 months, but still too young |
|
|
Term
What is the normal gestational length in horses? |
|
Definition
335 - 342 days or about 11 months |
|
|
Term
What type of placentation does the mare have? |
|
Definition
Diffuse (microcotelydonary) |
|
|
Term
Is premature lactation normal in the mare? |
|
Definition
It is usually not a good sign!
If abnormal may indicate placentits, metritis, abortion, etc.
BUT it can be normal waxy buildup that can occur up to a weeks before parturition. |
|
|
Term
What can be the cause of pre-partum vaginal discharge? |
|
Definition
Infectious endometritis
Placentitis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the normal parameters for heart rate, respiratory rate and temperature in a neonatal foal? |
|
Definition
HR = 80-120 beats per minute
Resp Rate = 40 - 50 breaths/min
Rectal temp = 99 - 102OF |
|
|
Term
What is the most likely cause of a continuous heart murmur in a 10 day old foal? |
|
Definition
Patient Ductus Arteriosus |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of the immune system in a newborn foal? |
|
Definition
Native
present but decreased
Complement activity
Neutrophil and macrophage activity
Interon production, NK cell function
Acquired
Primary response only - no memory cells
Decreased lymphocyte response
T-helper 2 cells
Colostrum transfers maternal antibodies
|
|
|
Term
What time course and tissues are involved in colostral globulin absorption in a foal? |
|
Definition
Immunoglobulins are not degraded in the stomach of a neonate until 24 hours after birth. There is little proteolytic activity until this time when normal apithelial cells replace = closure time. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A soluble plasma glycoprotein that is synthesized by the liver and is converted to fibrin by thrombin during coagulation cascade. Most often in response to inflammation/clot formation. |
|
|
Term
How does one collect and store blood for culture? |
|
Definition
Prep venipuncture sight
Collect blood 3 times within 24-48 hour period
collect 2 tubes each time
Total: 3 for aerobic, 3 for anaerobic testing
Best time to collect bloos is right before a fever spike. |
|
|
Term
How would you define Septicemia vs Sepsis ? |
|
Definition
- Septicemia: Presence of bacteria in the blood, associated with severe infections. Serious, life threatening, and gets worse very quickly.
- Sepsis: life threatening illness where the immune system responds to a bacterial response and overwhelms the normal processes in the blood. This results in a small clot formation, blocking blood flow to vital organs.
|
|
|
Term
What is failure of passive transfer? |
|
Definition
Animal fails to acquire systemic immunity from mother's colostrum.
Failure can occur at many aspects of immunity:
Mother didnt make colostrum
Premature birth
Failure to concentrate IgG
Ingestive failure
Absorptive failure |
|
|
Term
How would you treat a foal with failure of passive transfer? |
|
Definition
- provide supplemental IgG
- If gut if closed, give IV/IP plasma or commercial immunoglobulin
|
|
|
Term
What are possible bacterial causes of septicemia in foals?
|
|
Definition
E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Actinobacilus
Pseudomonas
Rhodococcus
Enterococcus
Streptococcus |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic choice for infections with Enterococcus durans? |
|
Definition
Erythromycin
*Gentamycin/Penicillin |
|
|
Term
What are the differentials for acute lameness in a neonatal foal? |
|
Definition
Septic arthritis
Trauma
Congenital malformation |
|
|
Term
What is BST and how/why is it used in dairy production? |
|
Definition
BST - injectable bovine somatotropin (hormone) that are given to cows to stimulate increased milk output by inhibiting destruction of mammary cells. |
|
|
Term
What is the J5 vaccine that is used in cattle? |
|
Definition
It is an E. coli vaccine against exposed care antigens of the bacteria, doesn't prevent disease but causes fewer and milder cases of disease. |
|
|
Term
What is the Pili-guard vaccine used in cattle? |
|
Definition
A vaccine against the pili of E. coli |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes of scours in neonatal calves? |
|
Definition
Viral: BVD, Rotavirus, Coronavirus
Bacterial: E. coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens
Parasitic: Coccidiosis, Cryptosporidium |
|
|
Term
What are possible caues of bloody diarrhea and death in a first-calf heifer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are causes of abortion in cattle (infectious and non infectious)? |
|
Definition
Non-infectious: Toxins, genetic abnormalities of fetus
Infectious: BVD, IBR, Brucella abortus, leptospira, neosporum caninum. |
|
|
Term
What factors would you consider when deciding which calves to select for necropsy in diagnosing diarrhea? |
|
Definition
- Bull calves (worth less money)
- Untreated
- Showing clinical signs of illness
- Freshly euthanized to decrease autolysis
or taken most recently deceased |
|
|
Term
What are the minimum tissue samples that would need to be collect and sent to a diagnostic lab in determing cases of diarrhea in cattle? |
|
Definition
Ante mortem:
Fresh feces (for bacterial culture, salmonella, bovine rotavirus, bovine coronavirus, parasite tests)
Fresh ear notch (BVDV on ELISA)
Frozen feces in anaerobic container (clostridium)
Post mortem:
Tied off bowel loop (rotavirus, coronavirus, BVDV)
Intestinal loop: several locations, adjacent LN
Spleen, esophagus for histopath |
|
|
Term
What are the steps involved in RT-PCR?
|
|
Definition
- Denature the DNA
- Anneal the primer
- extend primer to produce new DNA
- several cycles
- run results through gel electrophoreisis
- compare to control sample of suspected agent
(this was in the case of potential BVD) |
|
|
Term
Why would you retest RT-PCR in potential BVD cases? |
|
Definition
You would retest them because to determine any persistantly infected calves. After 2 weeks, most calves would have fought off infection, but any PI will continue to shed the virus. |
|
|
Term
What recommendations would you have for a farm manager regarding management of BVD positive calves? |
|
Definition
- Separate out positive calves from negative ones
- Take care of these calves last when feeding and cleaning to prevent tracking virus to healthy.
- Clean calf pens more frequently with lots of bleach to prevent reinfection. |
|
|
Term
What are the most important tissues to collect for a complete abortion work up by the daignostic lab? |
|
Definition
Placenta of cow
Kidney, lung, spleen, lymph nodes, thymus, and any diseased tissues. |
|
|
Term
What pathologic findings are typically associated with in utero BVD virus infection of bovine fetuses? |
|
Definition
Cerebellar hypoplasia
Micropthalmia
Hydrocephalus
Renal Dysplasia
Contracted tendons
Mummified fetuses |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of testing a milk sample from a bulk tank? What will the results indicate, and what are the limitations of the test? |
|
Definition
PCR is used on bulk tanks to test for the presence of Persitantly infected animals. This is an economically effective way to screen for BVD. There is a limit of 1 in 250 animals, and you wouldnt be able to tell which one from the test. |
|
|
Term
What are some reasons for conflicting pathologic diagnoses and virologic tests in BVD? |
|
Definition
Accuracy - technical error
postmortem autolysis of samples
Incorrect tissue type used in PCR
Virus not distributed equally in tissues
|
|
|
Term
What does ear notch testing provide that is different from other BVD test? |
|
Definition
Ear notch can be stained with IHC, this detects PI animals only without interference by maternal AB or TI. This can be used on neonatal animals.
Determines if animal is currently infected and not just exposed.
Also has reduced cost. |
|
|
Term
What is the main goal of vaccination protocol in controlling BVD?
|
|
Definition
Vaccination exposes herds to a vaccine strain so they can mount immunity to the virus, in case they do come in contact with the virus in which case they will already have immunoglobulins prepared to attack it. |
|
|
Term
When should FP5 vaccines be given in cattle regarding BVD protection? |
|
Definition
Give a month before breeding
Calves over three months can be vaccinated if dam was vaccinated in the past 12 months.
Revaccinate annually. |
|
|
Term
How quickly would you expect the vaccination program to decrease or eliminate BVD virus associated disease in the herd? |
|
Definition
Vaccine program alone will not eliminate BVD from a herd. Managment considerations should be taken to decrease the BVD, keeping closed herd, and not buying untested cows. |
|
|
Term
What congenital malformations might beseen in BVD-infected stillborn and newborn live calves?
At what age would the calves have been infected? |
|
Definition
Cerebellar hypoplasia, micropthalmia, contracted tendons, hydrocephalus
Infection typically occurs 75-120 days into gestation. |
|
|
Term
What factors go into estimating total economic empact of a BVD outbreak on a dairy farm? |
|
Definition
Cost of vaccination
testing
lack of replacement animals
open low cost
abortions
|
|
|
Term
Discuss the canine estrus cycle and how long is the bitch in heat? |
|
Definition
Diestrus: 60 days
Anestrus: 90-150 days
Proestrus: 9 days
Estrus: 9 days (this is when the female dog is receptive to breeding by a male = heat)
Average "heat": every 6-7 months
|
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of a "dog in heat"? |
|
Definition
flagging
interest in male dogs
edematous vulva
serosanguinous vaginal discharge
the estrous behavior is from an increase in estrogen occured in proestrus as produced by dominant follicle. |
|
|
Term
How would a veterinarian determine the stage of estrus that a dog is in? |
|
Definition
Less accurate: look for signs of heat like flagging, vulvar swelling, discharge, bleeding
More accurate: vaginal cytology |
|
|
Term
Where are the best locations to take a pulse on a dog? |
|
Definition
Jugular
Femoral
Dorsal pedal
others |
|
|
Term
What are the different types of shock? |
|
Definition
Cardiogenic
hypovolumic
neurogenic
pooling of blood in microvasculature
(sepsis, anaphalyctic) |
|
|
Term
Why might a dog that was hit by a car have ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
Stress myocarditis following trauma of HBC
or could be trauma from HBC |
|
|
Term
What types of arrhythmias are commonly associated with different types of trauma? |
|
Definition
Ventricular ectopic complexes: HBC trauma (premature heart beat originating in ventricular chamber)
Ventricular tachycardia: manifests in 24-48 hours after trauma. Often transient after trauma such as GDV.
Ventricular arrhythmias very common
|
|
|
Term
What can cause ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
Heart disease
metabolic disease
electrolyte imbalance
toxicity
cancer
pancreatitis
GDV
Trauma |
|
|
Term
What is the drug protocol in preforming surgery for a diaphragmatic hernia? |
|
Definition
-Pass endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen
-IV bolus of Vasopressin (increases peripheral vascular resistance, thus increasing arterial blood pressure)
-Lactated ringers for replacement fluids
- lidocaine: antiarrhythmic drug (treats ventricular tachycardia by altering cardiac action potentials of ion channels)
|
|
|
Term
What is the effectiveness of lidocaine in treating ventricular tachycardia, and what is the dosing frequency? |
|
Definition
Typically effective at correcting ventricular tachycardia
- ventricular excitability depressed
- SA node unaffected
Onset of injection is 45 - 90 seconds
action lasts for 10-20 minutes |
|
|
Term
What drugs can be used to correct ventricular tachycardia?
Which one has least negative effects? |
|
Definition
Pricainamide
Procainamide
Quinidine
Lidocaine - doesnt produce significant decrease in arterial pressure or cardiac contractile force |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between compensatory and non compensatory premature ventricular complexes? |
|
Definition
Preventricular contraction = heart beat initiated by ventricle instead of SA node
Non-compensatory pauses = SA reset and new sinus cycle begins, not an exact multiple of regular PP interval.
Conpensatory preventricular complex= Starts in ventriclesfrom often a hypoxic focus. depolarizes ventricles, not SA node. SA not reset and fires at normal timing. |
|
|
Term
What surgical precautions should be kept in mind before and during diaphragmatic hernia repair surgery? |
|
Definition
Keep the animals front end elevated to allow gravity to keep the abdominal organs from pushing further into the thoracic cavity. |
|
|
Term
Why might a dog with a diaphragmatic hernia become cyanotic and have a weakened pulse when rolled on their back in order to preform midline laparotomy?
What could be done to prevent this? |
|
Definition
When dog was rolled on their back, displaced organs compressed vena cava thus decreasing venous return and causing hypoxia.
This cannot realy be prevented, but can try not rolling her on her back and instead performing a lateral laparotomy, but there is very narrow access to the body cavity. |
|
|
Term
How is pulmonary function affected in an anesthetized animal with an open laparotomy incision and torn diaphragm? |
|
Definition
Anesthesia decreases total volume and respiratory rate, and increases end tidal CO2. A torn diaphragm reduces respiratory rate and tidal volume, with abdominal muscles partially compensating. An open laparotomy will eliminate the negative pressure present in the thoracic cavity.
= Decreased pulmonary function |
|
|
Term
What should be recommended when sending home a post-op diaphragmatic hernia patient?
What are some possible complications? |
|
Definition
Recommend removal of chest tube once nothing is aspirated (about 1-2 days)
Caomplications: Pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, cardiac arrhythmias, surgical site infections, reperfusion injuries. |
|
|
Term
What are the options in diagnosing potential pregnancies in dogs? When can they be used? |
|
Definition
Palpation (28-35 days)
Ultrasound (28-30 days)
Blood test (after 28 days)
Radiographs (after 48 days)
|
|
|
Term
Do you need the permission of an owner to obtain blood work results? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
YES - you do need the permission of the owner. ACCORDING TO THE AVMA: medical records are property of the practice and are privleged and confidental information, that cannot be released except by court order or owner's written consent. |
|
|
Term
Why is surgery required to remove a 4 day old linear foreign object? |
|
Definition
Because of the duration of exposure of the linear foreign object. After 4 days of going unnoticed, a an object like a string, would have a good chance of being embedded int he mucosa of the GI tract. Also the object could be far down the GI tract, like into the duodenum.
If left to pass it would likely cause an obstruction. |
|
|
Term
What are some post op complications associated with removal of a linear foreign body? |
|
Definition
Intestinal necrosis
perforation
leakage
dehiscence
peritonitis
endotoxic shock
stenosis
2 days hospitalization recommended |
|
|
Term
What are the recommended anesthetic protocols for abdominal surgery to remove a linear foreign body? |
|
Definition
Premedication: Butophanol
if not dehydrated- buprenorphine or acepromazine
Induction: Ketamine or propofol
Inhalant: Sevoflurane or Isoflurane
(NOT Nitrous oxide because it expands tissues/organs)
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine? |
|
Definition
Disrupts the CNS by causing overstimulation
Inhibits GABA, may block serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the CNS. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Acepromazine? |
|
Definition
Blocks post-synaptic dopamine receptors in the CNS
May inhibit release of dopamine. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Butorphanol? |
|
Definition
Provides analgesia through antagonistic activity inthe limbic system
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Glycopyrolate? |
|
Definition
It acts as an antimuscarinic |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Isoflurane? |
|
Definition
It interferes with functioning nerve cells in the brain by acting on the lipid matrix of the membrane |
|
|
Term
What is a "farrow-to-finish" swine farm? |
|
Definition
This is a swine operation where swine are born and raised to their finishing weight in the same operational facility. |
|
|
Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of NURSERY pigs? |
|
Definition
Weaned at 21-24 days of age
Weigh 10-20 lbs. |
|
|
Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of feeder pigs? |
|
Definition
6 weeks of age
20-60 lbs. |
|
|
Term
What are the typical age and weight ranges of finisher pigs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the factors in determining when to wean pigs? |
|
Definition
Age: around 21 days
Weight: 11 -15 lbs.
|
|
|
Term
What is the typical protein composition of swine feeds? |
|
Definition
Lysine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Methionine
Isoleucine
Phenylalanine
Arginine
Histadine
Leucine
Valine
|
|
|
Term
What is the mineral composition of swine feeds? |
|
Definition
Ca, P, Na, Cl, Fe, Zn, I, Se, CU, Mn
These allow for optimal skeletal structure and metabolic function |
|
|
Term
What is the vitamin composition of swine feeds? |
|
Definition
Vitamins A, D, E, K, B12, Biotin, Choline, Niacin, Pantothenic Acid, Riboflavin, Folacin
These maintain normal growth, maintenance, and reproduction |
|
|
Term
Lacking of what substance can kill a pig more quickly than any other nutrient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is protein provided to swine feed? |
|
Definition
Soybean meal
meat/bone meal
cottonseed oil
poultry by-product
|
|
|
Term
What is meant by "base mix" in regards to swine feed? |
|
Definition
Contains ground grain + Proteinsource + Mineral and vitamin basemix. This is added to grain and supplement
The is a flexible, simple and popular feed choice |
|
|
Term
What is meant by a "pre-mix" in regards to swine feed? |
|
Definition
Contains ground grain + protein source + calcium source + phosphorus source + vitamin premix + Trace mineral premix
This is best for large operations: least expensive but most complex |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 major swine feeding systems? |
|
Definition
Complete Diet (Ration) System
Complete Supplement System
Basemix system
Premix system |
|
|
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for nursery pigs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for a grower pig? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for a finisher pig? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the typical protein concentration of feed for gestating/lactating sows? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A lincosamide antibiotic that comes from the actinomyces Streptomyces lincolnensis.
Macrolide that inhibits the 50S ribosomal subunit
Commonly known as clindamycin
associated with treatment with overgrowth of Clostridium difficile - can be used in humans |
|
|
Term
Why is lincomycin added to swine feed? |
|
Definition
Treatment and control of swine dysentery
Control of porcine proliferative enteritis (Lawsonia intracellularis)
Reduce severity of mycoplasma pneumonia (Mycoplasma hyopneumonia)
Increase rate of weight gain in growing-finishing swine
** No withdrawl time in US** |
|
|
Term
What is the withdrawl time for 200 g lincomycin/ton of swine feed (this is a typical concentration)? |
|
Definition
ZERO DAYS
There is no withdrawl for lincomycin in the US |
|
|
Term
What government agency supplies information about extra-label use of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does excessive lincomycin in feed constitute extra-label drug usage? |
|
Definition
YES. Extra label use of antibiotics is strictly prohibited in food animals. |
|
|
Term
What are the consequences of feeding inadequate protein to nursery pigs? |
|
Definition
It can possibly affect the swine's rate of gain and increase the occurance of rickets, but only if the protein deficiency is for an extended period of time. |
|
|
Term
What is the proper sequence of adding ingredients to prepare swine feed? |
|
Definition
START WITH THE LIMITING agent - often a supplement.
(in our cases it was then lincomycin, and then feed ration) |
|
|
Term
How can E. coli be transmitted among pigs? |
|
Definition
Vertical/horizontal transmission
Direct contact with contaminated skin/MAMMARY GLANDS
Environment
Piglet-piglet transmission
|
|
|
Term
What type of diarrhea is associated with Colibacillosis? |
|
Definition
Infections with E. coli typically produce non-mucoid, blood free diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
What techniques can be used in an antibiotic free system to treat E. coli infections? |
|
Definition
-Supporative care (replenish fluids & ELECTROLYTES)
-Use probiotics to redirect intestinal bacterial population growth back to beneficial organisms
-Change gut pH to make unfavorable environment for E. coli growth
-Isolate clinically ill animals to prevent spreading |
|
|
Term
What is the gestational cycle of horses?
(Length, type, etc) |
|
Definition
Horses are seasonally poly-estrous
induced by photostimulation
have 21 day cycle
Length of gestation: 335 -342 days (11 months)
|
|
|
Term
What are the different ways to check for pregnancy in horses, and when can they be preformed? |
|
Definition
Ultrasound: 9-11 days
Palpate rectally: 28 days
Evaluate eCG in blood/urine - only found in pregnant mares, but doesnt determine duration of pregnancy.
- Embryo wil be at the base of uterine horn by 15 days |
|
|
Term
What are some bacterial causes of placentitis in horses? |
|
Definition
Ascending:
Streptococcus equi sbsp. zooepi
E. coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumonia
Hematogenous:
Leptospirosis
Salmonella
Histoplasma
|
|
|
Term
How features can contribute to fecal contamination in uterine infections? How can that be prevented? |
|
Definition
Features:
Upward sloping vulva
angle combination + position of anus
Older mares = cranial movement, horizontal slope to anus
FAT mares can effect positioning
Prevention:
Caslick's procedure (temp close vulva)
Evaluate slope before breeding
Improve physical condition (get her trimmed up) |
|
|
Term
What are the three types of joint infections (based on location of infection) ? |
|
Definition
- Synovial: from innoculation of synovial membrane
- Epiphysial: subchondral bone infection present
- Physial: infection of the growth plate (least common) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat joint infections? |
|
Definition
- Joint lavage: with polyionic fluids for 3 days
- Regional perfusion with antimicrobials
- Restrict excerise to prevent trauma to cartilage |
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Term
What is the dry cow protocol? |
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Definition
- Cows dried for 65 days before freshening in dry lot
- moved to calving barn 2 weeks before calving
- calves should be immediately removed and put in individual pens
given two quarts colostrum within 4 hours
another 2 quarts colostrum within 12 hours |
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Term
What lesions are associated with BVD? |
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Definition
-Erosions and ulcerations of entire length of the GI tract
- Hemorrhage and necrosis of lymphoid tissues
PEYERS patches |
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Term
What are the lesions associated with Rotaviruses in cattle? |
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Definition
- sloughing of enterocytes
- reduced villus height
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Term
What lesions are associated with infection with coronavirus? |
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Definition
-Sloughing of enterocytes
-infection of epithelial cells of LI
- Atrophy of colon ridges |
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Term
What lesions are associated with E. coli intestinal infections? |
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Definition
- cecum, colon, distal SI edematous enteritis
- erosions, ulcerations, hemorrhage |
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Term
What lesions are associated with salmonella ? |
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Definition
- Lower ileum and LI
shortened villi and loss of epithelial cells
necrotic debris
hemorrhage and ulcerations
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Term
What are the lesions associated with Clostridium intestinal infections? |
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Definition
- Lesions of jejunum and ileum
- Necrotic villi and colonized mucosa
- Jejunal emphysema
- ulcers and hemorrhage
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Term
What is the best treatment for calves persistantly infected with BVD? |
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Definition
EUTHANSIA
These animals will continue to shed the virus for their entire life, and will keep the virus spreading within a herd. |
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Term
What are the basic pros and cons of modified live vaccines? |
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Definition
Pros:
Provide better and longer immunity
Cons:
Potential risk of abortion or disease |
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Term
What are the pros and cons of using killed virus vaccine? |
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Definition
Pros:
Doesn't produce disease
Cons:
can cause decreased milk production |
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Term
What is hypovolumic shock and how can it be treated? |
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Definition
Internal or external circulation of fluids.
Treatment:
Colloids - pull fluids from body tissues
LRS - provides electrolytes
Vasopressin (ADH) - increased water absorption in the kidneys, increases peripheral resistance |
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Term
What can cause muffled heart sounds in a dog? (DDX) |
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Definition
Effusion/fluid
Decreased blood volume
Obesity
Lung disease |
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Term
What three components make up the uvea? |
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Definition
Ciliary body
Iris
Choroid |
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Term
What are some rule outs for a geriatric canine with kidney and liver dysfunction (icterus), difficulty walking, lethargy, corneal cloudiness, right lens luxation and an elevated CRT? |
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Definition
D:degenerative - OA, ligament tear, hepatic cirrhosis, renal fibrosis
A:autoimmune - glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis
M:metabolic - diabetes mellitus, nephrotic syndrome, hepatic lipidosis, amyloidosis
N: Neoplasia - hepatic or renal neoplasia, metastasis
I:Inflammatory - lepto, Lyme disease, septicemia, monocytis ehrlichiosis, canine adenovirus 1
T: toxin/trauma - ethylene glcol
P: Parasite - flukes, kidney worms
There is more likely more than one problem here! |
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