Term
What 3 positions must be checked in a patient when assessing their blood pressure?
What can be seen morphologically with severe heart disease (no stethiscope or tools required). |
|
Definition
Standing, sitting, and lying down.
A "heave" in the chest. |
|
|
Term
Where should the physician stand when listening for heart sounds? |
|
Definition
On the right side of the patient. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
4th to 5th left intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line |
|
|
Term
In a supine position, what angle should the patient's head be to aid in veinous return?
What is the clinical advantage of this?
What can be seen in a patient who has heart failure (or kidney or lung disease)? |
|
Definition
30 degrees.
Helps with ascultation/palpation of the jugular veinous pulse
When viewed from lateral, the filling level of the jugular will be greater than 3cm of vertical height above the sternal angle. |
|
|
Term
When listening for S1, what should be palpated for regarding sound timing? |
|
Definition
Time the hearing of S1 while palpating for the carrotid pulse (occurs after S1). |
|
|
Term
What sounds are best heard with the diaphragm?
Which are best heard with the bell? |
|
Definition
High frequency sounds such as S1, S2, Systolic clicks and high pitched murmors)
Low frequency sounds (3rd and 4th heart sounds) |
|
|
Term
Where is it best to hear S1 on a patient's chest?
WHEN is S1 possible to be heard? |
|
Definition
lower left sternal boarder for tricuspid, PMI for mitral
Before the carrotid upstroke |
|
|
Term
What occurs during S1?
During each of these events, where should the sound of S1 be MAXIMAL?
What part of the heart cycle does S1 signify? |
|
Definition
Mitral valve closure-best heard at the apex of the heart (PMI).
Tricuspid valve closure-best heard at the 4th LEFT intercostal space.
Aortic and pulmonic valve opening-not usually heard.
Systole
|
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Term
On ascultation, you discern that a patient has a "wooshing" noise during S1. What is this MOST LIKELY to be?
What part of the stethiscope is best used to hear this sound? |
|
Definition
A systolic murmor indicating mitral regurgitation.
Diaphragm |
|
|
Term
A heavy smoker with known lung disease presents with a "wooshing" sound during S1 on ascultation with your stethiscope is at his left 4th intercostal space. This is most likely: |
|
Definition
Tricuspid valve regurgitation due to pulmonary issues. |
|
|
Term
What is occurring during S2?
What is best heard during S2? |
|
Definition
Start of diastolie, Aortic and pulmonic valve closure.
Aortic valve closure is mainly heard, and thus problems heard are typically aortic in nature. |
|
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Term
What part of the chest is the best place to hear for aortic problems? |
|
Definition
Between 2nd and 3rd Intercostals of the right sternal boarder. |
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Term
A patient presents with an S2 that is just as loud as S1 towards the PMI. This could indicate: |
|
Definition
Aortic valve "slamming" potentially due to high peripheral resistance as in atherosclerosis. |
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Term
A patient presents with an S1 that is just as loud as S2 towards the second left intercostal space. This could indicate:
|
|
Definition
Mitral valve "slamming" due to increased pressure in the heart as in heart failure. |
|
|
Term
During deep inspiration, a new heart sound can be heard. What causes this sound?
When might this sound NOT be heard? |
|
Definition
S2 splitting due to the late closure of the pulmonic valve as a result of the increased time of ventricular ejection from the extended filling during diastole (due to the decreased intrathoracic pressure during inspiration).
In a patient with lung problems, the increased lung pressures and right ventricle pressures make it harder to fill the ventricles during diastole. Because of this, less blood fills the ventricle than would normally, and the pulmonic and aortic valves will close at about the same time. |
|
|
Term
Which location on the chest is best to hear the:
Mitral valve
Aortic valve
pulmonary valve
tricuspid valve |
|
Definition
PMI (left 4-5 intercostals on midclavicular line)
Right between second and 3rd intercostals on sternal boarder
Left between second and 3rd intercostals on sternal boarder
between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternalborder |
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|
Term
Describe the hemodynamic curve chronologically in regards to puressures seen in the ventricles and in the aorta. |
|
Definition
1. Ventricles are empty and have just started expanding; very low pressure (less than 5mmHg).
2. A "blip" of pressure can be seen during atrial ejection.
3. Ventricles are beginning to slow expansion, causing a rise in pressure with continued filling. This is isovolemic contraction.
4. Pressure passes 80mmHg and the aortic valve is opened, starting the ejection phase. A peak pressure of 120 is reached about midway through ejection, and it continues until pressure drops to about 80 again.
5. ventricles relax and expand as pressure is lowered and the next filling cycle begins. |
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Term
During what phases in the hemodynamic cycle can each of the heart sounds be heard? |
|
Definition
S1: start of systole just at the point of isovolemic contraction (tricuspid and mitral "slam" shut here)
S2: Start of diastolie just at the end of the ejection phase (aortic and pulmonary valves "slam" shut).
S3: "active relaxation" sound heard in individuals with heart failure due to the heart's attempt to expand its volume actively. Hypertrophy may decrease ventricular volume, and this is one consequence.
S4: Occurs just after atrial contraction, usually just prior to S1. Again, a thin structure such as an atria is being asked to contract forcefully against a non-compliant ventricle. |
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|
Term
What should the diastolic ventricular pressure be around in a healthy individual?
What about in the aorta?
What does this indicate if higher than normal? |
|
Definition
Around 10mmHg
Around 80mmHg
Can indicate heart failure in that the ventricles are not adequately emptying. |
|
|
Term
When an EKG is lined up to a ventricular pressure curve, when do the Q, R, S and T waves occur in respect to the volume curve?
What does each signal? |
|
Definition
P wave occurs just prior to atrial contraction. signals atrial contraction
QRS complex occurs with the start of isovolemic contraction. Signals ventricular contraction.
T wave occurs mid rapid ejection, signals ventricular repolarization. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the best place to hear S3?
S4? |
|
Definition
Using the bell, best to hear along sternal boarder.
S4 can be heard everywhere. |
|
|
Term
What is the "A1C of Blood Pressure Control"? |
|
Definition
An uncharacteristically loud S2 |
|
|
Term
If you know the left atrial systolie pressure in a patient, what else do you know? |
|
Definition
Left ventricular end diastolie pressure. |
|
|
Term
When would it be impossible to hear S4 in a patient with cardiac abnormalities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug class is very helpful in the treatment of patients with heart failure? Why?
Which drug is contraindicated? Why? |
|
Definition
Beta Blockers; avoid catacholamine surges which may cause a heart attack by overworking the heart.
Calcium channel blockers (dihydropyradines) because they decrease contractility (negative ionotrope) which is the only thing keeping the heart nourshed enough to work at all! |
|
|
Term
What is the normal cross sectional area of the mitral valve?
At what diameter is a diagnosis of mitral stenosis appropriate?
During what heart sound would mitral valve stenosis be audible? How would it sound? |
|
Definition
4-6cm2
2cm2
S1, sounds like a "whoosh" as blood escapes through the mitral valve during systole. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=L5DEqvgS_xs |
|
|
Term
Worldwide, what is the most common cause of mitral valve weakness and thus prolapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In mitral valve stenosis, what is the most common area to be stenosed?
What about second most common? |
|
Definition
The commissure of the valve (30%)
Cuspal region (15%) |
|
|
Term
What is the pathophysioloy of pulmonary hypertension?
How do these patients present? |
|
Definition
1. Passive backward transmission of increased left atrial pressure.
2. Pulmonary arteriolar constriction due to decreased oxygenation.
3. Organic obliterative changes in the pulmonary vascular bed.
4. Increased overall pressure builds over time, eventually leading to right ventricular failure.
•ExertionalDyspnea
•Cough/Wheezing
•Orthopnea/PND/CHF
•Hemoptysis-Rupture of Pulm Vein-Brochial Vein Shunts |
|
|
Term
What is the most serious consequence of mitral stenosis regarding mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a facial manifestiation of mitral stenosis that is not very prevalant, but is indictive if present? |
|
Definition
Mitral faces-associated with prominent livid colour of the cheeks and acral cyanosis in the face |
|
|
Term
What can be seen on physical exam in a patient with mitral stenosis? |
|
Definition
•Mitral Facies-pink, purple facial patches due to decrease CO and systemic vasoconstriction
•Hepatomegally
•Edema
•Ascites
•Hydrothorax With Right Heart Failure |
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|
Term
When it comes to valvular disease, what is the imaging study that is the "cornerstone of diagnosis?" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In mitral stenosis, what is a VITAL pharmacologic intervention? |
|
Definition
Beta Blockers- prevents shortened filling times brought about by epinephrie. |
|
|
Term
What would the effect of mitral valve regurgitation be on the physiology of the heart?
What is the mesurement and the value of this mesurement which prompts surgical intervention?
What is the logic behind this? |
|
Definition
Contractility increases due to a decrease in effective afterload pressure, eventually leading to left ventricular hypertrophy. Ejection fraction starts to decline with these changes.
An ejection fraction around 60%
Surgery mortality is low, and preserving ventricular function by acting sooner will benifit the patient more. |
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|
Term
What are the clinical signs seen in a patient with mitral regurgitation?
What usually occurs just BEFORE the onset of these symptoms?
What is an important therapy to institute in these patients? How does this work? |
|
Definition
•Shortness of Breath
•ExertionalDyspnea
•Congestive Heart Failure
•RHF
Significant symptoms in chronic MR usually do not develop until LV decompensation occurs.
Diuretic therapy decreases these symptoms. lowers preload and volume that needs to be pumped so that lung symptoms subside.
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Term
What is the most common etiology of mitral valve prolapse? |
|
Definition
Primary valvular problems such as rheumatic fever |
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Term
An asymoptomatic patient with Marfan's syndrome is ascultated for cardiac problems. You hear a mid systolic click (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PsmGx2XMxF8). This is most likely what?
What is the etiology of this condition?
What would be a good therapy (if any) to put this patient on? |
|
Definition
Mitral valve prolapse
Myxomatous proliferation and degeneration of valve leaflets brought on because of his genetic condition.
Low dose asprin. |
|
|
Term
What is the normal cross sectional area of the aortic valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in a patient that is less than 65 years old?
What about in patients older than 65? |
|
Definition
A bicuspid (congential) aortic valve (congenital aortic stenosis)
Degenerative (senile) acquired aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
What percentage of individuals older than 65 years old have aortic sclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the critical valve cross sectional area regarding the aortic valve?
At what diameter should these patients undergo surgery to have the BEST prognosis? |
|
Definition
0.7-0.8cm2
Best done when the valve area is at 1cm2 |
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Term
A 54 year old male presents in the ER with angina and a blood pressure reading of 165/85. He was brought in after he fainted when getting out of bed. You note that he is sitting straight upright and has a quickened respiration rate. This is most likely:
What therapy should NOT be used? |
|
Definition
Aortic stenosis
(Angina, Syncopy and/or CHF)
Should NOT use beta-blockers; the heart NEEDS to work! |
|
|
Term
What is the 3 year survival rate in an untreated person experiencing angina, syncopy or CHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is "valve mismatch"? |
|
Definition
Effective valve replacement area is just as small as the origional valve cross sectional area, hence no improvement was made with the surgery. |
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|
Term
What is the most common cause of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
Degenerative (atherosclerosis) |
|
|
Term
In aortic regurgitation, what causes the rheumatic-fibrotic retraction of the valve leaflets? |
|
Definition
Ankylosing spondylitis, Behchets, Psoratic arthritis, giant cell arteritis |
|
|
Term
When taking a patient's blood pressure, you note heart sounds at around 40mmHg. This is very strange, especially considering that the systolic pressure was noted at around 170. What is this called, and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
Korotkoff sounds
Aortic Stenosis |
|
|
Term
An African American male patient has a blood pressure of 155/98. What would be a good therapy to lower this high blood pressure? |
|
Definition
Diuretics with salt restriction |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with congestive heart failure and an ejection fraction of 30%. This patient is on multiple blood pressure mediciations, but what would be a BAD option to put this patient on? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A patient presents with hypertensive heart disease (167/90) and has an S4 gallop. There is a normal EKG. What would be the next things to order?
What kind of heart dysfunction is this primarily? |
|
Definition
Echo
Lipid panel
electrolytes
seconary causes of hypertension screening
Diastolic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
A 55 year old patient presents with type 2 diabetes. He presents in the ER after an acute MI. What drug should be used on this patient both short term and long term? |
|
Definition
Ace inhibitors and beta blockers |
|
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Term
A patient with a recent MI has an LDL of 90. Is this a good value to have as a patient with a history of MI? |
|
Definition
No, intervene with statins |
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Term
A 40 year old patient's dad has an MI at the age of 39, and now presents with a high LDL (130). Is this a good value? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A middle aged patient has carrotid bruits, hypertension and is a type 2 diabetic. What should the LDL of this patient be to minimize her risks? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In a hypertensive diabetic (type 2) male, what is an important pharmacological intervention? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is a very worrisome cause of syncopy that MUST be investigated when a person has a fainting episode? |
|
Definition
Structural heart disease. |
|
|
Term
What is the MOST COMMON cause of syncope? |
|
Definition
Cerebrovascular/neurological causes |
|
|
Term
What happens to heart rate and blood pressure during syncope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient describes a feeling of lightheadedness after taking his blood pressure medication. He also noticed a "narrowing" of his vision for a few seconds. What is the cause of these symptoms? |
|
Definition
hypotension causing the peripheral vision vessels of the retina to collapse. |
|
|
Term
What cause of syncope has the HIGHEST rate of mortality? |
|
Definition
cardiac problems causing syncope |
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|
Term
65 year old male with h/o inferior wall myocardial infarction 1 year ago presents with rapid palpitation and syncope. An ECG shows SR and old inferior wall myocardial infarction. A 2D echo shows LVEF 40% with inferoapical dyskinesis. Coronary angiography reveals totally occluded right coronary artery with collaterals. What is the next step? |
|
Definition
Answer: Electrophysiologic study (to look for inducible sustained VT) |
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Term
72 year old male with chronic atrial fibrillation of greater than 10 years’ duration is admitted following a syncopal episode. A 2D echo shows markedly dilated left atrium and LVEF 60%. Telemetry reveals atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response and pauses of 4 to 8 seconds associated with near syncope.
How would you proceed?
|
|
Definition
Answer: Implant single chamber rate responsive pacemaker |
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Term
A patient presents with a head injury after an episode of syncope. After her recovery, she is asked about the episode and it is found that she has no history of syncope.
What would be an appropriate next step to find out what is wrong?
Depending on this result, what should be done next? |
|
Definition
Test for structural heart disease via an echo or other methods.
If no structural heart disease is found, perform a tilt table test.
If found, do an electrophysiologic study of the heart. |
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|
Term
A patient presents with ventricular tachicardia. What kind of pacemaker should be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents with chronic A-fib, and it is determined that he is a good candidate for a pacemaker. What kind of pacemaker would be appropriate? |
|
Definition
A ventricular retrosponsive pacemaker |
|
|
Term
A patient with a single chamber pacemaker has severe hypotension. A blood test shows an increase in ANP levels. What is this patient most likely suffering from?
What should be done? |
|
Definition
pacemaker syndrome
Institute a dual chamber pacemaker to allow opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves. |
|
|
Term
When would it be appropriate to give a patient an Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (ICD)? |
|
Definition
Secondary prevention: Prevention of SCD in patients with prior VF or sustained VT.
Primary prevention: Prevention of SCD in individuals without a h/o VF or sustained VT.
VF/sustained unstable VT not in the setting of a completely reversible cause.
LVEF ≤ 35%, CHF NYHA class II, III.
Ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy, LVEF ≤ 40%, NSVT and inducible sustained VT.
Syncope, LV dysfunction, inducible sustained VT.
High risk patients with: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, LQT syndrome, RV dysplasia, Brugada syndrome |
|
|
Term
What are the ACC guidelines for giving a patient Cardiac Resyncronization Therapy (RCT)? |
|
Definition
LVEF ≤ 35%
QRS ≥ 120 msec
NYHA functional Class III or ambulatory Class IV
Optimal medical therapy |
|
|
Term
58 year old male, CAD, prior MI 1 year ago, LVEF 28%, CHF NYHA class II, treated with a betablocker, ACE inhibitor and statin; ECG: Sinus rhythm, old anteroseptal MI, QRS 98 msec
Question : For prevention of sudden cardiac death, you would suggest: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the decision to give a patient an ICD, you notice that they have a wide QRS complex. What kind of ICD should you use? |
|
Definition
A bi-ventricular ICD
if it was narrow, use a normal ICD |
|
|
Term
What are the grades of ascultation intensity? |
|
Definition
Grade 1Very Faint
Grade 2Quiet, but Heard Immediately
Grade 3Moderately Loud, Not Associated witha Thrill
Grade 4Loud, May Be Associated with aThrill
Grade 5Very Loud
Grade 6May be Heard w/stethoscopeoff chest |
|
|
Term
On ascultation, you notice a wide splitting of S1 irrespective of inspiration. What could this be indictive of? |
|
Definition
RBBB
PVC from Left Ventricle |
|
|
Term
On ascultation, you notice only one heart sound for S2 even when the patient inhales and exhales deeply. What could this be caused by? |
|
Definition
Normal
LBBB
PVC from Right Ventricle
Paced Beats |
|
|
Term
On ascultation, you notice a very pronounced and loud S1. What could this be indictive of?
What if the sound was decreased? |
|
Definition
Short PR
Rapid HR
Atrial Fibrillation
Mitral Stenosis
Mitral Stenosis (Immobile Leaflets)
Opposite of Causes of Increased Intensity |
|
|
Term
What is one reason that a patient would have a fixed S2 split? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On ascultation, you notice that your patient has persistent S2 splitting. What might cause this? |
|
Definition
RBBB
Pure MR
Healthy Adolescents when in Supine Position |
|
|
Term
What are the reasons for hearing paradoxial splitting of S2?
What about for S2 increased intensity? |
|
Definition
Paradoxical Splitting- P2 before A2
LBBB
Paced Beats
Increased Intensity
A2Systemic HTN
Dilated Aortic Root
P2Pulmonary HTN
Dilated Pulmonary Trunk |
|
|
Term
On ascultation, you notice a normal S1 followed by a "rough" noise when listening with your diaphragm. This noise comes almost directly after the sound of S1. What could this be? |
|
Definition
Ejection Sound- Usually High Frequency
Aortic Valve- Aortic Stenosis, Bicuspid Aortic Valve
Pulmonary Valve-Pulmonic Stenosis Vary with Respirations
Prosthetic Valves- Mechanical, Not Bioprosthetic |
|
|
Term
During ascultation, you notice a "click" occurring during mid-systole (halfway between S1 and S2). What is this very indictive of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During ascultation, you notice a "snapping" noise almost immediately after hearing S2. What most likely caused this? |
|
Definition
Opening Snap of Mitral Stenosis (MS)
High Frequency-Left Lateral Decubitus Position, Apex
Occurs after S2, before S3
MS More Severe with Short A2-OS Interval
Precordial Knock
Chronic Constrictive Pericarditis
Mitral Regurgitation
Atrial Myxoma
Older Model Prosthetic Mitral Valve |
|
|
Term
What sound can be heard that is almost pathognomonic for CHF?
Is the bell or diaphragm better to use for this? |
|
Definition
S3 (mid diastolic sound)
Bell (low frequency) |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes of S4? |
|
Definition
During Atrial Phase of LV Filling
Consequence of Ventricular Stiffness
Absent in Atrial Fibrillation or Ventricular Pacing
Low Frequency Sound Best Heart
At the Apex
Pt in Left Lateral Decubitus Position
HTN, Aortic Stenosis, Ischemic Heart Disease |
|
|
Term
What is the sound difference between aortic stenosis and mitral valve prolapse? |
|
Definition
aortic stenosis-creshendo-decreshendo.
Mitral valve prolapse=creshendo only |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristic sounds of mitral stenosis?
What is the best way to hear these sounds? |
|
Definition
Follows Opening Snap
Low Pitch Rumble
Best Heard
Apex over LV
Using Bell of Stethoscope
Pt in Left Lateral Decubitus Position |
|
|
Term
What are 4 complications of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
Arrhythmias
Endocarditis
Left-sided heart failure
Left ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement) caused by the extra work of pushing blood through the narrowed valve |
|
|
Term
What are the important non-surgical therapies to institute when treating mitral stenosis? |
|
Definition
Endocarditis Prophylaxis
Activity Limitation
Diruetics- Decrease Na Intake
Heart Rate Control for A-fib or Sinus Rhythm
Anticoagulation
|
|
|
Term
In mitral regurgitation, what percentage of ejection fraction is a SERIOUS risk?
What is the relationship between EF and post operative mortality? |
|
Definition
35% or less.
As EF decreases, post surgery mortality increases. |
|
|
Term
What sound changes occur with progressing aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
Systolic Murmur
Diamond-Shaped, harsh, left sternal boarder to right intercostal spaces, neck and apex
Late peak, obliteration of S2, consistent with bedside Dx of Critical AS
Pulses Parvus
Delayed and Prolonged Carotid Impulse |
|
|
Term
in aortic stenosis what are 3 things that can happen to patients that can increase mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are patients with aortic insufficiency followed?
What are the criteria for surgery? |
|
Definition
Follow by Echo Yearly
Endocarditis Prophalaxis for all AR
May not require medical treatment
Symptomatic Patients -valve area 0.7-0.8cm2 or less
Asymptomatic Patients-progressive LV disfunction (EF <35%) or hypotensive response to mild exercise
Delaying surgery in asymptomatic patients with good exercise tolerance is contraversial |
|
|
Term
What REALLY is the murmor in ASD? |
|
Definition
a pulmonic outflow tract murmor best heard at the left 2nd intercostal space. NEVER hear a murmor FROM the ASD! |
|
|
Term
What clinical symptoms/diseases are collected under the term Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?
What do they have in common? |
|
Definition
Unstable angina
Non-ST-segment-elevation MI
ST-segment-elevation MI
Each condition shares common pathophysiologic origins related to the instability and rupture of artherosclerotic vulnerable plaques |
|
|
Term
What distinguished unstable angina and NSTEMI? |
|
Definition
Whether the ischemia is prolonged enough to lead to structural myocardial damage and to the release of detectable markers of myocardial injury |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes of an NSTEMI? |
|
Definition
Intense arterial spasm
Progressive, severe, flow-limiting atherosclerosis due to intimal hyperplasia or to lipid, calcium, and thrombus deposition, or to fibrointimal hyperplasia after PCI
Coronary artery dissection
Conditions that alter myocardial oxygen demand or supply, such as intense emotion, tachycardia, or uncontrolled systemic hypertension (secondary MI) |
|
|
Term
When do plaque ruptures often occur? |
|
Definition
Often occurs in arteries where the atherosclerotic lesions previously had caused only mild-to-moderate obstruction |
|
|
Term
How is the diagnosis of UA or an MI Made? |
|
Definition
If ischemia is neither severe nor prolonged (usually <20min) and oftern occurs at rest, patients are given a diagnosis of UA
If ischemia lasts longer than 30 minutes and is associated with elevated cardiac markers, the diagnosis of MI is made
Further classification as STEMI or NSTEMI is made on the basis of electrocardiographic findings. |
|
|
Term
What is the test of first choice when screening for ACS? What type of ACS is it most specific for? |
|
Definition
EKG
Most sensitive for STEMI |
|
|
Term
What are the 7 components of the TIMI risk score? |
|
Definition
Age ≥ 65 years?Yes +1
≥ 3 Risk Factors for CAD?Yes +1
Known CAD (stenosis ≥ 50%)?Yes +1
Asprin use in Past 7d?Yes +1
Severe angina (≥ 2 episodes w/in 24 hrs)?Yes +1
ST changes ≥ 0.5mm?Yes +1
+ Cardiac Marker?Yes +1 |
|
|
Term
What 5 tests aid in risk stratification for people with ACS? |
|
Definition
Clinical history
Physical examination
12 lead ECG
Biochemical marker measurement
Noninvasive risk stratification |
|
|
Term
What drug class should be used in patients with refractive pain due to ischemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications to using nitrates? |
|
Definition
Patients who have taken sildenafil, tadalafil, or vardenafil in the previous 24 hours
Systemic hypotension
Marked tachycardia
Severe aortic stenosis
Right ventricular infarct |
|
|
Term
What are the contraindications to using beta blockers? |
|
Definition
Bradycardia
Heart block
Asthema
Diabetes patients prone to hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
A non-diabetic patient with a heart rate of 89bpm experiences an episode of UA. He has no history of asthema. What treatment should be started for this patient? |
|
Definition
Beta blockers (ideally within 24 hours of starting medical treatment) |
|
|
Term
An asthmatic patient presents with high blood pressure (despite nitrate usage) and NSTEMI. What drug would be best to institute? |
|
Definition
Calcium channel blockers
Dihydropyridines
Nifedipine, amlodipine
Nondihydropyridines
Verapamil, diltiazem |
|
|
Term
In a patient with ACS, what therapy would be best to reduce their risk of thrombosis the most? |
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Definition
Low dose asprin and Clopidogrel (2nd generation thienopyridine) |
|
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Term
Describe the early invasive strategy and the early conservative strategies for patients with ACS?
When is each best to use? |
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Definition
In the early-invasive strategy, all patients without contraindications undergo coronary angiography with the intent to perform revascularization within 4 to 24 hours of hospital admission.
The early-conservative strategy consists of aggressive medical therapy for patients
An early-invasive treatment strategy is of most benefit to high-risk patients
An early-conservative strategy is recommended for low-risk patients |
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Term
What are the main factors attributed to the pathogenesis in patients with ACS? |
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Definition
Plaque composition and inflammation are more important in the pathogenesis of ACS than is the actual degree of stenosis |
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Term
What is the most accurate predictor of mortality after an acute myocardial infarction? |
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Definition
Left ventricular health (observe cardiac output and other aspect of LV health) |
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Term
What is the best way to manage a patient with left ventricular failure? |
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Definition
Managed most effectively first by reduction of ventricular preload and then, if possible, by lowering afterload |
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Term
What are the characteristics of cardiogenic shock?
when does this usually occur?
What is often found on autopsy with this syndrome?
What treatments are possible for this syndrome? |
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Definition
Low output state characterized by elevated ventricular filling pressures, low cardiac output, systemic hypotension, and evidence of vital organ hypoperfusion
Occurs usually after an AMI
At autopsy, more than 2/3 of patients with cardiogenic shock demonstrate stenosis of 75 percent or more of the luminal diameter of all 3 major coronary vessels and loss of about 40 percent of LV mass
Same as tx for LV failure
Intraaortic balloon counterpulsation
Revascularization |
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Term
What other compilcations can be found in people who develop an intraventricular septal rupture after an acute MI?
What are the characteristic physical findings in patients who have such a rupture?
How can it be treated? |
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Definition
Associated with complete heart block, right bundle branch block, and atrial fibrillation in 20-30 percent of cases
Characterized by the appearance of a new harsh, loud holosystolic murmur
Best heard at the lower left sternal border
Usually accompanied by a thrill
Can be recognized by 2-D echocardiography
Catheter placement of an umbrella-shaped device within the ruptured septum |
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Term
What are the features that characterize a free wall rupture?
When do these occur? |
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Definition
Elderly
HTN
More frequently occurs in left ventricle
Seldom occurs in atria
Usually involves the anterior or lateral walls
Usually associated with a relatively large transmural infarction involving atleast 20% of the left ventricle
It occurs between 1 day and 3 weeks, but most commonly 1 to 4 days after infarction
Most often occurs in patients without previous infarction |
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Term
A diabetic, obese woman dies in her living room in a matter of seconds. Her husband states that she clutched her chest, fell over, and ceased moving and breathing almost immediately. What did she die of? What is the pathology of this?
What are the factors that affect the survival in a patient that has this condition? |
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Definition
A free wall rupture-Usually leads to hemopericardium and death from cardiac tamponade
Occasionally, rupture of the free wall of the ventricle occurs as the first clinical manifestation in patients with undetected or silent MI, and then it may be considered a form of “sudden cardiac death”
Survival depends on the recognition of this complication, on hemodynamic stabilization of the patient, and most importantly, on prompt surgical repair |
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Term
What are the differences between a typical ventricular aneurysm and a ventricular psuedoaneurysm? |
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Definition
True aneurysm: wide base, walls composed of myocardium and low risk of rupture.
Psuedoaneurysm: narrow base, wall composed of thrombus and pericardium, and high risk of rupture. |
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Term
What are the characteristics and causes of acute mitral valve regurgitation? |
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Definition
Due to partial or total rupture of a papillary muscle
Rare but often fatal complication of transmural MI
Complete transection of a left ventricular papillary muscle is incompatible with life because the sudden massive mitral regurgitation that develops cannot be tolerated
Rupture of a portion of a papillary muscle resulting in severe mitral regurgitation is much more frequent and is not immediately fatal |
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Term
What are the characteristics of a right ventricular infarction? |
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Definition
Frequently accompanies inferior LV infarction or rarely occurs in isolated form
Right-sided filling pressures are elevated, whereas left ventricular filling pressure is normal or only slighty raised
Cardiac output is often markedly depressed
Common among patients with inferior LV infarction
Unexplained systemic arterial hypotension or diminished cardiac output or marked hypotension in response to small doses of nitroglycerine in patients with inferior infarction should lead to the prompt consideration of this diagnosis
Common among patients with inferior LV infarction
Unexplained systemic arterial hypotension or diminished cardiac output or marked hypotension in response to small doses of nitroglycerine in patients with inferior infarction should lead to the prompt consideration of this diagnosis |
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Term
What are two ways to detect a right ventricular infarction?
Why is this important?
What treatment should be instituted? |
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Definition
Most patients with RV infarction have ST segment elevation in lead V4R (right precordial lead in V4 position)
2-D echocardiography : abnormal wall motion of the right ventricle as well as right ventricular dilitation and depressed RV ejection fraction
In patients with an inferior MI, it is important to know this when thinking about treatment with nitrates which is a large contraindication with a right ventricular MI (decreases preload).
Volume expansion. |
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Term
What is the proper treatment of a ventricular arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
Usually pursue a conservative approach and do not routinely prescribe antiarrhythmic drugs but instead determine whether recurrent ischemia or electrolyte/metabolic disturbances are present |
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Term
What treatments can be used to treat ventricular tach.? What about ventricular fibrillation (post recovery)? |
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Definition
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Term
What blood level is a HIGH risk factor for ventricular fibrillation if too high or low? |
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Definition
Potassium levels (low is an even larger risk than high) |
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Term
What are the characteristics of bradyarrythmias, specifically sinus bradycardia? |
|
Definition
Common arrhythmia occuring during the early phases of AMI
Particularly frequent in patients with inferior and posterior infarction
Isolated sinus bradycardia, unaccompanied by hypotension or ventricular ectopy, should be observed rather than treated initially
Atropine should be utilized if hypotension accompanies any degree of sinus bradycardia |
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Term
What treatment should be instituted for patients with a Atrioventricular block or a Intraventricular Block? |
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Definition
Digitalis, B-blockers, Calcium antagonists |
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Term
What are the characteristics of a 2nd degree heart block? (Mobitz type II)
How is this treated? |
|
Definition
Rare conduction defect after AMI
Often progresses suddenly to complete AV block (3rd degree heart block. This is unlike a 1st degree heart block which doesn't usually progress.)
Treated with a temporary external or transvenous demand pacemaker |
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Term
What is a common situation to see a pericardial effusion?
Does this cause any sort of hemodynamic compromise such as cardiac tamponade? |
|
Definition
More common in patients with anterior MI and with larger infarcts and when congestive heart failure is present
Majority do not cause hemodynamic compromise; when tamponade occurs, it is usually due to ventricular rupture or hemorrhagic pericarditis |
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Term
How is pericarditis often treated? |
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Definition
Treatment of pericardial discomfort consists of aspirin at does as high as 650mg every 4-6 hours. (corticosteroids should be avoided because they may interfere with myocardial scar formation) |
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Term
What are the characteristics of Dressler syndrome?
When does it usually occur?
What is an effective treatment of this condition? |
|
Definition
Post-myocardial infarction syndrome
Usually occurs 1 to 8 weeks after infarction
Patients present with malaise, fever, pericardial discomfort, leukocytosis, elevated ESR,and a pericardial effusion
Cause of this syndrome not clearly established (? Immunopathological process)
Treatment : ASA 650mg Q4hrs |
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Term
What criteria must be met for a normal sinus rhythm? |
|
Definition
- A heart rate between 60-100 beats per minute.
- The SA node pacing the heart.
- Regularity- Regular
- A "P" wave must be present for every "QRS" complex in a ratio of 1:1.
- PR interval is between .12 second and .20 second.
- QRS complex width should be less than .12 second.
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Term
What areas of the heart are supplied by the LAD, the LCX, and the RCA? |
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Definition
The left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) and it's branches usually supply the anterior and anterolateral walls of the left ventricle and the anterior two-thirds of the septum.
The left circumflex coronary artery (LCX) and its branches usually supply the posterolateral wall of the left ventricle.
The right coronary artery (RCA) supplies the right ventricle, the inferior (diaphragmatic) and true posterior walls of the left ventricle, and the posterior third of the septum.
The RCA also gives off the AV nodal coronary artery in 85-90% of individuals; in the remaining 10-15%, this artery is a branch of the LCX. |
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Term
What are the characteristics of an inferior MI? |
|
Definition
Pathologic Q waves and evolving ST-T changes in leads II, III, aVF
Q waves usually largest in lead III, next largest in lead aVF, and smallest in lead II |
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Term
What are the characteristics of a true posterior MI? |
|
Definition
[image] ECG changes are seen in anterior precordial leads V1-3, but are the mirror image of an anteroseptal MI:
[image] Increased R wave amplitude and duration (i.e., a "pathologic R wave" is a mirror image of a pathologic Q)
[image] R/S ratio in V1 or V2 >1 (i.e., prominent anterior forces)
[image] Hyperacute ST-T wave changes: i.e., ST depression and large, inverted T waves in V1-3
[image] Late normalization of ST-T with symmetrical upright T waves in V1-3
[image] Often seen with inferior MI (i.e., "inferoposterior MI")
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Term
how does an anteroseptal MI appear on EKG? |
|
Definition
[image] Q, QS, or qrS complexes in leads V1-V3 (V4)
[image] Evolving ST-T changes |
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Term
What is the difference seen on EKG between an anterior MI and an anterolateral MI? |
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Definition
Q, QS, or qrS complexes in leads V1-V3 (V4)
Evolving ST-T changes
but usually V1 is spared; if V4-6 involved call it "anterolateral" |
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Term
What are the findings on EKG that are characteristic of left ventricular hypertrophy?
When a patient has these characteristics, what other findings on EKG are important regarding other pathology? |
|
Definition
R wave in lead 1 greater than 11cm
On any 2 chest leads, combine an R and S wave (one on each) and have a sum of >35mm
None, left ventricular hypertrophy obscures and skews other findings |
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Term
What usually sets off an episode of AVNRT? (AV Nodal Re-entry tachycardia)?
What is a very useful long term treatment for such patients?
How does this present on EKG? |
|
Definition
A PAC (premature atrial contraction)
Beta blockers, Calcium channel blockers. Slow down heart rate enough for the retrograde signals to be halted.
normal but narrow QRS complex without P waves. |
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Term
What leads should be used to best visualize atrial problems? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is a key finding in diagnosing a left bundle branch block? |
|
Definition
QRS complex longer than 120ms
Prominant R waves in Leads I, aVL, V5 and V6
Hallmark=HUGE negative deflecting S waves |
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Term
What leads should be used to detect a right bundle branch block?
What would be seen?
How can this be differentiated from a left bundle branch block |
|
Definition
V1 V2 and V3
Positive deflections
V1 is positive in RBBB, not in LBBB
Inferior limb leads (II, III, aVF) should be normal in LBBB
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Term
What can be seen in cardiac ischemia that is DIFFERENT from the appearance of an acute MI?
Using leads, how can you tell where the ischemia is? |
|
Definition
ST depression
V4,5, and 6=Lateral
II, III, and aVF=inferior
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Term
A patient presents on EKG with largely depressed Q waves in leads V1, 2 and 3. They are otherwise largely asymptomatic. What does this indicate? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a very common problem associated with a primum sinus defect that is often overlooked? |
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Definition
An anomalous pulmonary vein can develop, delivering unoxygenated blood to pulmonary return. (sinus venosus)
Mitral valve defect, particularly mitral regurg. "endocardial cushion" today known as an AV valve (cleft mitral valve). |
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Term
What is the most common type of ASD? |
|
Definition
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Term
What is the hallmark(s) of an ASD (particularly a secundum)? |
|
Definition
Dilated right atrium, ventricle and pulmonary artery.
A constant split of S2. |
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|
Term
What population typically presents with a ASD primum with mitral regurg? |
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Definition
Down's syndrome patients. |
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Term
How can you distinguish an ASD from a VSD?
What can happen with a sizable VSD?
How can one distinguish from a patient foramen ovale? |
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Definition
No dilation of right atrium in VSD, but dilation of right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
Kids with VSD typically go into heart failure. "Size is everything". Also, age of occurance determines how worrisome this complication is.
No dilation of the right heart, only in pulmonary vasculature. |
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Term
Which is easier to hear on ascultation, ASD or VSD? |
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Definition
VSD (Holosystolic murmur which is harsh and loud, similar to mitral regurg. but much more severe.) Can feel a heave! Typical in children. |
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Term
What is Eisenmenger's complex?
What causes the main complication in this disease, and what often kills these patients? |
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Definition
Change from left to right shunt, to a right to left shunt. Occurs after a long ASD or VSD. Cyanotic lesion.
Pulmonary hypertension |
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Term
What is a major hallmark of pulmonary hypertension on ascultation? |
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Definition
Very intesnse S2, especially in areas such as the PMI. |
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Term
What is the hallmark sound of a PDA? |
|
Definition
A "machine like" murmur that drowns our the regular heart sounds. |
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Term
In which gender is a coarctation more common?
What can be seen on X-ray?
What is this associated with?
What is one typical clinical presentation especially seen in kids? |
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Definition
MORE COMMON IN MALES
RIB NOTCHING OCCURS DUE TO PHYSICAL ERROSION OF THE UNDERSURFACE OF THE RIBS AS A RESULT OF INTERCOSTAL COLLATERAL CIRCULATION
ASSOCIATED WITH BICUSPID AORTIC VALVE
Systolic ejection murmur (aortic stenosis) as well as pain in the legs after running. |
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Term
What are the 4 clinical findings of Tetrology of Fallot?
What do children tend to do with this disorder? |
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Definition
1) INFUNDIBULAR STENOSIS
2) VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT
3) RIGHT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY
4) OVERRIDING OF THE AORTA
High incidence of ASD as well.
Children tend to "squat" as they get short of breath to aid in veinous return. |
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Term
What is a powerful treatment for long term pericarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
Cocsakie viruses type A and B |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
TUMOR
Trauma
Uremia
MI
Other infections
Rheumatic disease |
|
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Term
What is Dressler's syndrome and how can it be treated? |
|
Definition
A syndrome consisting of fever, pericarditis and pleuritis often occurring after an MI or cardiac surgery.
Treat with high dose asprin |
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Term
What is the standard for diagnosing a pericardial effusion?
What can be seen on EKG and on physical exam that is not diagnostic, but is highly suggestive?
What is a test that is NOT helpful in this diagnosis? |
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Definition
Echo
Can see electrical alternans on EKG (heart "swinging in a liquid sack") Diminished heart sounds, including a decreased friction rub if present.
X-ray (cannot distinguish a large heart from a pleural effusion via x-ray) |
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Term
What is Beck's triad? What does this indicate? |
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Definition
Decreased arterial pressure
decreased heart sounds
distended neck veins
Indictive of a cardiac tamponade |
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Term
Who is most at risk for myocarditis? |
|
Definition
young males, pregnant women, children and the immunosuppressed |
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Term
What are the Dallas criteria for the diagnosis of myocarditis? |
|
Definition
Introduced in 1986 for dx of pericardits
Based on endomyocardial biopsy specimens
1. Active Myocarditis: if light microscopy revealed
infiltrating lymphocytes and myocytolysis
2. Borderline or on going Myocardits if lymphocyte
infiltration and NO myocytolysis
3. Negative for Myocarditis if no lymphocytic infiltrate
and no myocytolysis |
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Term
What is a MAJOR limitation when imaging with a portable X-ray machine? |
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Definition
Cannot diagnose cardiomegaly (it is an AP x-ray) |
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Term
What does a "bat wing deformity" indicate? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What do Kerley B lines indicate? |
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Definition
interstital edema often caused by heart failure |
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|
Term
Which type of x-ray is best for estimating right ventricular size? |
|
Definition
An AP x-ray or left lateral |
|
|
Term
What cardiac structure is obscured if a patient has a right middle lobe pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a de-acceleration injury, what usually ruptures in the ABDOMEN?
What about in the CHEST? |
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Definition
Duodenum
Aorta (due to the ligamentum arteriosum) |
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Term
A patient presents with an S2 murmur and appears to have a calcified aortic valve on imaging. What must be ruled out following this finding? |
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Definition
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Term
A teenager presents with severe hypertension, but normal blood pressures in their lower limbs. On x-ray, what is one very probable finding?
What is this most likely to be?
|
|
Definition
Rib knotching
coarctation of the aorta |
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Term
What does a "calcium stripe sign" with a double aortic lumen indicate on x-ray? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the mechanism of action of an angioseal (balloon)? |
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Definition
Opens an occluded/stenosed vessel with a controlled dissection |
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Term
What are the absolute contraindications for cardiac catheterization? |
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Definition
LESION LESS THEN 50% blockage, NEGATIVE flow across the lesion.
NO SURGICAL BACKUP (not really a problem anymore today)
SEVERE SYSTEMIC DISEASE WITH A LIMITED LIFESPAN
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Term
What are the indications for cardiac cath. in asymptomatic patients? |
|
Definition
POSITIVE STRESS TEST
SUDDEN CARDIAC DEATH
INDIVIDUALS IN HIGH RISK PROFFESIONS
PRIOR TO SURGERY WITH BORDERLINE POSITIVE NONINVASIVE STRESS TESTS AND RISK FACTORS |
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|
Term
Which population has the highest risk for heart disease, and should be stress tested? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the indications for using pharmacologic stress testing? |
|
Definition
Patients unable to exercise
Preoperative risk stratification
Early postinfarct risk stratification
Left bundle branch block-EKG is abnormal anyway! Don't want to stress test.
Fixed-rate pacemakers |
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Term
An asthmatic patient is severely obese and cannot walk. He is also a type 2 diabetic. What kind of stress test should be used? |
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Definition
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Term
When would a dobutamine stress test be preferred over a persantine/adenosine stress test?
What is a major drawback to this type of stress test? |
|
Definition
In a patient with asthema
Takes a very long time! |
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Term
A 26 year old pregnant female needs to undergo a stress test. What would be her best option? |
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Definition
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Term
What can be deduced from a thallium-201 nuclear scan that cannot be gained from a technetium-99 scan?
What is the advantage of a technetium scan? |
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Definition
Myocardial viability (parts of the heart can be inactive due to "cardiac shock", and can only be picked up with this type of scan)
Allows for more accurate imaging, allowing better pictures to be taken and even ejection fraction to be calculated. |
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Term
What are the NYHA classes of heart failure, and which are most treatable? |
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Definition
Class I:No symptoms with ordinary activity
Class II:Slight limitation of physical activity.
Comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or angina
Class III:Marked limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain
Class IV:Unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency may be present even at rest
Classes II and III are most treatable (usually don't see class I in the doctor's office)
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Term
What are the stages of heart failure according to the ACC and AHA? |
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Definition
Stage A: Patient at high risk for developing HF with no structural disorder of the heart
Stage B: Patient with structural disorder without symptoms of HF
Stage C: Patient with past or current symptoms of HF associated with underlying structural heart disease
Stage D: Patient with end-stage disease who requires specialized treatment strategies |
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Term
What are the compensation mechanisms of heart failure? |
|
Definition
Frank-Starling Mechanism
Neurohormonal Activation (Sympathetic nervous system (SNS), Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), and Vasopressin (a.k.a. antidiuretic hormone, ADH)).
Ventricular Remodeling |
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