Term
What does the ____ supply?
- Left anterior descending artery
- Left circumflex artery
- Right coronary artery
- Posterior descending artery
- Right circumflex
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Definition
- Interventricular septum (anterior 2/3rd's), apical portion of anterior papillary muscle, anterior surface of left ventricle
- Lateral and posterior wall of left ventricle
- Right ventricle (via acute marginal branches), AV node (via AV nodal artery), SA node (70% of time)
- Inferior and posterior walls of ventricles
- SA node (25% of time)
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Term
Distinguish left dominant from right dominant coronary circulation |
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Definition
AV nodal and posterior descending arteries arise from RCA in right dominant (75-85%). In left dominant, the posterior descending is from circumflex. |
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Term
How long should a physiological PR interval be? QRS interval? QT interval? |
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Definition
- 200 ms (1 big box)
- 60-100 ms (1.5-2.5 little boxes)
- 400 ms (2 big boxes), although women slightly longer
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Term
How do you calculate heart rate using ms between QRS peaks? Which interval is a function of heart rate? How do you "correct" for this interval? |
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Definition
- 60,000/(ms between peaks)
- QT interval
- Determine if T wave is halfway between the two QRS waves
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Term
What does a QRS >120ms in duration indicate? What would provide further information on this condition? |
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Definition
- Bundle branch block (>3 boxes
- Look at V1. If the entire complex is negative and lacks R upstroke, consider left bundle block. If V1 shows a RSR' complex, with large S downstroke, consider right bundle block
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Term
What do the following QRS values indicate?
- Lead I is positive, AVf is positive
- Lead I is positive, AVf is negative
- Lead I is negative, AVf is positive
- Lead I is negative, AVf is negative
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Definition
- Normal axis
- Left axis (left ventricular hypertrophy, inferior wall MI, left anterior fascicular block)
- Right axis (right ventricular hypertrophy, massive pulmonary edema, left posterior fascicular block)
- Indeterminate axis
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Term
What is the order of ECG change during Q-wave MI? |
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Definition
- ST elevation (acute)
- Decreased R wave, Q wave begins (hours)
- T wave inversion, Q wave deeper (day 1-2)
- ST normalizes, T wave inverted (days)
- ST and T normalize Q wave persists (weeks)
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Term
What does a depressed ST wave suggest? Elevated? |
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Definition
In electrode closest to the infarct:
- Depressed = transmural MI
- Elevated = nontransmural / non-Q wave MI
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Term
What is the staging system for heart failure? |
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Definition
- Stage A - risk factors but normal systolic function.
- Stage B- structural disorders without signs or symptoms of HF
- Stage C- Structural disease with signs of HF now or in the past
- Stage D- End stage
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Term
What is the cause and effect of systolic dysfunction? Diastolic? |
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Definition
- Diminished EF due loss of myocardial contractility or pressure overload (increased afterload). Can be due to myocyte disfunction/destruction or fibroris.
- Stiffness of wall due to inability to relax, hypertrophy, fibrosis. Leads to decreased EDV.
[image] |
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Term
What's the marker for systolic heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
What is required to make a diagnostic stress test? |
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Definition
Reach a HR >85% of the maximum heart rate (generally, 220-age) |
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Term
How are anti-arrhythmatics classified? |
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Definition
- Class I = sodium channel blockers. CAB (from strongest to weakest)
- Class II = beta adrenergic receptor blockers
- Class III = potassium channel blockers
- Class IV - calcium channel blockers
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Term
70 year old patient comes in with extreme tachycardia (190 bpm). ECG shows QRS's same width as normal heart beat, but no P wave is visible. The T wave is abnormally tall. What is the most likely etiology? |
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Definition
Supraventricular tachycardia (narrow QRS indicates supraventricular stimulus) |
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Term
On ECG, you note irregularly irregular beat, with no distinct P wave. QRS is narrow. What is the most likely etiology? |
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Definition
Atrial fibrillation, most likely triggered by pulmonary veins, requiring ablation. |
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Term
You note a "sawtooth" pattern on ECG consisting of multiple P waves occurring at 300 bpm. QRS waves occur irregularly at rates between 50 and 75 bpm. What is the most likely etiology? What is the patient at risk for? |
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Definition
Atrial flutter, with variable block (variable ventricular response due to AV node "filtering")
Stroke (stagnant blood clots during abnormal heartbeat and is dislodged when heartbeat reverts to normal) |
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Term
What is the definition of...
- Accelerated idioventricular rhythm
- Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia
- Sustained ventricular tachycardia
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Definition
- Rhythm with more than 3 QRS beats in a row, but LESS THAN 100 bpm (usually occurs after reperfusion due to irritation)
- Same as above, but >100 bpm
- Same as above, but sustained over 30 second
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Term
What are some non-reentrent (automatic) causes of premature ventricular depolarization? |
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Definition
- Accelerated idioventricular generated by irritation of heart after reperfusion therapy for MI
- Electrolyte/catecholamine imbalance.
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Term
What are the hallmarks of a VPD? |
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Definition
Wide QRS complex, abnormal (inverted?) T wave, lack of P wave preceding QRS complex.
Note: two normal beats followed by VPD = trigeminy |
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Term
What is the classification system for AV blocks? |
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Definition
- First degree = constant P-R interval greater than 200ms (5 little boxes)
- Second degree, Type I = Progressively increased P-R interval followed by dropped beat (Wenkebach)
- Second degree, Type II = Abrupt dropping of QRS (no prolonging). Wide QRS
- Third degree (complete block) = no relationship between P wave and QRS complex. More P wave than QRS
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Term
How does treatment of complete heart block differ from AV dissociation? |
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Definition
Treat AV dissociation with atropine or epinephrine to decrease vagal tone/increase sinus rate. |
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Term
A patient with history of abnormal systolic function is prescribed a specific class of antiarrhythmic drug to treat his VPD. Within weeks, he develops an arrhythmia. What class of drug did he most likely take? Which arrhythmia did he most likely have? |
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Definition
Class Ic; ventricular tachycardia |
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Term
What is procainamide used to treat? What are the pertinent side effects? |
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Definition
Class Ia (primarily by definition)
- Atrial fibrillation
- Side effects: Hypotension, agranulocytosis, nausea, vomiting
- Fast acetylators- NAPA metabolite, a class III drug capable of prolonging QT and causing torsades
- Slow acetylators- drug-induced lupus
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Term
What is lidocaine used for? How is it administered? Contraindications? |
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Definition
Suppreses ventricular fibrillation/tachycardia due to ischemia (class 1b drug); administered IV (mexilitine is oral form)
Do NOT use it for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia since it does not effect atrial beats. Negative inotrope (less useful in heart failure) |
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Term
What is propafenone used for? What is a major contraindication? How would you check for efficacy? |
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Definition
Class Ic
- Supraventricular arrhythmias (atrial fib. and flutter)
- Contraindicated in patients with abnormal heart structure (e.g. EF markedly reduced); true of ALL class Ic
- Observe prolonged QRS on stress test
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Term
What is sotalol used for? What is a potential contraindication? |
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Definition
Class III/beta blocker
- Isomeric mixtures of beta blocker and Class III antiarrhythmetic. Negative inotrope, beneficial in cases of heart-failure.
- Can exacerbate asthmatic symptoms; only contraindicated in those previously intubated for asthma. Renal failure = contraindication.
- Side effects (all class III): prolong QT leading to torsades.
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Term
What is amiodarone used for? MAJOR toxicity? Drug interaction? |
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Definition
Class III
- Ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. Used in patients with portable defibrillators to prophylactically prevent VT
- Pulmonary toxicity, thyroid toxicity, corneal deposits, skin coloration
- Increases digoxin levels (causing delayed afterdepolarizations and VPD); increases coumadin level tw fold.
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Term
How is adenosine used in the context of arrhythmia? |
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Definition
Fast acting (30 seconds) for supraventricular arrhythmia (suppresses AV node).
Enhanced K+ conductance and inhibition of cAMP induced calcium influx to prevent nodal depolarization. |
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Term
Whats the point of action for digoxin? |
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Definition
Inibits Na/K pump used in phase 3 of actionpotential, acting us positive inotrope. Used for supraventricular arrhythmia. |
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Term
What is the mainstay of therapy for reentrant arrhythmias? |
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Definition
Beta blockers primarily, "head and tail are allowed to meet"
Calcium channel blockers can also be used. |
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Term
What is the pharmacological action of beta blockers in the context of IHD and ACS? What drug is synergistic with it? What is a major contraindication? |
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Definition
- Decrease primary determinants of mycoardial oxygen demand (HR, contractility, conduction velocity)
- HOWEVER, can increase EDV, leading to wall stress (nitrates coadministered). BB's also block reflex tachycardia and increased FOC caused by nitrates
- Vasospastic angina (may worsen condition due to unopposed alpha constriction)
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Term
What is the pharmacological action of nitrates in the context of IHD and ACS? Major side effects and concerns? |
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Definition
Venodilation decreases preload and workload. Large coronary arteries dilate to increase O2 delivery (w/o coronary steal)
Headaches include postural hypotension. Tolerance frequently occurs with oran and transdermal preps (requires drug holiday) |
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Term
What is the mechanism of action for
- Clopidogrel
- Dipyridamol
- Aspirin
- Abciximab
- Heparin
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Definition
- Prevents ADP-mediated activation of platelets
- Prevents collagen/thrombin/TXA-mediated activation
- Inhibits COX-mediated synthesis of TXA2
- Binds to GPIIb/IIIa site, preventing aggregation
- Increases activity of antithrombin (reducing II, IX, X, XI), interferes with platelet agg
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Term
When is tPA most effective? What is its mechanism of activity? |
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Definition
Early clots -- more rich in fibrin (later clots more rich in platelets). Complete occlusion; best outcome when given 30-90 minutes post-MI.
Activates plasminogen to produce plasmin, which degrades fibrin. Requires fibrin surface to provide binding site. |
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Term
What is the mechanism of action for captopril and enalapril? |
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Definition
ACE inhibitors; decrease BP, enahnace NO production, reduce LVH/dysfunction
Pulmonary side effects (cough) |
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Term
What does -sarten suffix indicate? When are these drugs used? |
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Definition
Angiotensin receptor blockers; block the effect of AngII.
Used when ACE inhibitors are not well tolerated. |
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