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___________ Indications Acute myocardial infarction Pulmonary embolism Deep venous thrombosis Ischemic stroke (special circumstances only) - CAT scan, MRI first |
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________: a nonenzymatic activator of plasminogen extracted from hemolytic streptococci |
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serious side effect of thrombolytic agents? |
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ASA – ________ block of cycloxygenase - will inactivate platelets for __ days |
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ASA Should be administered routinely to virtually all patients with _______ |
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Prevents fibrinogen binding to glycoprotein GP IIb-IIIa, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation |
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Clopidogrel used for? (3) |
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Stents Acute coronary syndrome prevention of ischemic events in atherosclerosis |
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Approved as antithrombotic during angioplasty |
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Inhibits PDE III (increases cyclic AMP) Inhibits platelet aggregation Stimulates vasodilation |
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Cilostazol Indicated for? |
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reduction of symptoms of intermittent claudication |
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Cilostazol contraindicated in? |
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Hemorrheologic Agent = improves blood flow Mechanism enhances RBC flexibility, decreases blood viscosity may decrease TXA 2 levels and increase PGI2 levels |
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Pentoxifylline indications? (2) |
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intermittent claudication chronic occlusive arterial disease of the limbs |
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heparin route? warfarin route? |
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heparin iv - in hospital - fast onset warfarin po - outpatient - slow onset |
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what lab used to monitor heparin? |
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aPTT of __-__ times control is the typical therapeutic goal when using Heparin |
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Stop Heparin
Protamine sulfate binds to and inactivates heparin must be given slowly IV
FFP |
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prophylaxis of DVT associated with hip, knee, and abdominal surgery |
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inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibits vitamin K-dependent post-translation modification of clotting factors:thrombin, VII, IX, X, Protein C and S without addition of the carboxyglutamic acid residue the clotting factors cannot bind Ca++ and are inactive |
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Contraindications to Warfarin Therapy |
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Definition
Absolute Pregnancy teratogenicity fetal hemorrhage |
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indirect thrombin inhibitors |
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direct thrombin inhibitors |
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Parenteral Oral Hirudin Ximelagatran Argatroban **Dabigatran** Bivalirudin etexilate |
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Anticoagulant Direct thrombin inhibitor |
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Prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular atrial fibriliation |
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α-adrenoceptor antagonists |
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α-adrenoceptor antagonists |
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α-adrenoceptor antagonists |
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nonspecific β-adrenoceptor antagonists: |
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nonspecific β-adrenoceptor antagonists: |
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β1-adrenoceptor antagonists: |
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metoprolol succinate and metoprolol tartrate |
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Definition
β1-adrenoceptor antagonists: |
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Calcium channel blockers: |
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Calcium channel blockers: |
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Calcium channel blockers: |
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Centrally acting antihypertensives: |
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Centrally acting antihypertensives: |
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ARBs – two that are FDA approved in HF in place of ACE-Is – |
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candesartan and valsartan |
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Diuretics Adverse Effects and Side Effects |
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Electrolyte Imbalance (most common hypokalemia, then hyperkalemia but can include calcium imbalance, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia) Biggest concern here is dysrhythmias Hyperlipidemia Glucose Intolerance and Insulin Resistance Hyperuricemia Rare Nephritis, blood dyscrasias, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, necrotizing vasculitis |
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Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Lower sympathetic activity, modest decrease in PVR/CO and Renin Level |
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Definition
Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers |
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Definition
Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers |
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Definition
Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers |
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Definition
Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers |
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Peripheral Acting Adrenergic Blocker MOA? |
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Definition
(blocks norepinephrine uptake) Action - Decreases PVR |
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Central Acting Adrenergic Blockers Side Effects? |
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Definition
sedation, dry mouth, rebound HTN, fluid retention |
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Peripheral Acting Adrenergic Blocker |
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Definition
Peripheral Acting Adrenergic Blocker |
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Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers MOA? |
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Definition
(Selective Post Synaptic Catecholamine Blocker) Action – Decreases PVR and Pre Load |
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Definition
Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers |
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Definition
Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers |
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Definition
Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers |
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Peripheral Acting Adrenergic Blockers Side Effects? |
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Definition
CNS depression (sedation and depression), nasal stuffiness |
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Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers Side Effects? |
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Definition
– headache, drowsiness, fatigue, dizziness, asthma type response, first dose hypotensive response |
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Beta Adrenergic Blockers (Beta 1 and 2) MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Reduces CO and HR, diminishes renin release, decrease PVR (usually with time), inhibit catecholamine release |
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Beta Adrenergic Blockers (Beta 1 and 2) Side Effects? |
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Definition
CNS side effects (insomnia, depressed mood, nightmares, sexual dysfunction), hypoglycemia, hypotension, bradycardia dyslipidemia (HDL,TGY), bronchospasm |
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what are the two combined alpha and beta blockers? |
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Definition
Carvedilol Labetalol - impt in heart failure – not as effective for just HTN |
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Beta blocker will decrease contractility – will decrease stroke volume on the wiggers diagram |
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Direct vasodilators side effects? |
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Definition
Tachycardia, Lupus like symptoms, headaches, hirsutism (primarily Minoxidil) |
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Ankle edema, headaches, flushing, gingival hyperplasia (primarily dihydropyridine) |
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The only CCB you can use in HF patient is ____– doesn’t hurt or help HF = neutral |
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Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors MOA? |
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Definition
Inhibits Angiotensin II (direct vasoconstrictor) and increased kinin levels |
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Definition
Dry hacking cough, angioedema, rash, first dose hypotension, hyperkalemia, caution with increasing renal insufficiency |
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____ Contraindicated in 2nd & 3rd trimester pregnancy |
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Definition
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Angiotensin Release Blocking MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Directly displaces Angiotensin II (direct vasoconstrictor) |
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Definition
Side Effects – hyperkalemia, angioedema, first dose hypotension, caution with increasing renal insufficiency |
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In contrast to ACE-I, no ___ with ARBs Less chance of ___ |
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A patient is started on a drug for treatment of hypertension. On a return visit to your office, he states that shortly after he started taking the drug, he experienced a persistent cough that has not improved even though he has taken the medication as prescribed. What is the most likely drug that he was taking, and what drug could you substitute that would have similar beneficial pharmacodynamic effects while likely producing less cough?
Initial Drug Substituted Drug moexipril telmisartan chlorothiazide torsemide diltiazem nifedipine hydralazine alpha-methyldopa |
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A patient is found to have new onset hypertension 145/95 mmHg. The patient is African American. Which of the following antihypertensive agents would be used initially because it is typically more effective in African Americans?
HCTZ Lisinopril Captopril Valsartan Atenolol Prazosin |
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Thiazides ACE-I - ATII blockers (ARBS) Beta blockers Calcium channel blockers Alpha blockers Vasodilators |
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FOR HTN in Coronary heart disease, Tx w/? |
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Definition
beta blockers, ACE inhibitors |
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Definition
ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, ARBs, spiranolactone |
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For HTN in Diabetics, Tx w/? |
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Definition
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For HTN in Renal insufficiency, Tx w/? |
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Definition
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What are the 3 classes of antianginals? |
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Definition
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Definition
Late Sodium Blocker
decreased myocardial stress, increased coronary perfusion |
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what antianginal drug can you use as an adjunct when you don't think any other drug is working? |
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Definition
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HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors are for _____ |
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Definition
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HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Primarily works in enhancing hepatocyte LDL receptors and increases LDL clearing from plasma |
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HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors Indications? |
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Definition
Use – Increased LDL, TC, Apo B, Non-HDL primarily; modest effect on increased TGY; much less effect on low HDL |
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HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors Side Effects? |
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Definition
Myopathy/Rhabdomyolysis Increased Liver Enzymes |
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Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors |
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Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors |
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Bile Acid Sequestrants MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Primarily works in the liver by increasing LDL clearance and increased cholesterol losses in the bile |
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Bile Acid Sequestrants Indications? |
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Definition
Increased LDL, TC, Non-HDL primarily; no effect or may increase TGY |
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Definition
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Bile Acid Sequestrants SE? |
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GI distress, constipation, decreased absorption other drugs, |
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Fibric Acids are used to treat? |
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Definition
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Definition
Action – Enhances lipoprotein lipase in the peripheral tissues and improved removal of triglycerides |
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Fibric Acids indications? |
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Definition
Use - Increased TGY primarily with good effect on LDL, TC, Non-HDL; modest effect on low HDL |
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Definition
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Definition
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Definition
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Side Effects - Dyspepsia, Gallstones, Myopathy, Rhabdomyolysis (Myoglobinuria) |
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Nicotinic Acids are used to treat? |
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Definition
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Definition
Action – Limits FFA from adipose tissue which decreases hepatic release of VLDL |
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Nicotinic acids indications? |
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Definition
Use – Primarily elevates HDL, high modest lowering of LDL and Apo B, low modest effect on increased TGY |
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Definition
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Definition
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Definition
Flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, UGI distress, hepatotoxicity |
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Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors MOA? |
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Definition
Action – Decreases cholesterol absorption in the gut |
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Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors Indications? |
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Definition
Use - Increased LDL and TC, Apo B; no substantial effect on HDL or TGY |
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Definition
Cholesterol absorption inhibitor |
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Cholesterol absorption ihibitor Side Effects? |
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Definition
Arthralgias, Back Pain, Abdominal Pain, Diarrhea, Cough |
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Definition
Action – Reduced production of VLDL and remnants |
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Omega 3 Fatty Acids Indications? |
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Definition
Use – Primarily for elevated TGY but with mild modest effects on LDL and HDL. |
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Definition
Side Effects - Eructation, infection, flu like syndrome, dyspepsia, taste changes, back pain |
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statin toxicity can cause? |
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Definition
hepatic damage & rhabdomyolysis |
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Term
What lab Indicates muscle breakdown = rhabdomyolysis and need to monitor on statins? |
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Definition
Monitor creatine phosphokinase (CPK; CK) |
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Term
DOC for ↓ levels of TG (VLDL) in pts at risk for pancreatitis? |
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Definition
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Definition
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How to treat niacin toxicity flushing? |
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Definition
Give aspirin (blunts, but does not remove, this effect). |
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_________ is used for Reduction of triglycerides when VLDL is very high, or when IDL is elevated. Follow VLDL. If it is elevated, this is a candidate drug. If LDL is elevated but VLDL is not elevated, do not use this drug. |
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Definition
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What class of drug has this MOA?
Enhanced excretion of bile acids, leading to conversion of cholesterol to bile acids in the liver.
Loss of cholesterol triggers up regulation of LDL receptors in the liver: therefore, LDL |
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Definition
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What drug Inhibits absorption of phytosterols and cholesterol |
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Definition
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Ezetimibe Primarily useful for reducing ____ cholesterol Does not modify ____ absorption Often used in combination with a ___ |
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Definition
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A 52 y/o African-American male presents for routine follow-up. He has a history of aortic valve replacement, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension. He also has a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy. He states for the past two months he has noticed progressive generalized soreness and discomfort in the muscles of his extremities especially the upper extremities. His medications include amlodipine 10 mg daily, warfarin 2.5 mg daily, doxazosin 2 mg daily, lovastatin 40 mg daily, and Centrum-multivitamin/mineral supplement.
What labs to order? |
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Definition
Would order a CPK – based on muscle problems Would get a liver panel |
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Term
What medication is at most concern for causing peripheral edema? Amlodipine Warfarin Lovastatin Doxazosin |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is most likely to cause sedation & dryness of mouth? Telmisartan HCTz asa Clonidine |
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Definition
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Which drug most likely to cause rebound HTN? Telmisartan HCTz Clonidine asa |
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Definition
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Term
What agen should not be stopped abruptly? Ramipril Metoprolol |
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Definition
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What causes respiratory depression? |
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Definition
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What causes progressive hypotension |
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Definition
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With Mobitz type II – what med should not be used? |
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Definition
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Pt. w/ pulmonary edema & ankle edema, what tx will help with both? |
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Definition
Furosemide will help with both |
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Term
High trigs are treated w/? |
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Definition
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Which masks hypoglycemia? |
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Definition
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____ is probalby best HTN drug for someone w/ DM |
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Definition
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BP is reduced by: Reduced CO Increased vagus nerve activity Decreased central sympathetic outflow Reduced angiotensin II levels What drug to do this? |
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Definition
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What inhibits peptidyl dipeptidase? |
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Definition
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Cutting spinal cord below T8 would _____ afterload |
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Definition
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Term
If stellate gangion (sympathetic outflow to heart) was cut? |
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Definition
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Term
Class I Anti-arrhythmics? |
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Definition
Na+ Channel Blocker; Blocks Conduction Common Uses – AFib, Flutter; V-Tach, WPW Medications – Quinidine, Lidocaine, Flecainide Side Effects – Dysrhythmias, GI symptoms, Toxic, blood dyscrasias |
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Class II Anti-arrhythmics? |
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Definition
Beta Adrenergic Blockers; decreases SA node automaticity; sympatholytic activity Common Uses – Primarily AFib, Flutter; PVC's Medications – Propranolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol, Sotalol Side Effects – Bradycardia, bronchospasm, fatigue |
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Class III Anti-arrhythmics? |
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Definition
Prolongs the action potential Common Uses – Atrial Dysrhythmias such as AFib, Flutter, PVST; Ventricular Dysrhythmias, WPW Medications – Amiodarone, Sotalol, Bretylium Side Effects – Thyroid function, pulmonary function, dysrhythmias |
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Term
Class IV Anti-arrhythmics? |
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Definition
Calcium Channel Blockers; decreases SA nodal rate and AV conduction Common Uses – Atrial Dysrhythmias Medications – Verapamil, Diltiazem Side Effects – Bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, hypotension |
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Definition
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Anti-Arrhythmic Na+ channel blocker |
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Definition
Anti-Arrhythmic Na+ channel blocker |
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Definition
Anti-Arrhythmic Na+ channel blocker |
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Definition
Anti-Arrhythmic K+ channel blocker |
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Definition
Anti-Arrhythmic K+ channel blocker |
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Definition
Anti-Arrhythmic K+ channel blocker |
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Term
First Line Agents for HF? (3) |
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Definition
Diuretics Typically Loop Diuretics If wet -> Diurese
Beta Blockers (Don’t start or increase if wet) Carvidelol Metoprolol XL
ACEI/ARB |
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Term
_____ is the only oral inotrope and is a weak inotrope at best. Use is primarily useful in heart failure but is controversial. |
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Definition
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Term
IV Inotropes -> Used primarily in left ventricular dysfunction such as in acute and chronic heart failure. Medications? (2) |
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Definition
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Term
Drug used in severe cases of shock for vasoconstriction? |
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Definition
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Term
Thiazides function at what part of the renal tubule? |
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Definition
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Term
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors MOA? |
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Definition
prevent formation of H+ and HCO3-. Less H+ to exchange for Na+ Less Na+ reabsorbed Water follows Na+ so less water reabsorbed. |
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Definition
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Osmotic Diuretics: Uses (3) |
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Definition
Acute renal failure (i.e., maintain urine flow)
Reduce cerebrospinal fluid volume and pressure Often used after head injury to reduce CSF pressure
Hemodialysis Facilitate urinary excretion of toxic substances |
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Term
What is a good tx for Acute pulmonary edema? |
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Definition
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Term
Loop diuretics indications? |
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Definition
1. Edema
2. Acute pulmonary edema
3. HTN that can not be controlled with other diuretics
4. Acute renal failure
5. Hypercalcemia |
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Term
good drug to use in hyperparthyroidism where there is hypercalcemia? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
“thiazide-like” drug These agents work at the same site as thiazides but have different structures. When loop diuretics fail, these agent may serve as a adjunct with the loop diuretic to produce diuresis. |
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Term
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Definition
“thiazide-like” drug These agents work at the same site as thiazides but have different structures. When loop diuretics fail, these agent may serve as a adjunct with the loop diuretic to produce diuresis. |
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Term
Spiranolactone Site of Action in renal tubule? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
competes for the aldosterone receptor |
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