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Canty test 3
canty test 3
1101
Anatomy
Professional
03/12/2012
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Term
1.     _____ is idiopathic high blood pressure that usually goes undetected due to a lack of symptoms.
 Definition
PRIMARY/ESSENTIAL HYPERTENSION
Term
2.     Primary/essential hypertension represents _____% of hypertension cases.
 Definition
90.00000%
Term
3.     4 causes of secondary hypertension.
 Definition
1) CUSHINGS DISEASE, 3) PRIMARY ALDOSTERONISM, 3) PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA, 4) COARCTATION OF THE AORTA
Term
4.     9 risk factors of hypertension.
 Definition
1) FAMILY HISTORY, 2) AGE, 3) MALE GENDER, 4) BLACK RACE, 5) OBESITY, 6) HIGH SODIUM DIET, 7) GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE, 8) SMOKING, 9) HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION
Term
5.     What is the best way to diagnose hypertension. .
 Definition
TAKE BP AT THE SAME TIME OF DAY AND RECORD IT OVER A PERIOD OF DAYS
Term
6.     If one has hypertension, there will be ophthalmic changes in the _____ of the eyes.
 Definition
VASCULAR BEDS
Term
7.     _____ is thong term effect of hypertension, so we should run kidney function tests when one presents with hypertension.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
8.     If one has hypertension, there will be a _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
LARGE R WAVE
Term
9.     7 steps in the pathyphysiology of hypertension.
 Definition
1) HYPERTENSION DAMAGES THE WALLS OF THE SYSTEMIC VESSELS, 2) PROLONGED VASOCONSTRICTION AND HIGH PRESSURE CAUSES THE VESSELS TO THICKEN, 3) ARTERIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE UNDERGOES HYPERTROPHY, 4) TUNICA INTIMA AND MEDIA UNDERGO FIBROMUSCULAR THICKENING LEADING TO NARROWING OF THE LUMEN, 5) VESSELS BECOME PERMANENTLY NARROWED, 6) HYPERTENSIVE INJURY CAUSES INFLAMMATION TO INCREASE THE PERMEABILITY OF THE VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM, 7) AS PERMEABILITY INCREASES MORE IONS ENTER THE VESSEL WALLS CAUSING FURTHER THICKENING
Term
10.  When _____ occur, hypertension is usually far advanced.
 Definition
SYMPTOMS
Term
11.  7 manifestations of hypertension.
 Definition
1) UNSTEADINESS, 2) WALKING HEADACHE, 3) BLURRED VISION, 4) DEPRESSION, 5) RENAL DYSFUNCTION, 6) RETINAL CHANGES, 7) SIGNS OF VENTRICULAR FAILURE SUCH AS DYSPNEA OR EXERTION
Term
12.  4 hypertensive death related causes.
 Definition
1) STROKE, 2) MI, 3) RENAL FAILURE, 4) ENCEPHALOPATHY
Term
13.  _____ is a CVA when a blood clot lodges in a vessel leading to ischemic hypoxia.
 Definition
THROMBOTIC
Term
14.  _____ is a CVA when a clot comes from a far away source.
 Definition
EMBOLIC STROKE
Term
15.  _____ is a CVA caused by bleeding.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
16.  Hypertension is the primary cause of _____ strokes.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
17.  _____ are small stroke like incidents that last 10 minutes or less. It leads to a loss in a patients senses.
 Definition
TIA (TRANSIENT ISCHEMIC ATTACK)
Term
18.  If one has a TIA, a patient will experience these 2 symptoms.
 Definition
1) BRUITS, 2) THEY WILL SEE FLOATERS
Term
19.  For something to be diagnosed as a stroke, symptoms must remain for _____ hours.
 Definition
24 HOURS
Term
20.  If a patient has a thrombotic stroke, _____ can be administered to bust out the clot that’s blocking the brain, and restore blood flow. This is able to completely resolve the stroke leading too complications.
 Definition
THRMBOLYTICS
Term
21.  Strokes tame time to _____ to completion. It might not look severe at first, but the next day the patient could look much worse.
 Definition
EVOLVE
Term
22.  Once a patient has completed a stoke they should work on _____ as quick as possible.
 Definition
REHAB
Term
23.  _____ and _____ are 2 agents used to treat thrombotic and embolic strokes. They must not be administered to a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke because they will bleed to death.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS AND FIBRINOLYTIC AGENTS
Term
24.  13 risk factors of cerebrovascular disease.
 Definition
1) ATHEROSCLEROSIS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) HIGH CHOLESTEROL, 4) FAMILY HISTORY, 5) OBESITY, 6) SEDENTARY LIFESTYLE, 7) ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, 8) SMOKING, 9) COAGULATION DISORDERS, 10) DEHYDRATION, 11) CHRONIC HYPOXIA, 12) CIGARETTE SMOKING
Term
25.  4 manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) RIGHT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SLOW AND CAUTIOUS BEHAVIOR, 3) RIGHT VISUAL FIELD DEFECT, 4) EXPRESSIVE, RECEPTIVE OR GLOBAL DYSPHASIA
Term
26.  7 manifestations of a right hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) LEFT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SPATIAL-PERCEPTUAL DEFICITS, 3) IMPULSIVE BEHAVIOR, 4) DISTRACTABILITY, 5) DENIAL, 6) LEFT VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS, 7) PERSEVERATION (REPEATING A WORD OVER AND OVER)
Term
27.  _____ is a medium by which we get transmission of a lot of different systems for the body.
 Definition
BLOOD
Term
28.  The normal blood volume in the human body is _____.
 Definition
5L
Term
29.  _____is the fluid part of blood.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
30.  Plasma makes up _____% of blood.
 Definition
55.00000%
Term
31.  _____ is a measure of albumin acting like a giant sponge that osmotically attracts fluids and holds the fluids together. It is due to the osmotic pressure created by solutes in the fluid.
 Definition
COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE (COP)
Term
32.  Most plasma proteins are manufactured and synthesized by the _____.
 Definition
LIVER
Term
33.  3 causes of ascites.
 Definition
1) LIVER HYPERTENSION, 2) HYPOALBUMINEMEA, 3) EXCESS ALDOSTERONE
Term
34.  Plasma is made up of _____% water, and _____% proteins.
 Definition
91%, 7%
Term
35.  _____ are the antibody making cells in the body.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
36.  _____ are antibodies that are the primary immune responders.
 Definition
IGM
Term
37.  IgM antibodies are responsible for _____.
 Definition
SENSITIZATION
Term
38.  _____ are antibodies that are the secondary immune responders.
 Definition
IGG
Term
39.  _____ are the most abundant immunoglobulin’s in the body.
 Definition
IGG
Term
40.  IgG antibodies respond immediately after _____.
 Definition
SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURES
Term
41.  _____ are antibodies found in allergies and hypersensitivity responses.
 Definition
IGE
Term
42.  _____ are antibodies found in most of bodily fluid secretions.
 Definition
IGA
Term
43.  _____ is the main clotting protein in our blood.
 Definition
FIBRINOGEN
Term
44.  _____ is the total amount of blood cells and blood cell fragments due to the RBC volume and the quantity of red cells.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT VALUE
Term
45.  _____ is another name for hematocrit.
 Definition
PACKED CELL VOLUME (PCV)
Term
46.  A normal person has _____ platelets in their blood stream.
 Definition
250-400 THOUSAND
Term
47.  A normal person has _____ leukocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
5-9 THOUSAND
Term
48.  Men have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
4.2-5 MILLION
Term
49.  Women have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
3-6.5 MILLION
Term
50.  _____ tissue is where RBC’s originate.
 Definition
MYELOID TISSUE (RED BONE MARROW)
Term
51.  During childhood, _____ are RBC producing.
 Definition
ALL BONES
Term
52.  As our bodies mature, the _____ and the _____ are the producers of RBC’s.
 Definition
AXIAL SKELETON, AND THE ENDS OF LONG BONES
Term
53.  _____ are the parent cells of all RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOCYTOBLAST (HEMATOPOETIC STEM CELL)
Term
54.  _____ is an almost mature form of the RBC that has lost its nucleus. They consist of small cells which become biconcave.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE
Term
55.  There are _____ million hemoglobins per erythrocyte.
 Definition
200-300 MILLION
Term
56.  1 molecule of hemoglobin can bind _____ oxygen cells.
 Definition
4
Term
57.  _____ is the process of producing blood cells.
 Definition
HEMATOPOIESIS
Term
58.  _____ is the iron element at the center of the hemoglobin molecule.
 Definition
HEME
Term
59.  _____ is iron deficiency often due to blood loss or nutritional deficiencies.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
60.  The main stimulus for formation of erythrocytes is _____.
 Definition
HYPOXIA
Term
61.  Decreased blood oxygen causes signals to be sent to the kidneys to release _____. This hormone causes an increase in the blood production of RBC in the bone marrow.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIETIN
Term
62.  _____ is red blood cell making that occurs in the ends of long bones.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIESIS
Term
63.  _____ is the inactive form of erythropoiesis formed in the liver.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOITINOGEN
Term
64.  _____ is secreted by the kidney that causes activation of erythropoitinogen.
 Definition
RENAL ERYTHROPOITINOGEN FACTOR (EZ)
Term
65.  _____ is the bone marrow that makes fatty cells used to beef up our bodies systems.
 Definition
YELLOW MARROW
Term
66.  Erythrocytes have an average life span of _____ days.
 Definition
120 DAYS
Term
67.  Erythrocyte breakdown occurs in the _____, and the _____ is the chief cell used to break them down.
 Definition
SPLEEN; MACROPHAGES
Term
68.  Hemoglobin is broken down into _____, which then becomes _____.
 Definition
HEME; BILIRUBIN
Term
69.  Bilirubin is responsible for giving _____ and _____ its color.
 Definition
URINE AND STOOL
Term
70.  _____ coming off from the heme is recycled and reused in the future.
 Definition
IRON
Term
71.  Excess bilirubin in the liver spills out in the skin causing _____.
 Definition
JAUNDICE
Term
72.  Proerythroblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
ERYTHROCYTES
Term
73.  Monoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
74.  Myeloblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
GRANULOCYTES
Term
75.  Lymphoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
76.  Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
PLATELETS
Term
77.  3 types of granulocytes.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS, 2) BASOPHILS, 3) EOSINOPHILS
Term
78.  _____ are the most numerous white blood cells in the body. They are important phagoc ytes in acute inflammation.
 Definition
NEUTROPHILS
Term
79.  Neutrophils stain _____, and have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
LIGHT PURPLE; MULTI-LOBULED NUCLEUS
Term
80.  _____are white blood cells that protect us against infections caused by parasitic worms, and they are involved in allergic reactions.
 Definition
EOSINOPHILS
Term
81.  Eosinophils stain _____, and they have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
ORANGE; 2 LOBE NUCLEUS
Term
82.  _____ are the least common white blood cells that are responsible for secreting heparin.
 Definition
BASOPHILS
Term
83.  Basophils stain _____, and have a _____ nuclei.
 Definition
DARK PURPLE; S-SHAPED
Term
84.  2 different types of agranulocytes.
 Definition
1) LYMPHOCYTES, 2) MONOCYTES
Term
85.  _____ are the second most common WBC’s that play an immunity role defense.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
86.  _____ lymphocytes are regulatory helper and suppressor cells.
 Definition
T-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
87.  _____ lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
88.  Lymphocytes have a _____ stained cytoplasm.
 Definition
BLUE
Term
89.  _____ are key phagocytic agranulocytes that become macrophages in circulation as soon as they leave production.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
90.  _____ is a decrease in the number of white blood cells.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
91.  3 causes of a shift to the left differential.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS RESPONDING TO ACUTE INFLAMMATION, 2) LEUKOCYTOSIS, 3) MORE BAND CELLS IN THE PLASMA
Term
92.  2 causes of a shift to the right differential.
 Definition
1) INCREASED LYMPHOCYTES DURING CHRONIC INFLAMMATION, 2) LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKOCYTOSIS
Term
93.  88% neutrophils causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE LEFT, ACUTE INFLAMMATION
Term
94.  What is an example of a shift to the left?
 Definition
BACTERIAL INFECTION
Term
95.  40% lymphocytes causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE RIGHT, CHRONIC INFLAMMATION
Term
96.  What is an example of a shift to the right?
 Definition
MONONUCLEOSIS
Term
97.  _____ are cell fragments from megakaryocytes.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES (PLATELETS)
Term
98.  Platelets play a major role in _____ and _____, and they are released in response around tissue injury and clump together to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS (STOP BLEEDING) AND COAGULATION
Term
99.  The life span of platelets is typically _____ days.
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
100.                 The normal platelet count is between _____.
 Definition
150-350,000
Term
101.                 _____ is a deficiency in the number of WBC’s.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
102.                 Leukopenia is a common side effect of _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY DRUGS
Term
103.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of neutrophils.
 Definition
NEUTROPENIA
Term
104.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of lymphocytes.
 Definition
LYMPHOPENIA
Term
105.                 _____ is a decrease in the number of platelets (below 100,000 platelets/mm3).
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
106.                 Why do we worry about patients with thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
WE WORRY ABOUT INTERNAL BLEEDING WHEN #’S FALL BELOW 40,000
Term
107.                 What is another name for platelets?
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES
Term
108.                 How are platelets formed?
 Definition
FROM CELL FRAGMENTS OF MEGAKARYOCYTES WHICH COME FROM STEM CELLS
Term
109.                 What is the average life span of platelets?
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
110.                 Red blood cells have surface _____ that have been given classification in the ABO system.
 Definition
ANTIGENS
Term
111.                 Type A blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN A; TYPE B ANTIBODY
Term
112.                 Type B blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN B; TYPE A ANTIBODIES
Term
113.                 Type AB blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGENS A AND B; NO A OR B ANTIBODIES
Term
114.                 Blood type AB is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT
Term
115.                 Type O blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
NO A OR B ANTIGENS; A AND B ANTIBODIES
Term
116.                 Type O blood is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL DONOR
Term
117.                 _____ is when the D-antigen is present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(+)
Term
118.                 _____ is when there is no D-antigen present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(-)
Term
119.                 _____ is when there is a blood transfusion reaction for an RH(-) patient. The first time fused no reaction will occur, but the patient will develop antibodies against the RH factor causing a reaction each subsequent blood transfusion.
 Definition
ABO INCOMPATIBILITY
Term
120.                 _____ is a condition when a RH(-) mother gets pregnant with an RH(+) baby. The mother body creates antibodies against the fetuses blood, causing a destruction of the baby’s erythrocytes.
 Definition
ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS (HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN)
Term
121.                 The dangers of erythroblastosis fetalis increases with _____.
 Definition
EACH SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCY
Term
122.                 _____ is the medication given to the mother with erythroblastosis fetalis. It causes the mothers body to think it has already made antibodies to the D-antigen; fooling the mothers immune system to prevent the in utero attach on the fetus.
 Definition
RHOGAM
Term
123.                 _____ means to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS
Term
124.                 3 ways our bodies perform hemostasis.
 Definition
1) VASCULAR SPASM, 2) PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, 3) FIBRIN FORMATION CAUSING COAGULATION
Term
125.                 _____ agents are direct dissolvers of blood clots.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTIC
Term
126.                 _____ agents are clot prevents and prevent clots from forming, or already formed clots from getting any bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
127.                 _____ is having blood in the stool.
 Definition
MELENA
Term
128.                 Blood clotting factors made in the liver are dependent on _____ for synthesis.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
129.                 _____ is an immediate but temporary closure of a blood vessel resulting from contraction of smooth muscle within the blood vessels wall.
 Definition
VASCULAR SPASM
Term
130.                 Vascular spasms are caused by these 2 bodily mechanisms.
 Definition
1) NERVOUS SYSTEM REFLEXES, 2) CHEMICALS RELEASED FROM PLATELETS DURING FORMATION OF THE PLATELET PLUG
Term
131.                 In small vessels, vascular spasm can close the vessel _____.
 Definition
COMPLETELY
Term
132.                 When a blood vessel is damaged, the endothelium becomes torn and the underlying tissue is exposed. When this happen _____ adhere to the _____ in the connective tissue.
 Definition
PLATELETS; COLLAGEN FIBERS
Term
133.                 When platelets adhere to the collagen fibers in the connective tissue during platelet plug formation, it causes the release of these 4 chemicals.
 Definition
1) ADP, 2) THROMBOXANE, 3) SEROTONIN, 4) CHEMICALS INVOLVED IN COAGULATION
Term
134.                 _____ and _____ are 2 chemicals released by platelets that cause vascular spasm.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE AND SEROTONIN
Term
135.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that makes their surface sticky, so additional platelets adhere to those already attached to the collagen fibers.
 Definition
ADP
Term
136.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that induces the aggregating platelets to release ADP, thromboxane, and other chemicals.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE
Term
137.                 When platelets adhere to each other and release chemicals that cause other platelets to adhere, it forms an accumulating mass called a _____.
 Definition
PLATELET PLUG
Term
138.                 _____ is the formation of a blood clot that consists of a network of fibrin in which blood cells, platelets, and fluid become trapped.
 Definition
COAGULATION
Term
139.                 Coagulation is dependent on coagulation factors present in the _____.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
140.                 3 main stages of coagulation.
 Definition
STAGE 1) ACTIVATION OF FACTOR XII AND PRODUCTION OF PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR; STAGE 2) CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN TO THROMBIN BY PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR FACOR; STAGE 3) ENZYMATIC CONVERSION BY THROMBIN OF SOLUBLE FIBRINOGEN TO INSOLUBLE FIBRIN
Term
141.                 Coagulation operates via both the _____ and _____ pathways.
 Definition
INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC
Term
142.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is turned on by factors that are outside the damaged blood vessel. If surrounding tissues are damages, a domino effect will occur that will form the prothrombin factor.
 Definition
EXTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
143.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is when circulating clotting factors (factor XII) comes in contact with damaged blood vessels that starts a cascade which ends up as prothrombin factor.
 Definition
INTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
144.                 _____ is needed in both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways.
 Definition
CALCIUM
Term
145.                 Once a blood clot forms, it condenses into a denser, compact structure through a process known as _____.
 Definition
CLOT RETRACTION
Term
146.                 As a clot condenses _____ is squeezed out of the clot.
 Definition
SERUM
Term
147.                 Consolidation of clots pull the edges of damaged vessels together, which may help _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
STOP BLOOD FLOW, REDUCE INFECTION, AND ENHANCE HEALING
Term
148.                 A clot usually dissolves within a few days after a clot formation by a process known as _____, which is a natural biochem reaction that occurs when the threat is over and the body returns its tissue to the original structure and function.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS
Term
149.                 3 steps of fibrinolysis.
 Definition
1) PLASMINOGEN IS ACTIVATED BY THROMBIN FACTOR XII, TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR, AND LYSOSOMAL ENZYMES RELEASED FROM DAMAGED TISSUES, 2) PLASMINOGEN FORMS PLASMIN, 3) PLASMIN HYDROLYZES FIBRIN DISSOLVING THE CLOT
Term
150.                 What is the difference between anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents?
 Definition
ANTICOAGULANTS PREVENT FIBRIN FROM FORMING, WHILE THROMBOLITIC AGENTS DISSOLVE FIBRIN OR BUST THE CLOT
Term
151.                 _____ are medications that drive the production of plasmin to bust the clots. They are not anti-coagulants.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTICS/FIBRINOLYTICS
Term
152.                 _____ do not dissolve clots, rather they prevents cots from forming or prevent existing clots from getting bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
153.                 _____ and _____ are common anticoagulant medications.
 Definition
HEPARIN AND COUMADIN
Term
154.                 How does Coumadin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE LIVER BY COMPETING WITH VITAMIN K. SINCE CLOTTING FACTORS ARE DEPENDENT ON VITAMIN K, COUMADIN WILL RESTRICT FIBRIN SYNTHESIS
Term
155.                 If patients eat foods with _____, it can counteract the effects of Coumadin.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
156.                 How does heparin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE PERIPHERY PREVENTING PROTHROMBIN FROM BEING CONVERTED TO THROMBIN
Term
157.                 Heparin takes up to _____hours to work.
 Definition
72 HOURS
Term
158.                 _____ is an antidote for heparin overdose, which is made from fish sperm.
 Definition
PROTAMINE SULFATE
Term
159.                 3 signs of internal bleeding.
 Definition
1) LARGE, DISTENDED HARD ABDOMEN, 2) FLANK PAIN, 3) BLOOD IN STOOL OR URINE
Term
160.                 3 signs of over-coagulation.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) PETECIAL HEMORRHAGES, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DO NOT STOP BLEEDING
Term
161.                 2 coagulation factors found in our body.
 Definition
1) FACTOR I- FIBRINOGEN, 2) FACTOR XII- FIBRIN STABILIZING FACTOR
Term
162.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people taking warfarin/Coumadin.
 Definition
PROTHROMBIN TIME (PT)
Term
163.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people on heparin.
 Definition
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT)
Term
164.                 The normal PTT time is between _____.
 Definition
60-90 SECONDS
Term
165.                 _____ is the standardized clotting times across the globe, it consists of a ration responsible for standardizing everything.
 Definition
INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATION (INR)
Term
166.                 The normal clotting time in the INR is between _____.
 Definition
11-14 SECONDS
Term
167.                 The normal ratio of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
0.8-1.2
Term
168.                 The desirable anticoagulant effect of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
2.0-3.0
Term
169.                 3 components of a complete blood count.
 Definition
1) WBC COUNT, 2) RBC COUNT, 3) PLATELET COUNT
Term
170.                 _____ is a test the counts the actual number of WBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
WBC COUNT
Term
171.                 _____ is a test that determines what types of WBC’s are present in the blood.
 Definition
WHITE BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL
Term
172.                 _____ is a test to determine the actual number of RBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
RBC COUNT
Term
173.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of oxygen carrying protein in the blood.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBIN
Term
174.                 _____ is a test to determine the rate of RBC production.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE COUNT
Term
175.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of space RBC’s take up in the blood.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT
Term
176.                 _____ is a test to determine the number of platelets in a given volume of blood.
 Definition
PLATELET COUNT
Term
177.                 _____ is a test to measure the average size of RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME (MCV)
Term
178.                 MCV is an important in testing for _____.
 Definition
ANEMIAS DUE TO B12 DEFICIENCY
Term
179.                 _____ is a test to calculate the amount of hemoglobin inside of the RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN (MCH)
Term
180.                 _____ is a test to calculate the percentage of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION (MCHC)
Term
181.                 _____ is a test to determine how varied the size of RBC’s are in a sample.
 Definition
RED CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (RDW)
Term
182.                 RDW helps determine the kind of _____ one may have.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
183.                 _____ is the most life threatening skin carcinoma.
 Definition
MELANOMA
Term
184.                 _____ for skin disorders serve as anti-inflammatory agents.
 Definition
CORTICOSTEROIDS
Term
185.                 What is a cubitus ulcer?
 Definition
A BEDSORE (WHEELCHAIR BOUND PATIENT)
Term
186.                 Herpes zoster spreads along the _____.
 Definition
DERMATOMES
Term
187.                 _____ is a condition caused by a low number of circulating red cells, abnormally low number of hemoglobin, or both.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
188.                 3 causes of anemia.
 Definition
1) BLOOD LOSS, 2) LACK OF OXYGEN DELIVERY TO CELLS/TISSUES, 3) DECREASED OXYGEN AFFINITY TO HEMOGLOBIN
Term
189.                 What increased oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin?
 Definition
THE ACTUAL BINDING OF OXYGEN TO THE HEMOGLOBIN
Term
190.                 3 things that decrease oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin.
 Definition
1) BINDING OF CO2 TO HEMOGLOBIN, 2) BINDING OF PROTONS TO SPECIFIC BASIC GROUPS, 3) BINDING OF CERTAIN ORGANIC PHOSPHATES
Term
191.                 _____ anemia is most common in menstruating women.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
192.                 _____ anemia is due to an early destruction of RBC’s due to a pathology.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
193.                 _____ is a major pathology that causes hemolytic anemia.
 Definition
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
Term
194.                 _____ anemia is caused by a vitamin B-12 deficiency.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
195.                 3 different types of nutritional deficiency anemia’s.
 Definition
1) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 2) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 3) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
196.                 _____ anemia is caused by a bone marrow depression causing a lack of adequate production of RBC’s. it is usually accompanied by depressions in other formed elements of the blood.
 Definition
APLASTIC ANEMIA
Term
197.                 9 signs and symptoms of general anemia.
 Definition
1) FATIGUE/WEAKNESS, 2) PALLOR, 3) TACHYCARDIA, 4) ANXIETY, 5) SYSTOLIC MURMUR, 6) VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY, 7) CHF, 8) ERYTHROPOEISIS, 9) ANGINA AND NIGHT CRAMPS
Term
198.                 _____ anemia’s are due to an early destruction of red blood cells either due to extrinsic or intrinsic causes.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS
Term
199.                 _____ is an intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia that is caused by an autosomal trait causing spherical-shaped RBC’s rather than biconcave disc shape.
 Definition
HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS
Term
200.                 In hereditary spherocytosis, the tight spherical shape RBC’s will hemolyze and be _____ early in mass numbers.
 Definition
DESTROYED
Term
201.                 _____ is sometimes used as the treatment of hemolytic anemia’s for adults, but it will not work in children.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
202.                 _____ are conditions inherent to hemoglobin molecules.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBINOPATHIES
Term
203.                 Hemoglobin usually consists of _____ polypeptide chains.
 Definition
4
Term
204.                 Hemoglobinopathies occur when one hemoglobin polypeptide chain is substituted with an _____.
 Definition
AMINO ACID
Term
205.                 Sickle cell anemia is a condition when one of the hemoglobin amino acids is substituted with _____ rather than a polypeptide chain.
 Definition
VALINE
Term
206.                 Sickle cell anemia typically occurs in _____.
 Definition
AFRICAN AMERICANS
Term
207.                 _____ are sickle cells.
 Definition
HBS
Term
208.                 _____ are normal hemoglobin cells.
 Definition
HBN
Term
209.                 Is a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they are carriers for the sickle cell trait.
 Definition
HBS AND HBN
Term
210.                 If a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they will have sickle cell anemia.
 Definition
HBS AND HBS
Term
211.                 Why is sickle cell anemia more dangers in a low oxygen environment.
 Definition
IN LOW OXYGEN ENVIORNMENTS, THE SICKLE HBS BECOMES AN AGGREGATE AND BOWS OUT THE CELL
Term
212.                 A sickling crisis can cause death by leading to _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYSIS AT LOG-JAMMED CAPILLARIES
Term
213.                 Factors that precipitate sickling are related to _____.
 Definition
DEOXYGENATION
Term
214.                 6 low oxygen situations that can lead to sickling.
 Definition
1) EXERCISE, 2) HYPOXIA, 3) ACIDOSIS, 4) DEHYDRATION, 5) INFECTION, 6) REDUCED OXYGEN TENSION IN SLEEP
Term
215.                 5 symptoms of sickle cell crisis.
 Definition
1) SWOLLEN HANDS AND FEET, 2) STROKE, 3) MI, 4) KIDNEY FAILURE, 5) HEMOLYSIS
Term
216.                 What causes the painful crisis of sickle cell?
 Definition
VESSEL OCCLUSION THAT MAY APPEAR SUDDENLY IN ALMOST ANY PART OF THE BODY
Term
217.                 Hemoglobin is composed of _____, which is made up of 4 folded polypeptide chains, and 4 _____.
 Definition
GLOBIN; HEME GROUPS
Term
218.                 Each hemoglobin molecule can carry _____ molecules of oxygen.
 Definition
4
Term
219.                 When hemoglobin is called _____ when carrying oxygen, and _____ when not carrying oxygen.
 Definition
OXYHEMOGLOBIN, REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN
Term
220.                 Hemoglobin can also combine with _____ to transport it from the tissues to the lungs for excretion.
 Definition
CARBON DIOXIDE
Term
221.                 _____ is a condition that results from absent or defective synthesis of either the alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin’s causing a decrease in the size of cells and a change in the MCV (size of RBC).
 Definition
THALASSEMIAS
Term
222.                 _____ is a repeated defect in the beta-chain synthesis of hemoglobin.
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
223.                 B-thalassemias is most common in the _____ population.
 Definition
MEDITERRANEAN
Term
224.                 If a person receives the B-thalassemias trait from both parents it will cause transfusion-dependent anemia leading to death by _____.
 Definition
HEMOCHROMATOSIS (EXCESS IRON)
Term
225.                 6 symptoms present in children with B-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) GROWTH RETARDATION, 2) SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) HEPATOMEGALY, 4) INCREASED RBC DISTRUCTION, 5) INCREASED STIM FOR HEMATOPORIESIS CAUSING BONE MARROW EXPANSION, 6) THINNING OF THE CORTICAL BONE
Term
226.                 A-thalassemias is most common in _____.
 Definition
ASIANS
Term
227.                 Most severe cases of A-thalassemias occurs in _____.
 Definition
NEONATES
Term
228.                 Anemia occurs in A-thalassemias due to _____ and _____.
 Definition
DEFECTIVE HEMOGLOBIN PRODUCTION, ACCUMULATION OF UNPAIRED GLOBIN CHAINS
Term
229.                 What is more severe alpha or beta thalassemias?
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
230.                 Individuals with the mildest form of A-thalassemias are usually _____ having mild _____.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC, MICROCYTOSIS
Term
231.                 The minor form of A-thalassemias is associated with these 4 conditions.
 Definition
1) MILD MICROCYTITC HYPOCHROMIC RETICULOCYTOSIS (IMMATURE RBC’S), 2) BONE MARROW HYPERPLASIA, 3) INCREASED SERUM IRON CONCENTRATION, 4) MODERATE SPLENOMEGALY
Term
232.                 2 factors that cause microcytic-hypochromic anemia in A-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS AND IMBALANCE IN GLOBIN CHAIN PRODUCTION, 2) UNPAIRED CHAINS ACCUMULATE IN RED CELLS CAUSING RBC DESTRUCTION AND ANEMIA
Term
233.                 The most common disorder associated with an inherited enzyme deficiency is _____.
 Definition
G-6-PD (GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHO DEHYDROGENASE)
Term
234.                 G-6-PD causes the direct oxidation of hemoglobin which forms a _____.
 Definition
METHEMOGLOBIN
Term
235.                 3 risk factors of the formation of methemoglobin.
 Definition
1) THE CELL IS NOT FUNCTIONAL, 2) DENATURED HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULE RESULTS, 3) THEY CAN NOT MAKE IT THROUGH THE TIGHT CIRCULATORY AREAS OF THE BODY
Term
236.                 G-6-PD eventually results in _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
237.                 6 extrinsic anemia factors.
 Definition
1) DRUGS, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) TOXINS, 4) ARTIFICIAL MECHANICAL BODY STRUCTURES, 5) BURNS, 6) ANY DIRECT INJURY TO THE RBC’S THEMSELVES
Term
238.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCYTIC
Term
239.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is small.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC
Term
240.                 The most common cause of microcytic RBC’s is _____.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY
Term
241.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is large.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC
Term
242.                 _____ means the color of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCHROMIC
Term
243.                 _____ means there is a decrease in the color of the RBC.
 Definition
HYPOCHROMIC
Term
244.                 These 2 criteria must be met for anemia to be classified as nutritional anemia.
 Definition
1) THERE MUST BE A DEFECIENCY OR LACK OF A NUTRIENT ALONE CAUSING THE ANEMIA, 2) HAVING THE NUTRIENT PROVIDED CORRECTS THE ANEMIA
Term
245.                 4 symptoms associated with nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) PALLOR, 2) WEAKNESS, 3) LETHARGY, 4) HEART RATE ELEVATION
Term
246.                 2 additional symptoms associated with iron deficiency anemias.
 Definition
1) SOARS IN THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH, 2) PICA (EATING DIRT, CLAY OR ICE)
Term
247.                 If blood was drawn in a patient with iron deficiency anemia, the red blood cells would be _____ and _____.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC AND HYPOCHROMIC
Term
248.                 3 classes of nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 2) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 3) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
249.                 _____ is essential for heme, in that each heme unit has one of these molecules at its center to form hemoglobin.
 Definition
IRON
Term
250.                 3 causes of iron deficiency during pregnancy and pre-natal development.
 Definition
1) IF MOM IS IRON DEFICIENT SO IS THE BABY, 2) MOMS WHO ARE IRON DEFICIENT AND BREAST FEED WILL TRANSFER IT TO THE BABY, 3) IF NOT BREAST FEEDING COWS MILK MUST BE IRON FORTIFIED
Term
251.                 What is the main symptom of iron deficiency during the infant/toddler years?
 Definition
PICA (EATING THINGS THAT ARE NOT NORMALLY EDIBLE)
Term
252.                 During the teenage years girls on their _____ and _____ are susceptible to iron deficiency.
 Definition
MENSTRUAL CYCLE, NOT EATING PROPERLY
Term
253.                 The most vulnerable time of iron deficiency in the adult years is during _____.
 Definition
PREGNANCY
Term
254.                 _____ is anemia caused by a lack of vitamin B12/intrinsic factor.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
255.                 Pernicious anemia causes _____ RBC’s as well as _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
256.                 The _____ is necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed in the intestine.
 Definition
INTRINSIC FACTOR
Term
257.                 Patients with pernicious anemia can have these 3 CNS related effects.
 Definition
1) NEUROLOGIC DEGENERATION OF DORSAL AND LATERAL SPINAL COLUMNS, 2) PARASTHESIA, 3) SPASTIC ATAXIA
Term
258.                 Folic acid anemias cause _____ RBC’s and _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
259.                 _____ anemias usually have normal size and color RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC
Term
260.                 3 causes of a shift to the right in the oxygen saturation curve.
 Definition
1) EXERTION, 2) INFECTION (TEMP INCREASE), 3) SURGERY
Term
261.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by dehydration or fluid loss.
 Definition
RELATIVE POLYCYTEMIA
Term
262.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by anything that increases the bone marrow production of RBC’s.
 Definition
SECONDARY POLYCYTHEMIA
Term
263.                 _____ polycythemia is caused by a congenital issue leading to a proliferative disease in the bone marrow causing an accelerated production of RBC’s.
 Definition
PRIMARY POLYCYTHEMIA (POLYCYTHEMIA VERA)
Term
264.                 Polycythemia vera causes _____ blood due to extra RBC’s, and problems arise due to _____.
 Definition
VISCOUS; INCREASED BLOOD VISCOSITY
Term
265.                 The skin of a patient with polycythemia vera will appear _____.
 Definition
BLUISH/PURPLE TO RED
Term
266.                 _____ is the treatment of polycythemia vera.
 Definition
PHILEBOTOMY
Term
267.                 7 conditions associated with polycythemia vera.
 Definition
1) BLOOD CLOTS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) PAINFUL ITCHING SENSATIONS, 4) SLUGGISH BLOOD FLOW, 5) PROBLEMS HEARING AND CONCENTRATING, 6) IRRITABILITY, 7) THROMBOSIS
Term
268.                 Suppressing the bone marrow of polycythemia vera requires _____, which is risky due to the side effects.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
Term
269.                 Polycythemia vera may lead to _____ or _____ due to stagnation and build-up of thick blood.
 Definition
THROMBOSIS, FRANK HEMORRHAGING
Term
270.                 _____ disorders are caused by platelet issues and anything that causes a decrease in platelet production.
 Definition
BLEEDING
Term
271.                 _____ is a condition when there is less than 100,000 platelets in the body.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
272.                 3 mechanisms behind thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) DECREASE IN PLATELET PRODUCTION BY THE BONE MARROW, 2) INCREASED POOLING OF PLATELETS IN THE SPLEEN CAUSING SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) DECREASED PLATELET SURVIVAL
Term
273.                 4 causes of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) VIRAL INFECTIONS, 2) DRUGS, 3) IDIOPATHIC, 4) BONE MARROW PROBLEMS
Term
274.                 3 signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) NOSE BLEEDS, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DON’T STOP BLEEDING
Term
275.                 _____ occurs 1-4 weeks after a viral infection, causing bruising and a generalized petechial rash that often occurs with acute onset.
 Definition
IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPA (ITP)
Term
276.                 4 conditions associated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
1) ASYMMETRICAL BLEEDING FOUND MOST FREQUENTLY COVERING THE LEGS, 2) HEMORRHAGE BULLAE OF THE MUCOUS MEMBRANES, 3) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS), 4) SPONTANEOUS HEMORRHAGES THAT LAST 1-2 WEEKS
Term
277.                 _____ is used to slow down the platelet production in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
278.                 _____ is a condition that begins as a systemic clotting issue that ends up as a bleeding problem secondary to some other event.
 Definition
DISIMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC)
Term
279.                 _____ is the most common cause of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
OBSTERIC COMPLICATIONS
Term
280.                 8 causes of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
1) MASSIVE TRAUMA, 2) BURNS, 3) SEPSIS, 4) SHOCK, 5) MALIGNANT DISEASE, 6) MENONGOCOCCEMIA, 7) OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS, 8) SNAKE BITES
Term
281.                 _____ is a condition associated with disiminated intravascular coagulation that has a very high mortality rate.
 Definition
BLEEDING FROM EVERY ORIFICE
Term
282.                 What is the treatment of disiminated intravascular coagulation?
 Definition
STOP THE UNDERLYING PATHOLOGY AND ADMINISTER HEPARIN TO SUPPLY FRESH COAGULATION FACTORS AND PLATELETS
Term
283.                 _____ is a common bleeding pathology within the body.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA
Term
284.                 _____ is classic hemophilia, which is an x-linked recessive disorder manifesting in males that is transmitted by females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
285.                 Hemophilia A is caused by a defect of _____, which is prevented from participating in the intrinsic clotting pathway.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII
Term
286.                 _____ is the most common hemophilia and accounts for 80-85% of all cases.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
287.                 Thrombin is nor normally found in circulating blood. In order for thrombin to be made in the intrinsic clotting pathway, prothrombin (factor II) requires _____ and _____ to be converted to thrombin.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII; CALCIUM
Term
288.                 _____ is the second most common hemophilia (15%) caused by an x-linked recessive trait that is clinically indistinguishable from a factor VIII deficiency.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA B
Term
289.                 Hemophilia B is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR IX
Term
290.                 Hemophilia B is also referred to as _____.
 Definition
CHRISTMAS DISEASE
Term
291.                 How can a doctor distinguish between hemophila A and B?
 Definition
BLOOD TESTS
Term
292.                 _____ is a hemophilia that results from an autosomal recessive disease that occurs equally in males and females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA C
Term
293.                 Hemophilia C is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR XI
Term
294.                 In patients with hemophilia C, bleeding is usually _____ than in hemophilia A or B.
 Definition
LESS SEVERE
Term
295.                 Hemophilia C does not present at birth, but rather around _____ when clotting factors begin to fail.
 Definition
12 MONTHS
Term
296.                 4 symptoms of patients with hemophilia C.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) BLEEDING GUMS OR JOINTS, 3) BLOOD IN URINE OR STOOL, 4) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS) THAT DO NOT STOP
Term
297.                 _____ is a condition caused by a defect in a different subunit, co-factor, or carrier protein of factor VIII. It is an inherited autosomal dominant trait that is different from hemophilia A.
 Definition
VON WILDEBRAND DISEASE
Term
298.                 In von wilderband disease, rapidly circulating platelets are unable to stick to _____ and _____ cannot be formed.
 Definition
COLLAGEN; PLATELET PLUGS
Term
299.                 What is mainly affected by von wildebrand disease?
 Definition
ENDOTHELIAL CELLS THAT LINE VESSELS
Term
300.                 _____ is the usual treatment of von wildebrand disease, which caused factor VIII activity to increase for several days. It temporarily induced endogenous synthesis of factor VIII.
 Definition
INFUSION OF PLASMA CELLS
Term
301.                 _____ is a life threatening condition that causes a rapid proliferation of immature WBC’s by the bone marrow.
 Definition
LEUKEMIA
Term
302.                 11 endogenous findings associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ABNORMAL PATHOLOGICAL CELLS, 2) EXCESS BONE MARROW PROLIFERATION, 3) REPLACEMENT OF BONE MARROW WITH WBC’S (BONE MARROW DEPRESSION), 4) EXCESS NON-FUNCTIONAL WBC’S IN BLOOD, 5) SPLENOMEGALY, 6) HEPATOMEGALY, 7) LYMPHANDENOAPTHY, 8) WEIGHT LOSS, 9) NIGHT SWEATS, 10) LOW GRADE FEVER, 11) HYPERURICEMIA
Term
303.                 If a patient has leukemia, _____ and _____ will result due to decreased platelet and erythrocyte production.
 Definition
ANEMIA AND BLEEDING
Term
304.                 _____ is present in 90% of all leukemia patients.
 Definition
LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
305.                 6 CNS related conditions associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ENCEPHALOPATHY, 2) MENINGITIS, 3) CRANIAL NERVE PALSIES, 4) BLURRED VISION, 5) HEADACHE, 6) SEIZURES
Term
306.                 The 2 acute forms of leukemia are _____ and _____.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA OR ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
307.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a sudden onset most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 4.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
308.                 In acute lymphocytic leukemia _____ are differentiated poorly.
 Definition
BLAST CELLS
Term
309.                 The onset of acute lymphocytic leukemia is _____.
 Definition
SUDDEN
Term
310.                 _____ accounts for 2/3 of all leukemia cases.
 Definition
ACUT E LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
311.                 6 symptoms associated with acute lymphocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) FEVER, 2) MUSCLE FATIGUE, 3) BLEEDING, 4) BONE PAIN, 5) BONE MARROW DYSFUNCTION, 6) ANEMIA
Term
312.                 More than _____% of children with acute lymphocytic leukemia have complete remission, while _____% of children live 5 years or longer. 90%,
 Definition
50-60%
Term
313.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a low survival rate. It affects all the –phil cells, and symptoms arise abruptly which are similar to those of acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA (ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA)
Term
314.                 _____ is the most common type of leukemia found in adults.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
315.                 Acute myelotic leukemia is treated with intensive chemo to cause _____ of the bone marrow.
 Definition
APLASIA
Term
316.                 Only about _____% of acute myelotic leukemia patients who receive chemo will achieve long-term disease free survival.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
317.                 The more _____ a cell, the more malignant they can become and lead to a more progressive cancer.
 Definition
UNDIFFERENTIATED
Term
318.                 These are the 2 types of chronic leukemia’s.
 Definition
1) CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA, 2) CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
319.                 _____ is a form of chronic leukemia that is often a disorder in older adults between the ages of 50-70. The disease consists of slightly differentiated cells which causes the disease to progress _____.
 Definition
CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; SLOWLY
Term
320.                 Is chronic lymphocytic leukemia more common in men or women?
 Definition
MEN
Term
321.                 Unlike acute lymphocytic leukemia, in chronic lymphocytic leukemia the chronic cells are more _____ and easily identifiable.
 Definition
DIFFERENTIATED
Term
322.                 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells develops _____, but _____ are affected.
 Definition
SLOWLY; MORE CELLS
Term
323.                 Patients with chronic lymphocytic anemia are usually diagnosed when they are _____, and they life expectancy is _____ than those patients with acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC; LONGER
Term
324.                 _____ is a chronic form of leukemia that occurs in patients between the ages of 30-50.
 Definition
CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
325.                 In chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia, bone marrow cells have the _____ chromosome that occurs in mitotic error with a shortened arm on chromosome _____.
 Definition
PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME; CHROMOSOME 22
Term
326.                 Chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients are often _____ when diagnosed.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC
Term
327.                 About _____% of chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients enter an accelerated phase characteristic of acute leukemia which leads to _____ survival rates.
 Definition
LOW
Term
328.                 13 symptoms associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) SPLENOMEAGALY, 2) IMMATURE LEUKOCYTES, 3) HIGH WBC COUNT, 4) ANEMIA, 5) THROMBOCYTOPENIA, 6) WEAKNESS, 7) FATIGUE, 8) DYSPNEA, 9) LOW GRADE FEVER, 10) NIGHT SWEATS, 11) WEIGHT LOSS, 12) HEPATOMEGALY, 13) LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
329.                 4 caused associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemias.
 Definition
1) RADIATION, 2) CHEMICALS LIKE BENZENE, 3) TWINS, 4) ANIMALS
Term
330.                 _____ are cancers of WBC’s (lymphocytes).
 Definition
LYMPHOMAS
Term
331.                 _____ is a malignant disorder or lymphoid tissue that constitutes 40% of all malignant lymphomas seen in younger adults between the ages of 20-40.
 Definition
HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
332.                 In hodgkins lymphoma, lymphoid tissue is characterized by the presence of _____ upon biopsy.
 Definition
REED-STERNBURG CELLS
Term
333.                 Manifestations of hogdkins lymphoma are due to rapid proliferation of abnormal _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
334.                 Hodgkins lymphoma often begins in lymph tissue above the _____, which usually sends people to see the doctor.
 Definition
DIAPHRAGM
Term
335.                 10 symptoms associated with hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) PAINLESS ENLARGEMENT OF LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) SPLENOMEGALY, 3) FEVER, 4) NIGHT SWEATS, 5) WEIGHT LOSS, 6) FATIGUE, 7) PURITIS, 8) WEAKENED IMMUNE SYSTEM, 9) INCREASED WBC COUNT, 10) AFFECTED LIVER, LUNGS, DIGESTIVE TRACT AND CNS
Term
336.                 7 medical tests used to identify hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) LYMPH NODE BIOPSY, 2) CT SCANS OF ABDOMEN AND PELVIC LYMPH NODES, 3) LYMPHANGIOGRAPHY, 4) LAPAROTOMY, 5) LIVER BIOPSY, 6) BONE MARROW BIOPSY, 7) X RAYS AND LAB WORK
Term
337.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, a single lymph node or single extralymphatic region is affected.
 Definition
CLASS I
Term
338.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS II
Term
339.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS III
Term
340.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is diffused or disseminated involvement of lymph nodes.
 Definition
CLASS IV
Term
341.                 The incidence rate of hodgkins lymphoma is _____ cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
7500, 1500
Term
342.                 _____ is a type of lymphoma that typically affects immune suppressed people over the age of 50, which could be virus related. It consists of a group of neoplastic disorders of lymphoid tissue not characterized by reed-sternberg cells.
 Definition
NON-HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
343.                 In patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma, there is early involvement of the lymph nodes in the _____ area.
 Definition
OROPHARYNGEAL
Term
344.                 There is less than _____% chance of curability of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
345.                 Non-hodgkins lymphomas are divided into 3 main groups according to the cell types involved which are _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
B CELL, T CELL AND MIXED
Term
346.                 The diagnosis of non-hodgkins lymphoma is through a _____.
 Definition
LYMPH NODE BIOPSY
Term
347.                 4 signs and symptoms of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) EARLY INVOLVELENT OF OROPHARYNGEAL LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) CONSTITUTIONAL SIGNS, 3) LEUKEMIC TRANSFORMATIONS WITH HIGH NUMBERS OF WBC’S, 4) INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY TO INFECTIONS
Term
348.                 The incidence rate of non-hodgkins lymphoma is _____ new cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
15,000; 13,000
Term
350.                 _____ is a condition that consists of bone tumors of B-lymphocytes commonly affecting people between the ages of 50 and 60.
 Definition
MULTIPLE MYELOMA
Term
351.                 Multiple myelomas causing B-cell neoplasms leads to an excess production of _____ and _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS
Term
352.                 Multiple myeloma affecting B-cells can be detectable by _____ of the long bones, sternum, or skull.
 Definition
X-RAYS
Term
353.                 Multiple myeloma is characterized by multiple malignant tumor masses of _____ scattered throughout the skeletal system and sometimes soft tissues.
 Definition
PLASMA CELLS
Term
354.                 Incidence of multiple myelomas is _____ times greater than all other malignant tumors of the bone combined.
 Definition
3X
Term
355.                 Chronic stimulation of the mononuclear phagocytic system by these 3 things have been proposed causes of multiple myelomas.
 Definition
1) BACTERIA, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) VIRUSES
Term
356.                 In the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma, _____ arise from 1 clone of B-cells that produce abnormally large amounts of _____.
 Definition
MALIGNANT PLASMA CELLS; CLASS 1 IMMUNOGLOBULINS (IgG)
Term
357.                 Laboratory examinations of the bone marrow of patients with multiple myeloma shows proliferation of _____ and _____ cells with 20% or more having multinucleated cytoplasms containing multiple immunoglobulins (whits blobs). These cells often completely replace _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS; BONE MARROW
Term
358.                 _____ proteins, which are fragments of IgG/A are present in the urine and blood of over 60% of patients with multiple myeloma.
 Definition
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
Term
359.                 Bence jones proteins are proliferations of the _____.
 Definition
LIGHT CHAINS OF IMMUNOGLOBULINS (M-CHAIN)
Term
360.                 In multiple myeloma patients, there is a higher frequency of _____ correlated with the amount of protein found in urine, since the excreted light chains are through to be toxin to the renal tubules.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
361.                 The malignant neoplasm of multiple myeloma usually does not metastasize outside of the _____, rather the destructive lesions typically erode the _____ and cause _____ that are observable on radiographs.
 Definition
BONE; BONE; LYTIC LESIONS
Term
362.                 Lytic lesions of multiple myeloma patients are most frequently visualized in these 7 places.
 Definition
1) VERTEBRAL COLUMN, 2) RIBS, 3) SKULL, 4) PELVIS, 5) FEMUR, 6) CLAVICLE, 7) SCAPULA
Term
363.                 In multiple myeloma patients, pathological _____ usually occur in the areas with the lytic lesions, especially in the weigh bearing regions.
 Definition
FRACTURES
Term
364.                 In multiple myeloma, calcium metabolism is usually abnormal resulting in elevated _____, because of _____.
 Definition
SERUM CALCIUM LEVELS; PLASMA CELL PROLIFERATION
Term
365.                 Multiple myeloma patients often experience _____ and _____ anemia with variable depression of _____ and _____ counts.
 Definition
NOMOCYTIC AND NONOCHROMIC ANEMIA; WBC AND PLATELET COUNTS
Term
366.                 The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma is _____ or _____ pain, as well as _____.
 Definition
BONE OR BACK PAIN; COMPRESSION FRACTURES
Term
367.                 _____ and _____ may be caused by the secondary anemia of multiple myeloma.
 Definition
PALLOR; WEAKNESS
Term
368.                 Survival rates of multiple myeloma patients are generally poor, and rely largely on the persons response to _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
Term
1.     _____ is idiopathic high blood pressure that usually goes undetected due to a lack of symptoms.
 Definition
PRIMARY/ESSENTIAL HYPERTENSION
Term
2.     Primary/essential hypertension represents _____% of hypertension cases.
 Definition
90.00000%
Term
3.     4 causes of secondary hypertension.
 Definition
1) CUSHINGS DISEASE, 3) PRIMARY ALDOSTERONISM, 3) PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA, 4) COARCTATION OF THE AORTA
Term
4.     9 risk factors of hypertension.
 Definition
1) FAMILY HISTORY, 2) AGE, 3) MALE GENDER, 4) BLACK RACE, 5) OBESITY, 6) HIGH SODIUM DIET, 7) GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE, 8) SMOKING, 9) HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION
Term
5.     What is the best way to diagnose hypertension. .
 Definition
TAKE BP AT THE SAME TIME OF DAY AND RECORD IT OVER A PERIOD OF DAYS
Term
6.     If one has hypertension, there will be ophthalmic changes in the _____ of the eyes.
 Definition
VASCULAR BEDS
Term
7.     _____ is thong term effect of hypertension, so we should run kidney function tests when one presents with hypertension.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
8.     If one has hypertension, there will be a _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
LARGE R WAVE
Term
9.     7 steps in the pathyphysiology of hypertension.
 Definition
1) HYPERTENSION DAMAGES THE WALLS OF THE SYSTEMIC VESSELS, 2) PROLONGED VASOCONSTRICTION AND HIGH PRESSURE CAUSES THE VESSELS TO THICKEN, 3) ARTERIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE UNDERGOES HYPERTROPHY, 4) TUNICA INTIMA AND MEDIA UNDERGO FIBROMUSCULAR THICKENING LEADING TO NARROWING OF THE LUMEN, 5) VESSELS BECOME PERMANENTLY NARROWED, 6) HYPERTENSIVE INJURY CAUSES INFLAMMATION TO INCREASE THE PERMEABILITY OF THE VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM, 7) AS PERMEABILITY INCREASES MORE IONS ENTER THE VESSEL WALLS CAUSING FURTHER THICKENING
Term
10.  When _____ occur, hypertension is usually far advanced.
 Definition
SYMPTOMS
Term
11.  7 manifestations of hypertension.
 Definition
1) UNSTEADINESS, 2) WALKING HEADACHE, 3) BLURRED VISION, 4) DEPRESSION, 5) RENAL DYSFUNCTION, 6) RETINAL CHANGES, 7) SIGNS OF VENTRICULAR FAILURE SUCH AS DYSPNEA OR EXERTION
Term
12.  4 hypertensive death related causes.
 Definition
1) STROKE, 2) MI, 3) RENAL FAILURE, 4) ENCEPHALOPATHY
Term
13.  _____ is a CVA when a blood clot lodges in a vessel leading to ischemic hypoxia.
 Definition
THROMBOTIC
Term
14.  _____ is a CVA when a clot comes from a far away source.
 Definition
EMBOLIC STROKE
Term
15.  _____ is a CVA caused by bleeding.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
16.  Hypertension is the primary cause of _____ strokes.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
17.  _____ are small stroke like incidents that last 10 minutes or less. It leads to a loss in a patients senses.
 Definition
TIA (TRANSIENT ISCHEMIC ATTACK)
Term
18.  If one has a TIA, a patient will experience these 2 symptoms.
 Definition
1) BRUITS, 2) THEY WILL SEE FLOATERS
Term
19.  For something to be diagnosed as a stroke, symptoms must remain for _____ hours.
 Definition
24 HOURS
Term
20.  If a patient has a thrombotic stroke, _____ can be administered to bust out the clot that’s blocking the brain, and restore blood flow. This is able to completely resolve the stroke leading too complications.
 Definition
THRMBOLYTICS
Term
21.  Strokes tame time to _____ to completion. It might not look severe at first, but the next day the patient could look much worse.
 Definition
EVOLVE
Term
22.  Once a patient has completed a stoke they should work on _____ as quick as possible.
 Definition
REHAB
Term
23.  _____ and _____ are 2 agents used to treat thrombotic and embolic strokes. They must not be administered to a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke because they will bleed to death.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS AND FIBRINOLYTIC AGENTS
Term
24.  13 risk factors of cerebrovascular disease.
 Definition
1) ATHEROSCLEROSIS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) HIGH CHOLESTEROL, 4) FAMILY HISTORY, 5) OBESITY, 6) SEDENTARY LIFESTYLE, 7) ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, 8) SMOKING, 9) COAGULATION DISORDERS, 10) DEHYDRATION, 11) CHRONIC HYPOXIA, 12) CIGARETTE SMOKING
Term
25.  4 manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) RIGHT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SLOW AND CAUTIOUS BEHAVIOR, 3) RIGHT VISUAL FIELD DEFECT, 4) EXPRESSIVE, RECEPTIVE OR GLOBAL DYSPHASIA
Term
26.  7 manifestations of a right hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) LEFT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SPATIAL-PERCEPTUAL DEFICITS, 3) IMPULSIVE BEHAVIOR, 4) DISTRACTABILITY, 5) DENIAL, 6) LEFT VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS, 7) PERSEVERATION (REPEATING A WORD OVER AND OVER)
Term
27.  _____ is a medium by which we get transmission of a lot of different systems for the body.
 Definition
BLOOD
Term
28.  The normal blood volume in the human body is _____.
 Definition
5L
Term
29.  _____is the fluid part of blood.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
30.  Plasma makes up _____% of blood.
 Definition
55.00000%
Term
31.  _____ is a measure of albumin acting like a giant sponge that osmotically attracts fluids and holds the fluids together. It is due to the osmotic pressure created by solutes in the fluid.
 Definition
COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE (COP)
Term
32.  Most plasma proteins are manufactured and synthesized by the _____.
 Definition
LIVER
Term
33.  3 causes of ascites.
 Definition
1) LIVER HYPERTENSION, 2) HYPOALBUMINEMEA, 3) EXCESS ALDOSTERONE
Term
34.  Plasma is made up of _____% water, and _____% proteins.
 Definition
91%, 7%
Term
35.  _____ are the antibody making cells in the body.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
36.  _____ are antibodies that are the primary immune responders.
 Definition
IGM
Term
37.  IgM antibodies are responsible for _____.
 Definition
SENSITIZATION
Term
38.  _____ are antibodies that are the secondary immune responders.
 Definition
IGG
Term
39.  _____ are the most abundant immunoglobulin’s in the body.
 Definition
IGG
Term
40.  IgG antibodies respond immediately after _____.
 Definition
SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURES
Term
41.  _____ are antibodies found in allergies and hypersensitivity responses.
 Definition
IGE
Term
42.  _____ are antibodies found in most of bodily fluid secretions.
 Definition
IGA
Term
43.  _____ is the main clotting protein in our blood.
 Definition
FIBRINOGEN
Term
44.  _____ is the total amount of blood cells and blood cell fragments due to the RBC volume and the quantity of red cells.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT VALUE
Term
45.  _____ is another name for hematocrit.
 Definition
PACKED CELL VOLUME (PCV)
Term
46.  A normal person has _____ platelets in their blood stream.
 Definition
250-400 THOUSAND
Term
47.  A normal person has _____ leukocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
5-9 THOUSAND
Term
48.  Men have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
4.2-5 MILLION
Term
49.  Women have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
3-6.5 MILLION
Term
50.  _____ tissue is where RBC’s originate.
 Definition
MYELOID TISSUE (RED BONE MARROW)
Term
51.  During childhood, _____ are RBC producing.
 Definition
ALL BONES
Term
52.  As our bodies mature, the _____ and the _____ are the producers of RBC’s.
 Definition
AXIAL SKELETON, AND THE ENDS OF LONG BONES
Term
53.  _____ are the parent cells of all RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOCYTOBLAST (HEMATOPOETIC STEM CELL)
Term
54.  _____ is an almost mature form of the RBC that has lost its nucleus. They consist of small cells which become biconcave.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE
Term
55.  There are _____ million hemoglobins per erythrocyte.
 Definition
200-300 MILLION
Term
56.  1 molecule of hemoglobin can bind _____ oxygen cells.
 Definition
4
Term
57.  _____ is the process of producing blood cells.
 Definition
HEMATOPOIESIS
Term
58.  _____ is the iron element at the center of the hemoglobin molecule.
 Definition
HEME
Term
59.  _____ is iron deficiency often due to blood loss or nutritional deficiencies.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
60.  The main stimulus for formation of erythrocytes is _____.
 Definition
HYPOXIA
Term
61.  Decreased blood oxygen causes signals to be sent to the kidneys to release _____. This hormone causes an increase in the blood production of RBC in the bone marrow.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIETIN
Term
62.  _____ is red blood cell making that occurs in the ends of long bones.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIESIS
Term
63.  _____ is the inactive form of erythropoiesis formed in the liver.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOITINOGEN
Term
64.  _____ is secreted by the kidney that causes activation of erythropoitinogen.
 Definition
RENAL ERYTHROPOITINOGEN FACTOR (EZ)
Term
65.  _____ is the bone marrow that makes fatty cells used to beef up our bodies systems.
 Definition
YELLOW MARROW
Term
66.  Erythrocytes have an average life span of _____ days.
 Definition
120 DAYS
Term
67.  Erythrocyte breakdown occurs in the _____, and the _____ is the chief cell used to break them down.
 Definition
SPLEEN; MACROPHAGES
Term
68.  Hemoglobin is broken down into _____, which then becomes _____.
 Definition
HEME; BILIRUBIN
Term
69.  Bilirubin is responsible for giving _____ and _____ its color.
 Definition
URINE AND STOOL
Term
70.  _____ coming off from the heme is recycled and reused in the future.
 Definition
IRON
Term
71.  Excess bilirubin in the liver spills out in the skin causing _____.
 Definition
JAUNDICE
Term
72.  Proerythroblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
ERYTHROCYTES
Term
73.  Monoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
74.  Myeloblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
GRANULOCYTES
Term
75.  Lymphoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
76.  Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
PLATELETS
Term
77.  3 types of granulocytes.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS, 2) BASOPHILS, 3) EOSINOPHILS
Term
78.  _____ are the most numerous white blood cells in the body. They are important phagoc ytes in acute inflammation.
 Definition
NEUTROPHILS
Term
79.  Neutrophils stain _____, and have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
LIGHT PURPLE; MULTI-LOBULED NUCLEUS
Term
80.  _____are white blood cells that protect us against infections caused by parasitic worms, and they are involved in allergic reactions.
 Definition
EOSINOPHILS
Term
81.  Eosinophils stain _____, and they have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
ORANGE; 2 LOBE NUCLEUS
Term
82.  _____ are the least common white blood cells that are responsible for secreting heparin.
 Definition
BASOPHILS
Term
83.  Basophils stain _____, and have a _____ nuclei.
 Definition
DARK PURPLE; S-SHAPED
Term
84.  2 different types of agranulocytes.
 Definition
1) LYMPHOCYTES, 2) MONOCYTES
Term
85.  _____ are the second most common WBC’s that play an immunity role defense.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
86.  _____ lymphocytes are regulatory helper and suppressor cells.
 Definition
T-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
87.  _____ lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
88.  Lymphocytes have a _____ stained cytoplasm.
 Definition
BLUE
Term
89.  _____ are key phagocytic agranulocytes that become macrophages in circulation as soon as they leave production.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
90.  _____ is a decrease in the number of white blood cells.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
91.  3 causes of a shift to the left differential.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS RESPONDING TO ACUTE INFLAMMATION, 2) LEUKOCYTOSIS, 3) MORE BAND CELLS IN THE PLASMA
Term
92.  2 causes of a shift to the right differential.
 Definition
1) INCREASED LYMPHOCYTES DURING CHRONIC INFLAMMATION, 2) LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKOCYTOSIS
Term
93.  88% neutrophils causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE LEFT, ACUTE INFLAMMATION
Term
94.  What is an example of a shift to the left?
 Definition
BACTERIAL INFECTION
Term
95.  40% lymphocytes causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE RIGHT, CHRONIC INFLAMMATION
Term
96.  What is an example of a shift to the right?
 Definition
MONONUCLEOSIS
Term
97.  _____ are cell fragments from megakaryocytes.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES (PLATELETS)
Term
98.  Platelets play a major role in _____ and _____, and they are released in response around tissue injury and clump together to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS (STOP BLEEDING) AND COAGULATION
Term
99.  The life span of platelets is typically _____ days.
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
100.                 The normal platelet count is between _____.
 Definition
150-350,000
Term
101.                 _____ is a deficiency in the number of WBC’s.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
102.                 Leukopenia is a common side effect of _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY DRUGS
Term
103.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of neutrophils.
 Definition
NEUTROPENIA
Term
104.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of lymphocytes.
 Definition
LYMPHOPENIA
Term
105.                 _____ is a decrease in the number of platelets (below 100,000 platelets/mm3).
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
106.                 Why do we worry about patients with thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
WE WORRY ABOUT INTERNAL BLEEDING WHEN #’S FALL BELOW 40,000
Term
107.                 What is another name for platelets?
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES
Term
108.                 How are platelets formed?
 Definition
FROM CELL FRAGMENTS OF MEGAKARYOCYTES WHICH COME FROM STEM CELLS
Term
109.                 What is the average life span of platelets?
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
110.                 Red blood cells have surface _____ that have been given classification in the ABO system.
 Definition
ANTIGENS
Term
111.                 Type A blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN A; TYPE B ANTIBODY
Term
112.                 Type B blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN B; TYPE A ANTIBODIES
Term
113.                 Type AB blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGENS A AND B; NO A OR B ANTIBODIES
Term
114.                 Blood type AB is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT
Term
115.                 Type O blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
NO A OR B ANTIGENS; A AND B ANTIBODIES
Term
116.                 Type O blood is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL DONOR
Term
117.                 _____ is when the D-antigen is present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(+)
Term
118.                 _____ is when there is no D-antigen present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(-)
Term
119.                 _____ is when there is a blood transfusion reaction for an RH(-) patient. The first time fused no reaction will occur, but the patient will develop antibodies against the RH factor causing a reaction each subsequent blood transfusion.
 Definition
ABO INCOMPATIBILITY
Term
120.                 _____ is a condition when a RH(-) mother gets pregnant with an RH(+) baby. The mother body creates antibodies against the fetuses blood, causing a destruction of the baby’s erythrocytes.
 Definition
ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS (HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN)
Term
121.                 The dangers of erythroblastosis fetalis increases with _____.
 Definition
EACH SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCY
Term
122.                 _____ is the medication given to the mother with erythroblastosis fetalis. It causes the mothers body to think it has already made antibodies to the D-antigen; fooling the mothers immune system to prevent the in utero attach on the fetus.
 Definition
RHOGAM
Term
123.                 _____ means to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS
Term
124.                 3 ways our bodies perform hemostasis.
 Definition
1) VASCULAR SPASM, 2) PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, 3) FIBRIN FORMATION CAUSING COAGULATION
Term
125.                 _____ agents are direct dissolvers of blood clots.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTIC
Term
126.                 _____ agents are clot prevents and prevent clots from forming, or already formed clots from getting any bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
127.                 _____ is having blood in the stool.
 Definition
MELENA
Term
128.                 Blood clotting factors made in the liver are dependent on _____ for synthesis.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
129.                 _____ is an immediate but temporary closure of a blood vessel resulting from contraction of smooth muscle within the blood vessels wall.
 Definition
VASCULAR SPASM
Term
130.                 Vascular spasms are caused by these 2 bodily mechanisms.
 Definition
1) NERVOUS SYSTEM REFLEXES, 2) CHEMICALS RELEASED FROM PLATELETS DURING FORMATION OF THE PLATELET PLUG
Term
131.                 In small vessels, vascular spasm can close the vessel _____.
 Definition
COMPLETELY
Term
132.                 When a blood vessel is damaged, the endothelium becomes torn and the underlying tissue is exposed. When this happen _____ adhere to the _____ in the connective tissue.
 Definition
PLATELETS; COLLAGEN FIBERS
Term
133.                 When platelets adhere to the collagen fibers in the connective tissue during platelet plug formation, it causes the release of these 4 chemicals.
 Definition
1) ADP, 2) THROMBOXANE, 3) SEROTONIN, 4) CHEMICALS INVOLVED IN COAGULATION
Term
134.                 _____ and _____ are 2 chemicals released by platelets that cause vascular spasm.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE AND SEROTONIN
Term
135.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that makes their surface sticky, so additional platelets adhere to those already attached to the collagen fibers.
 Definition
ADP
Term
136.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that induces the aggregating platelets to release ADP, thromboxane, and other chemicals.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE
Term
137.                 When platelets adhere to each other and release chemicals that cause other platelets to adhere, it forms an accumulating mass called a _____.
 Definition
PLATELET PLUG
Term
138.                 _____ is the formation of a blood clot that consists of a network of fibrin in which blood cells, platelets, and fluid become trapped.
 Definition
COAGULATION
Term
139.                 Coagulation is dependent on coagulation factors present in the _____.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
140.                 3 main stages of coagulation.
 Definition
STAGE 1) ACTIVATION OF FACTOR XII AND PRODUCTION OF PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR; STAGE 2) CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN TO THROMBIN BY PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR FACOR; STAGE 3) ENZYMATIC CONVERSION BY THROMBIN OF SOLUBLE FIBRINOGEN TO INSOLUBLE FIBRIN
Term
141.                 Coagulation operates via both the _____ and _____ pathways.
 Definition
INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC
Term
142.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is turned on by factors that are outside the damaged blood vessel. If surrounding tissues are damages, a domino effect will occur that will form the prothrombin factor.
 Definition
EXTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
143.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is when circulating clotting factors (factor XII) comes in contact with damaged blood vessels that starts a cascade which ends up as prothrombin factor.
 Definition
INTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
144.                 _____ is needed in both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways.
 Definition
CALCIUM
Term
145.                 Once a blood clot forms, it condenses into a denser, compact structure through a process known as _____.
 Definition
CLOT RETRACTION
Term
146.                 As a clot condenses _____ is squeezed out of the clot.
 Definition
SERUM
Term
147.                 Consolidation of clots pull the edges of damaged vessels together, which may help _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
STOP BLOOD FLOW, REDUCE INFECTION, AND ENHANCE HEALING
Term
148.                 A clot usually dissolves within a few days after a clot formation by a process known as _____, which is a natural biochem reaction that occurs when the threat is over and the body returns its tissue to the original structure and function.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS
Term
149.                 3 steps of fibrinolysis.
 Definition
1) PLASMINOGEN IS ACTIVATED BY THROMBIN FACTOR XII, TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR, AND LYSOSOMAL ENZYMES RELEASED FROM DAMAGED TISSUES, 2) PLASMINOGEN FORMS PLASMIN, 3) PLASMIN HYDROLYZES FIBRIN DISSOLVING THE CLOT
Term
150.                 What is the difference between anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents?
 Definition
ANTICOAGULANTS PREVENT FIBRIN FROM FORMING, WHILE THROMBOLITIC AGENTS DISSOLVE FIBRIN OR BUST THE CLOT
Term
151.                 _____ are medications that drive the production of plasmin to bust the clots. They are not anti-coagulants.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTICS/FIBRINOLYTICS
Term
152.                 _____ do not dissolve clots, rather they prevents cots from forming or prevent existing clots from getting bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
153.                 _____ and _____ are common anticoagulant medications.
 Definition
HEPARIN AND COUMADIN
Term
154.                 How does Coumadin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE LIVER BY COMPETING WITH VITAMIN K. SINCE CLOTTING FACTORS ARE DEPENDENT ON VITAMIN K, COUMADIN WILL RESTRICT FIBRIN SYNTHESIS
Term
155.                 If patients eat foods with _____, it can counteract the effects of Coumadin.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
156.                 How does heparin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE PERIPHERY PREVENTING PROTHROMBIN FROM BEING CONVERTED TO THROMBIN
Term
157.                 Heparin takes up to _____hours to work.
 Definition
72 HOURS
Term
158.                 _____ is an antidote for heparin overdose, which is made from fish sperm.
 Definition
PROTAMINE SULFATE
Term
159.                 3 signs of internal bleeding.
 Definition
1) LARGE, DISTENDED HARD ABDOMEN, 2) FLANK PAIN, 3) BLOOD IN STOOL OR URINE
Term
160.                 3 signs of over-coagulation.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) PETECIAL HEMORRHAGES, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DO NOT STOP BLEEDING
Term
161.                 2 coagulation factors found in our body.
 Definition
1) FACTOR I- FIBRINOGEN, 2) FACTOR XII- FIBRIN STABILIZING FACTOR
Term
162.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people taking warfarin/Coumadin.
 Definition
PROTHROMBIN TIME (PT)
Term
163.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people on heparin.
 Definition
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT)
Term
164.                 The normal PTT time is between _____.
 Definition
60-90 SECONDS
Term
165.                 _____ is the standardized clotting times across the globe, it consists of a ration responsible for standardizing everything.
 Definition
INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATION (INR)
Term
166.                 The normal clotting time in the INR is between _____.
 Definition
11-14 SECONDS
Term
167.                 The normal ratio of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
0.8-1.2
Term
168.                 The desirable anticoagulant effect of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
2.0-3.0
Term
169.                 3 components of a complete blood count.
 Definition
1) WBC COUNT, 2) RBC COUNT, 3) PLATELET COUNT
Term
170.                 _____ is a test the counts the actual number of WBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
WBC COUNT
Term
171.                 _____ is a test that determines what types of WBC’s are present in the blood.
 Definition
WHITE BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL
Term
172.                 _____ is a test to determine the actual number of RBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
RBC COUNT
Term
173.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of oxygen carrying protein in the blood.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBIN
Term
174.                 _____ is a test to determine the rate of RBC production.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE COUNT
Term
175.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of space RBC’s take up in the blood.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT
Term
176.                 _____ is a test to determine the number of platelets in a given volume of blood.
 Definition
PLATELET COUNT
Term
177.                 _____ is a test to measure the average size of RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME (MCV)
Term
178.                 MCV is an important in testing for _____.
 Definition
ANEMIAS DUE TO B12 DEFICIENCY
Term
179.                 _____ is a test to calculate the amount of hemoglobin inside of the RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN (MCH)
Term
180.                 _____ is a test to calculate the percentage of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION (MCHC)
Term
181.                 _____ is a test to determine how varied the size of RBC’s are in a sample.
 Definition
RED CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (RDW)
Term
182.                 RDW helps determine the kind of _____ one may have.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
183.                 _____ is the most life threatening skin carcinoma.
 Definition
MELANOMA
Term
184.                 _____ for skin disorders serve as anti-inflammatory agents.
 Definition
CORTICOSTEROIDS
Term
185.                 What is a cubitus ulcer?
 Definition
A BEDSORE (WHEELCHAIR BOUND PATIENT)
Term
186.                 Herpes zoster spreads along the _____.
 Definition
DERMATOMES
Term
187.                 _____ is a condition caused by a low number of circulating red cells, abnormally low number of hemoglobin, or both.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
188.                 3 causes of anemia.
 Definition
1) BLOOD LOSS, 2) LACK OF OXYGEN DELIVERY TO CELLS/TISSUES, 3) DECREASED OXYGEN AFFINITY TO HEMOGLOBIN
Term
189.                 What increased oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin?
 Definition
THE ACTUAL BINDING OF OXYGEN TO THE HEMOGLOBIN
Term
190.                 3 things that decrease oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin.
 Definition
1) BINDING OF CO2 TO HEMOGLOBIN, 2) BINDING OF PROTONS TO SPECIFIC BASIC GROUPS, 3) BINDING OF CERTAIN ORGANIC PHOSPHATES
Term
191.                 _____ anemia is most common in menstruating women.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
192.                 _____ anemia is due to an early destruction of RBC’s due to a pathology.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
193.                 _____ is a major pathology that causes hemolytic anemia.
 Definition
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
Term
194.                 _____ anemia is caused by a vitamin B-12 deficiency.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
195.                 3 different types of nutritional deficiency anemia’s.
 Definition
1) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 2) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 3) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
196.                 _____ anemia is caused by a bone marrow depression causing a lack of adequate production of RBC’s. it is usually accompanied by depressions in other formed elements of the blood.
 Definition
APLASTIC ANEMIA
Term
197.                 9 signs and symptoms of general anemia.
 Definition
1) FATIGUE/WEAKNESS, 2) PALLOR, 3) TACHYCARDIA, 4) ANXIETY, 5) SYSTOLIC MURMUR, 6) VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY, 7) CHF, 8) ERYTHROPOEISIS, 9) ANGINA AND NIGHT CRAMPS
Term
198.                 _____ anemia’s are due to an early destruction of red blood cells either due to extrinsic or intrinsic causes.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS
Term
199.                 _____ is an intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia that is caused by an autosomal trait causing spherical-shaped RBC’s rather than biconcave disc shape.
 Definition
HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS
Term
200.                 In hereditary spherocytosis, the tight spherical shape RBC’s will hemolyze and be _____ early in mass numbers.
 Definition
DESTROYED
Term
201.                 _____ is sometimes used as the treatment of hemolytic anemia’s for adults, but it will not work in children.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
202.                 _____ are conditions inherent to hemoglobin molecules.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBINOPATHIES
Term
203.                 Hemoglobin usually consists of _____ polypeptide chains.
 Definition
4
Term
204.                 Hemoglobinopathies occur when one hemoglobin polypeptide chain is substituted with an _____.
 Definition
AMINO ACID
Term
205.                 Sickle cell anemia is a condition when one of the hemoglobin amino acids is substituted with _____ rather than a polypeptide chain.
 Definition
VALINE
Term
206.                 Sickle cell anemia typically occurs in _____.
 Definition
AFRICAN AMERICANS
Term
207.                 _____ are sickle cells.
 Definition
HBS
Term
208.                 _____ are normal hemoglobin cells.
 Definition
HBN
Term
209.                 Is a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they are carriers for the sickle cell trait.
 Definition
HBS AND HBN
Term
210.                 If a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they will have sickle cell anemia.
 Definition
HBS AND HBS
Term
211.                 Why is sickle cell anemia more dangers in a low oxygen environment.
 Definition
IN LOW OXYGEN ENVIORNMENTS, THE SICKLE HBS BECOMES AN AGGREGATE AND BOWS OUT THE CELL
Term
212.                 A sickling crisis can cause death by leading to _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYSIS AT LOG-JAMMED CAPILLARIES
Term
213.                 Factors that precipitate sickling are related to _____.
 Definition
DEOXYGENATION
Term
214.                 6 low oxygen situations that can lead to sickling.
 Definition
1) EXERCISE, 2) HYPOXIA, 3) ACIDOSIS, 4) DEHYDRATION, 5) INFECTION, 6) REDUCED OXYGEN TENSION IN SLEEP
Term
215.                 5 symptoms of sickle cell crisis.
 Definition
1) SWOLLEN HANDS AND FEET, 2) STROKE, 3) MI, 4) KIDNEY FAILURE, 5) HEMOLYSIS
Term
216.                 What causes the painful crisis of sickle cell?
 Definition
VESSEL OCCLUSION THAT MAY APPEAR SUDDENLY IN ALMOST ANY PART OF THE BODY
Term
217.                 Hemoglobin is composed of _____, which is made up of 4 folded polypeptide chains, and 4 _____.
 Definition
GLOBIN; HEME GROUPS
Term
218.                 Each hemoglobin molecule can carry _____ molecules of oxygen.
 Definition
4
Term
219.                 When hemoglobin is called _____ when carrying oxygen, and _____ when not carrying oxygen.
 Definition
OXYHEMOGLOBIN, REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN
Term
220.                 Hemoglobin can also combine with _____ to transport it from the tissues to the lungs for excretion.
 Definition
CARBON DIOXIDE
Term
221.                 _____ is a condition that results from absent or defective synthesis of either the alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin’s causing a decrease in the size of cells and a change in the MCV (size of RBC).
 Definition
THALASSEMIAS
Term
222.                 _____ is a repeated defect in the beta-chain synthesis of hemoglobin.
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
223.                 B-thalassemias is most common in the _____ population.
 Definition
MEDITERRANEAN
Term
224.                 If a person receives the B-thalassemias trait from both parents it will cause transfusion-dependent anemia leading to death by _____.
 Definition
HEMOCHROMATOSIS (EXCESS IRON)
Term
225.                 6 symptoms present in children with B-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) GROWTH RETARDATION, 2) SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) HEPATOMEGALY, 4) INCREASED RBC DISTRUCTION, 5) INCREASED STIM FOR HEMATOPORIESIS CAUSING BONE MARROW EXPANSION, 6) THINNING OF THE CORTICAL BONE
Term
226.                 A-thalassemias is most common in _____.
 Definition
ASIANS
Term
227.                 Most severe cases of A-thalassemias occurs in _____.
 Definition
NEONATES
Term
228.                 Anemia occurs in A-thalassemias due to _____ and _____.
 Definition
DEFECTIVE HEMOGLOBIN PRODUCTION, ACCUMULATION OF UNPAIRED GLOBIN CHAINS
Term
229.                 What is more severe alpha or beta thalassemias?
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
230.                 Individuals with the mildest form of A-thalassemias are usually _____ having mild _____.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC, MICROCYTOSIS
Term
231.                 The minor form of A-thalassemias is associated with these 4 conditions.
 Definition
1) MILD MICROCYTITC HYPOCHROMIC RETICULOCYTOSIS (IMMATURE RBC’S), 2) BONE MARROW HYPERPLASIA, 3) INCREASED SERUM IRON CONCENTRATION, 4) MODERATE SPLENOMEGALY
Term
232.                 2 factors that cause microcytic-hypochromic anemia in A-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS AND IMBALANCE IN GLOBIN CHAIN PRODUCTION, 2) UNPAIRED CHAINS ACCUMULATE IN RED CELLS CAUSING RBC DESTRUCTION AND ANEMIA
Term
233.                 The most common disorder associated with an inherited enzyme deficiency is _____.
 Definition
G-6-PD (GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHO DEHYDROGENASE)
Term
234.                 G-6-PD causes the direct oxidation of hemoglobin which forms a _____.
 Definition
METHEMOGLOBIN
Term
235.                 3 risk factors of the formation of methemoglobin.
 Definition
1) THE CELL IS NOT FUNCTIONAL, 2) DENATURED HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULE RESULTS, 3) THEY CAN NOT MAKE IT THROUGH THE TIGHT CIRCULATORY AREAS OF THE BODY
Term
236.                 G-6-PD eventually results in _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
237.                 6 extrinsic anemia factors.
 Definition
1) DRUGS, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) TOXINS, 4) ARTIFICIAL MECHANICAL BODY STRUCTURES, 5) BURNS, 6) ANY DIRECT INJURY TO THE RBC’S THEMSELVES
Term
238.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCYTIC
Term
239.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is small.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC
Term
240.                 The most common cause of microcytic RBC’s is _____.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY
Term
241.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is large.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC
Term
242.                 _____ means the color of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCHROMIC
Term
243.                 _____ means there is a decrease in the color of the RBC.
 Definition
HYPOCHROMIC
Term
244.                 These 2 criteria must be met for anemia to be classified as nutritional anemia.
 Definition
1) THERE MUST BE A DEFECIENCY OR LACK OF A NUTRIENT ALONE CAUSING THE ANEMIA, 2) HAVING THE NUTRIENT PROVIDED CORRECTS THE ANEMIA
Term
245.                 4 symptoms associated with nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) PALLOR, 2) WEAKNESS, 3) LETHARGY, 4) HEART RATE ELEVATION
Term
246.                 2 additional symptoms associated with iron deficiency anemias.
 Definition
1) SOARS IN THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH, 2) PICA (EATING DIRT, CLAY OR ICE)
Term
247.                 If blood was drawn in a patient with iron deficiency anemia, the red blood cells would be _____ and _____.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC AND HYPOCHROMIC
Term
248.                 3 classes of nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 2) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 3) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
249.                 _____ is essential for heme, in that each heme unit has one of these molecules at its center to form hemoglobin.
 Definition
IRON
Term
250.                 3 causes of iron deficiency during pregnancy and pre-natal development.
 Definition
1) IF MOM IS IRON DEFICIENT SO IS THE BABY, 2) MOMS WHO ARE IRON DEFICIENT AND BREAST FEED WILL TRANSFER IT TO THE BABY, 3) IF NOT BREAST FEEDING COWS MILK MUST BE IRON FORTIFIED
Term
251.                 What is the main symptom of iron deficiency during the infant/toddler years?
 Definition
PICA (EATING THINGS THAT ARE NOT NORMALLY EDIBLE)
Term
252.                 During the teenage years girls on their _____ and _____ are susceptible to iron deficiency.
 Definition
MENSTRUAL CYCLE, NOT EATING PROPERLY
Term
253.                 The most vulnerable time of iron deficiency in the adult years is during _____.
 Definition
PREGNANCY
Term
254.                 _____ is anemia caused by a lack of vitamin B12/intrinsic factor.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
255.                 Pernicious anemia causes _____ RBC’s as well as _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
256.                 The _____ is necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed in the intestine.
 Definition
INTRINSIC FACTOR
Term
257.                 Patients with pernicious anemia can have these 3 CNS related effects.
 Definition
1) NEUROLOGIC DEGENERATION OF DORSAL AND LATERAL SPINAL COLUMNS, 2) PARASTHESIA, 3) SPASTIC ATAXIA
Term
258.                 Folic acid anemias cause _____ RBC’s and _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
259.                 _____ anemias usually have normal size and color RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC
Term
260.                 3 causes of a shift to the right in the oxygen saturation curve.
 Definition
1) EXERTION, 2) INFECTION (TEMP INCREASE), 3) SURGERY
Term
261.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by dehydration or fluid loss.
 Definition
RELATIVE POLYCYTEMIA
Term
262.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by anything that increases the bone marrow production of RBC’s.
 Definition
SECONDARY POLYCYTHEMIA
Term
263.                 _____ polycythemia is caused by a congenital issue leading to a proliferative disease in the bone marrow causing an accelerated production of RBC’s.
 Definition
PRIMARY POLYCYTHEMIA (POLYCYTHEMIA VERA)
Term
264.                 Polycythemia vera causes _____ blood due to extra RBC’s, and problems arise due to _____.
 Definition
VISCOUS; INCREASED BLOOD VISCOSITY
Term
265.                 The skin of a patient with polycythemia vera will appear _____.
 Definition
BLUISH/PURPLE TO RED
Term
266.                 _____ is the treatment of polycythemia vera.
 Definition
PHILEBOTOMY
Term
267.                 7 conditions associated with polycythemia vera.
 Definition
1) BLOOD CLOTS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) PAINFUL ITCHING SENSATIONS, 4) SLUGGISH BLOOD FLOW, 5) PROBLEMS HEARING AND CONCENTRATING, 6) IRRITABILITY, 7) THROMBOSIS
Term
268.                 Suppressing the bone marrow of polycythemia vera requires _____, which is risky due to the side effects.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
Term
269.                 Polycythemia vera may lead to _____ or _____ due to stagnation and build-up of thick blood.
 Definition
THROMBOSIS, FRANK HEMORRHAGING
Term
270.                 _____ disorders are caused by platelet issues and anything that causes a decrease in platelet production.
 Definition
BLEEDING
Term
271.                 _____ is a condition when there is less than 100,000 platelets in the body.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
272.                 3 mechanisms behind thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) DECREASE IN PLATELET PRODUCTION BY THE BONE MARROW, 2) INCREASED POOLING OF PLATELETS IN THE SPLEEN CAUSING SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) DECREASED PLATELET SURVIVAL
Term
273.                 4 causes of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) VIRAL INFECTIONS, 2) DRUGS, 3) IDIOPATHIC, 4) BONE MARROW PROBLEMS
Term
274.                 3 signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) NOSE BLEEDS, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DON’T STOP BLEEDING
Term
275.                 _____ occurs 1-4 weeks after a viral infection, causing bruising and a generalized petechial rash that often occurs with acute onset.
 Definition
IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPA (ITP)
Term
276.                 4 conditions associated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
1) ASYMMETRICAL BLEEDING FOUND MOST FREQUENTLY COVERING THE LEGS, 2) HEMORRHAGE BULLAE OF THE MUCOUS MEMBRANES, 3) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS), 4) SPONTANEOUS HEMORRHAGES THAT LAST 1-2 WEEKS
Term
277.                 _____ is used to slow down the platelet production in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
278.                 _____ is a condition that begins as a systemic clotting issue that ends up as a bleeding problem secondary to some other event.
 Definition
DISIMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC)
Term
279.                 _____ is the most common cause of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
OBSTERIC COMPLICATIONS
Term
280.                 8 causes of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
1) MASSIVE TRAUMA, 2) BURNS, 3) SEPSIS, 4) SHOCK, 5) MALIGNANT DISEASE, 6) MENONGOCOCCEMIA, 7) OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS, 8) SNAKE BITES
Term
281.                 _____ is a condition associated with disiminated intravascular coagulation that has a very high mortality rate.
 Definition
BLEEDING FROM EVERY ORIFICE
Term
282.                 What is the treatment of disiminated intravascular coagulation?
 Definition
STOP THE UNDERLYING PATHOLOGY AND ADMINISTER HEPARIN TO SUPPLY FRESH COAGULATION FACTORS AND PLATELETS
Term
283.                 _____ is a common bleeding pathology within the body.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA
Term
284.                 _____ is classic hemophilia, which is an x-linked recessive disorder manifesting in males that is transmitted by females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
285.                 Hemophilia A is caused by a defect of _____, which is prevented from participating in the intrinsic clotting pathway.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII
Term
286.                 _____ is the most common hemophilia and accounts for 80-85% of all cases.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
287.                 Thrombin is nor normally found in circulating blood. In order for thrombin to be made in the intrinsic clotting pathway, prothrombin (factor II) requires _____ and _____ to be converted to thrombin.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII; CALCIUM
Term
288.                 _____ is the second most common hemophilia (15%) caused by an x-linked recessive trait that is clinically indistinguishable from a factor VIII deficiency.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA B
Term
289.                 Hemophilia B is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR IX
Term
290.                 Hemophilia B is also referred to as _____.
 Definition
CHRISTMAS DISEASE
Term
291.                 How can a doctor distinguish between hemophila A and B?
 Definition
BLOOD TESTS
Term
292.                 _____ is a hemophilia that results from an autosomal recessive disease that occurs equally in males and females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA C
Term
293.                 Hemophilia C is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR XI
Term
294.                 In patients with hemophilia C, bleeding is usually _____ than in hemophilia A or B.
 Definition
LESS SEVERE
Term
295.                 Hemophilia C does not present at birth, but rather around _____ when clotting factors begin to fail.
 Definition
12 MONTHS
Term
296.                 4 symptoms of patients with hemophilia C.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) BLEEDING GUMS OR JOINTS, 3) BLOOD IN URINE OR STOOL, 4) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS) THAT DO NOT STOP
Term
297.                 _____ is a condition caused by a defect in a different subunit, co-factor, or carrier protein of factor VIII. It is an inherited autosomal dominant trait that is different from hemophilia A.
 Definition
VON WILDEBRAND DISEASE
Term
298.                 In von wilderband disease, rapidly circulating platelets are unable to stick to _____ and _____ cannot be formed.
 Definition
COLLAGEN; PLATELET PLUGS
Term
299.                 What is mainly affected by von wildebrand disease?
 Definition
ENDOTHELIAL CELLS THAT LINE VESSELS
Term
300.                 _____ is the usual treatment of von wildebrand disease, which caused factor VIII activity to increase for several days. It temporarily induced endogenous synthesis of factor VIII.
 Definition
INFUSION OF PLASMA CELLS
Term
301.                 _____ is a life threatening condition that causes a rapid proliferation of immature WBC’s by the bone marrow.
 Definition
LEUKEMIA
Term
302.                 11 endogenous findings associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ABNORMAL PATHOLOGICAL CELLS, 2) EXCESS BONE MARROW PROLIFERATION, 3) REPLACEMENT OF BONE MARROW WITH WBC’S (BONE MARROW DEPRESSION), 4) EXCESS NON-FUNCTIONAL WBC’S IN BLOOD, 5) SPLENOMEGALY, 6) HEPATOMEGALY, 7) LYMPHANDENOAPTHY, 8) WEIGHT LOSS, 9) NIGHT SWEATS, 10) LOW GRADE FEVER, 11) HYPERURICEMIA
Term
303.                 If a patient has leukemia, _____ and _____ will result due to decreased platelet and erythrocyte production.
 Definition
ANEMIA AND BLEEDING
Term
304.                 _____ is present in 90% of all leukemia patients.
 Definition
LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
305.                 6 CNS related conditions associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ENCEPHALOPATHY, 2) MENINGITIS, 3) CRANIAL NERVE PALSIES, 4) BLURRED VISION, 5) HEADACHE, 6) SEIZURES
Term
306.                 The 2 acute forms of leukemia are _____ and _____.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA OR ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
307.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a sudden onset most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 4.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
308.                 In acute lymphocytic leukemia _____ are differentiated poorly.
 Definition
BLAST CELLS
Term
309.                 The onset of acute lymphocytic leukemia is _____.
 Definition
SUDDEN
Term
310.                 _____ accounts for 2/3 of all leukemia cases.
 Definition
ACUT E LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
311.                 6 symptoms associated with acute lymphocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) FEVER, 2) MUSCLE FATIGUE, 3) BLEEDING, 4) BONE PAIN, 5) BONE MARROW DYSFUNCTION, 6) ANEMIA
Term
312.                 More than _____% of children with acute lymphocytic leukemia have complete remission, while _____% of children live 5 years or longer. 90%,
 Definition
50-60%
Term
313.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a low survival rate. It affects all the –phil cells, and symptoms arise abruptly which are similar to those of acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA (ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA)
Term
314.                 _____ is the most common type of leukemia found in adults.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
315.                 Acute myelotic leukemia is treated with intensive chemo to cause _____ of the bone marrow.
 Definition
APLASIA
Term
316.                 Only about _____% of acute myelotic leukemia patients who receive chemo will achieve long-term disease free survival.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
317.                 The more _____ a cell, the more malignant they can become and lead to a more progressive cancer.
 Definition
UNDIFFERENTIATED
Term
318.                 These are the 2 types of chronic leukemia’s.
 Definition
1) CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA, 2) CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
319.                 _____ is a form of chronic leukemia that is often a disorder in older adults between the ages of 50-70. The disease consists of slightly differentiated cells which causes the disease to progress _____.
 Definition
CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; SLOWLY
Term
320.                 Is chronic lymphocytic leukemia more common in men or women?
 Definition
MEN
Term
321.                 Unlike acute lymphocytic leukemia, in chronic lymphocytic leukemia the chronic cells are more _____ and easily identifiable.
 Definition
DIFFERENTIATED
Term
322.                 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells develops _____, but _____ are affected.
 Definition
SLOWLY; MORE CELLS
Term
323.                 Patients with chronic lymphocytic anemia are usually diagnosed when they are _____, and they life expectancy is _____ than those patients with acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC; LONGER
Term
324.                 _____ is a chronic form of leukemia that occurs in patients between the ages of 30-50.
 Definition
CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
325.                 In chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia, bone marrow cells have the _____ chromosome that occurs in mitotic error with a shortened arm on chromosome _____.
 Definition
PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME; CHROMOSOME 22
Term
326.                 Chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients are often _____ when diagnosed.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC
Term
327.                 About _____% of chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients enter an accelerated phase characteristic of acute leukemia which leads to _____ survival rates.
 Definition
LOW
Term
328.                 13 symptoms associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) SPLENOMEAGALY, 2) IMMATURE LEUKOCYTES, 3) HIGH WBC COUNT, 4) ANEMIA, 5) THROMBOCYTOPENIA, 6) WEAKNESS, 7) FATIGUE, 8) DYSPNEA, 9) LOW GRADE FEVER, 10) NIGHT SWEATS, 11) WEIGHT LOSS, 12) HEPATOMEGALY, 13) LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
329.                 4 caused associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemias.
 Definition
1) RADIATION, 2) CHEMICALS LIKE BENZENE, 3) TWINS, 4) ANIMALS
Term
330.                 _____ are cancers of WBC’s (lymphocytes).
 Definition
LYMPHOMAS
Term
331.                 _____ is a malignant disorder or lymphoid tissue that constitutes 40% of all malignant lymphomas seen in younger adults between the ages of 20-40.
 Definition
HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
332.                 In hodgkins lymphoma, lymphoid tissue is characterized by the presence of _____ upon biopsy.
 Definition
REED-STERNBURG CELLS
Term
333.                 Manifestations of hogdkins lymphoma are due to rapid proliferation of abnormal _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
334.                 Hodgkins lymphoma often begins in lymph tissue above the _____, which usually sends people to see the doctor.
 Definition
DIAPHRAGM
Term
335.                 10 symptoms associated with hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) PAINLESS ENLARGEMENT OF LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) SPLENOMEGALY, 3) FEVER, 4) NIGHT SWEATS, 5) WEIGHT LOSS, 6) FATIGUE, 7) PURITIS, 8) WEAKENED IMMUNE SYSTEM, 9) INCREASED WBC COUNT, 10) AFFECTED LIVER, LUNGS, DIGESTIVE TRACT AND CNS
Term
336.                 7 medical tests used to identify hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) LYMPH NODE BIOPSY, 2) CT SCANS OF ABDOMEN AND PELVIC LYMPH NODES, 3) LYMPHANGIOGRAPHY, 4) LAPAROTOMY, 5) LIVER BIOPSY, 6) BONE MARROW BIOPSY, 7) X RAYS AND LAB WORK
Term
337.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, a single lymph node or single extralymphatic region is affected.
 Definition
CLASS I
Term
338.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS II
Term
339.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS III
Term
340.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is diffused or disseminated involvement of lymph nodes.
 Definition
CLASS IV
Term
341.                 The incidence rate of hodgkins lymphoma is _____ cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
7500, 1500
Term
342.                 _____ is a type of lymphoma that typically affects immune suppressed people over the age of 50, which could be virus related. It consists of a group of neoplastic disorders of lymphoid tissue not characterized by reed-sternberg cells.
 Definition
NON-HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
343.                 In patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma, there is early involvement of the lymph nodes in the _____ area.
 Definition
OROPHARYNGEAL
Term
344.                 There is less than _____% chance of curability of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
345.                 Non-hodgkins lymphomas are divided into 3 main groups according to the cell types involved which are _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
B CELL, T CELL AND MIXED
Term
346.                 The diagnosis of non-hodgkins lymphoma is through a _____.
 Definition
LYMPH NODE BIOPSY
Term
347.                 4 signs and symptoms of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) EARLY INVOLVELENT OF OROPHARYNGEAL LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) CONSTITUTIONAL SIGNS, 3) LEUKEMIC TRANSFORMATIONS WITH HIGH NUMBERS OF WBC’S, 4) INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY TO INFECTIONS
Term
348.                 The incidence rate of non-hodgkins lymphoma is _____ new cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
15,000; 13,000
Term
350.                 _____ is a condition that consists of bone tumors of B-lymphocytes commonly affecting people between the ages of 50 and 60.
 Definition
MULTIPLE MYELOMA
Term
351.                 Multiple myelomas causing B-cell neoplasms leads to an excess production of _____ and _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS
Term
352.                 Multiple myeloma affecting B-cells can be detectable by _____ of the long bones, sternum, or skull.
 Definition
X-RAYS
Term
353.                 Multiple myeloma is characterized by multiple malignant tumor masses of _____ scattered throughout the skeletal system and sometimes soft tissues.
 Definition
PLASMA CELLS
Term
354.                 Incidence of multiple myelomas is _____ times greater than all other malignant tumors of the bone combined.
 Definition
3X
Term
355.                 Chronic stimulation of the mononuclear phagocytic system by these 3 things have been proposed causes of multiple myelomas.
 Definition
1) BACTERIA, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) VIRUSES
Term
356.                 In the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma, _____ arise from 1 clone of B-cells that produce abnormally large amounts of _____.
 Definition
MALIGNANT PLASMA CELLS; CLASS 1 IMMUNOGLOBULINS (IgG)
Term
357.                 Laboratory examinations of the bone marrow of patients with multiple myeloma shows proliferation of _____ and _____ cells with 20% or more having multinucleated cytoplasms containing multiple immunoglobulins (whits blobs). These cells often completely replace _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS; BONE MARROW
Term
358.                 _____ proteins, which are fragments of IgG/A are present in the urine and blood of over 60% of patients with multiple myeloma.
 Definition
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
Term
359.                 Bence jones proteins are proliferations of the _____.
 Definition
LIGHT CHAINS OF IMMUNOGLOBULINS (M-CHAIN)
Term
360.                 In multiple myeloma patients, there is a higher frequency of _____ correlated with the amount of protein found in urine, since the excreted light chains are through to be toxin to the renal tubules.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
361.                 The malignant neoplasm of multiple myeloma usually does not metastasize outside of the _____, rather the destructive lesions typically erode the _____ and cause _____ that are observable on radiographs.
 Definition
BONE; BONE; LYTIC LESIONS
Term
362.                 Lytic lesions of multiple myeloma patients are most frequently visualized in these 7 places.
 Definition
1) VERTEBRAL COLUMN, 2) RIBS, 3) SKULL, 4) PELVIS, 5) FEMUR, 6) CLAVICLE, 7) SCAPULA
Term
363.                 In multiple myeloma patients, pathological _____ usually occur in the areas with the lytic lesions, especially in the weigh bearing regions.
 Definition
FRACTURES
Term
364.                 In multiple myeloma, calcium metabolism is usually abnormal resulting in elevated _____, because of _____.
 Definition
SERUM CALCIUM LEVELS; PLASMA CELL PROLIFERATION
Term
365.                 Multiple myeloma patients often experience _____ and _____ anemia with variable depression of _____ and _____ counts.
 Definition
NOMOCYTIC AND NONOCHROMIC ANEMIA; WBC AND PLATELET COUNTS
Term
366.                 The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma is _____ or _____ pain, as well as _____.
 Definition
BONE OR BACK PAIN; COMPRESSION FRACTURES
Term
367.                 _____ and _____ may be caused by the secondary anemia of multiple myeloma.
 Definition
PALLOR; WEAKNESS
Term
368.                 Survival rates of multiple myeloma patients are generally poor, and rely largely on the persons response to _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
Term
1.     _____ is idiopathic high blood pressure that usually goes undetected due to a lack of symptoms.
 Definition
PRIMARY/ESSENTIAL HYPERTENSION
Term
2.     Primary/essential hypertension represents _____% of hypertension cases.
 Definition
90.00000%
Term
3.     4 causes of secondary hypertension.
 Definition
1) CUSHINGS DISEASE, 3) PRIMARY ALDOSTERONISM, 3) PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA, 4) COARCTATION OF THE AORTA
Term
4.     9 risk factors of hypertension.
 Definition
1) FAMILY HISTORY, 2) AGE, 3) MALE GENDER, 4) BLACK RACE, 5) OBESITY, 6) HIGH SODIUM DIET, 7) GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE, 8) SMOKING, 9) HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION
Term
5.     What is the best way to diagnose hypertension. .
 Definition
TAKE BP AT THE SAME TIME OF DAY AND RECORD IT OVER A PERIOD OF DAYS
Term
6.     If one has hypertension, there will be ophthalmic changes in the _____ of the eyes.
 Definition
VASCULAR BEDS
Term
7.     _____ is thong term effect of hypertension, so we should run kidney function tests when one presents with hypertension.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
8.     If one has hypertension, there will be a _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
LARGE R WAVE
Term
9.     7 steps in the pathyphysiology of hypertension.
 Definition
1) HYPERTENSION DAMAGES THE WALLS OF THE SYSTEMIC VESSELS, 2) PROLONGED VASOCONSTRICTION AND HIGH PRESSURE CAUSES THE VESSELS TO THICKEN, 3) ARTERIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE UNDERGOES HYPERTROPHY, 4) TUNICA INTIMA AND MEDIA UNDERGO FIBROMUSCULAR THICKENING LEADING TO NARROWING OF THE LUMEN, 5) VESSELS BECOME PERMANENTLY NARROWED, 6) HYPERTENSIVE INJURY CAUSES INFLAMMATION TO INCREASE THE PERMEABILITY OF THE VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM, 7) AS PERMEABILITY INCREASES MORE IONS ENTER THE VESSEL WALLS CAUSING FURTHER THICKENING
Term
10.  When _____ occur, hypertension is usually far advanced.
 Definition
SYMPTOMS
Term
11.  7 manifestations of hypertension.
 Definition
1) UNSTEADINESS, 2) WALKING HEADACHE, 3) BLURRED VISION, 4) DEPRESSION, 5) RENAL DYSFUNCTION, 6) RETINAL CHANGES, 7) SIGNS OF VENTRICULAR FAILURE SUCH AS DYSPNEA OR EXERTION
Term
12.  4 hypertensive death related causes.
 Definition
1) STROKE, 2) MI, 3) RENAL FAILURE, 4) ENCEPHALOPATHY
Term
13.  _____ is a CVA when a blood clot lodges in a vessel leading to ischemic hypoxia.
 Definition
THROMBOTIC
Term
14.  _____ is a CVA when a clot comes from a far away source.
 Definition
EMBOLIC STROKE
Term
15.  _____ is a CVA caused by bleeding.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
16.  Hypertension is the primary cause of _____ strokes.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
Term
17.  _____ are small stroke like incidents that last 10 minutes or less. It leads to a loss in a patients senses.
 Definition
TIA (TRANSIENT ISCHEMIC ATTACK)
Term
18.  If one has a TIA, a patient will experience these 2 symptoms.
 Definition
1) BRUITS, 2) THEY WILL SEE FLOATERS
Term
19.  For something to be diagnosed as a stroke, symptoms must remain for _____ hours.
 Definition
24 HOURS
Term
20.  If a patient has a thrombotic stroke, _____ can be administered to bust out the clot that’s blocking the brain, and restore blood flow. This is able to completely resolve the stroke leading too complications.
 Definition
THRMBOLYTICS
Term
21.  Strokes tame time to _____ to completion. It might not look severe at first, but the next day the patient could look much worse.
 Definition
EVOLVE
Term
22.  Once a patient has completed a stoke they should work on _____ as quick as possible.
 Definition
REHAB
Term
23.  _____ and _____ are 2 agents used to treat thrombotic and embolic strokes. They must not be administered to a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke because they will bleed to death.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS AND FIBRINOLYTIC AGENTS
Term
24.  13 risk factors of cerebrovascular disease.
 Definition
1) ATHEROSCLEROSIS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) HIGH CHOLESTEROL, 4) FAMILY HISTORY, 5) OBESITY, 6) SEDENTARY LIFESTYLE, 7) ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, 8) SMOKING, 9) COAGULATION DISORDERS, 10) DEHYDRATION, 11) CHRONIC HYPOXIA, 12) CIGARETTE SMOKING
Term
25.  4 manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) RIGHT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SLOW AND CAUTIOUS BEHAVIOR, 3) RIGHT VISUAL FIELD DEFECT, 4) EXPRESSIVE, RECEPTIVE OR GLOBAL DYSPHASIA
Term
26.  7 manifestations of a right hemispheric stroke.
 Definition
1) LEFT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SPATIAL-PERCEPTUAL DEFICITS, 3) IMPULSIVE BEHAVIOR, 4) DISTRACTABILITY, 5) DENIAL, 6) LEFT VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS, 7) PERSEVERATION (REPEATING A WORD OVER AND OVER)
Term
27.  _____ is a medium by which we get transmission of a lot of different systems for the body.
 Definition
BLOOD
Term
28.  The normal blood volume in the human body is _____.
 Definition
5L
Term
29.  _____is the fluid part of blood.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
30.  Plasma makes up _____% of blood.
 Definition
55.00000%
Term
31.  _____ is a measure of albumin acting like a giant sponge that osmotically attracts fluids and holds the fluids together. It is due to the osmotic pressure created by solutes in the fluid.
 Definition
COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE (COP)
Term
32.  Most plasma proteins are manufactured and synthesized by the _____.
 Definition
LIVER
Term
33.  3 causes of ascites.
 Definition
1) LIVER HYPERTENSION, 2) HYPOALBUMINEMEA, 3) EXCESS ALDOSTERONE
Term
34.  Plasma is made up of _____% water, and _____% proteins.
 Definition
91%, 7%
Term
35.  _____ are the antibody making cells in the body.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
36.  _____ are antibodies that are the primary immune responders.
 Definition
IGM
Term
37.  IgM antibodies are responsible for _____.
 Definition
SENSITIZATION
Term
38.  _____ are antibodies that are the secondary immune responders.
 Definition
IGG
Term
39.  _____ are the most abundant immunoglobulin’s in the body.
 Definition
IGG
Term
40.  IgG antibodies respond immediately after _____.
 Definition
SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURES
Term
41.  _____ are antibodies found in allergies and hypersensitivity responses.
 Definition
IGE
Term
42.  _____ are antibodies found in most of bodily fluid secretions.
 Definition
IGA
Term
43.  _____ is the main clotting protein in our blood.
 Definition
FIBRINOGEN
Term
44.  _____ is the total amount of blood cells and blood cell fragments due to the RBC volume and the quantity of red cells.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT VALUE
Term
45.  _____ is another name for hematocrit.
 Definition
PACKED CELL VOLUME (PCV)
Term
46.  A normal person has _____ platelets in their blood stream.
 Definition
250-400 THOUSAND
Term
47.  A normal person has _____ leukocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
5-9 THOUSAND
Term
48.  Men have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
4.2-5 MILLION
Term
49.  Women have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream.
 Definition
3-6.5 MILLION
Term
50.  _____ tissue is where RBC’s originate.
 Definition
MYELOID TISSUE (RED BONE MARROW)
Term
51.  During childhood, _____ are RBC producing.
 Definition
ALL BONES
Term
52.  As our bodies mature, the _____ and the _____ are the producers of RBC’s.
 Definition
AXIAL SKELETON, AND THE ENDS OF LONG BONES
Term
53.  _____ are the parent cells of all RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOCYTOBLAST (HEMATOPOETIC STEM CELL)
Term
54.  _____ is an almost mature form of the RBC that has lost its nucleus. They consist of small cells which become biconcave.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE
Term
55.  There are _____ million hemoglobins per erythrocyte.
 Definition
200-300 MILLION
Term
56.  1 molecule of hemoglobin can bind _____ oxygen cells.
 Definition
4
Term
57.  _____ is the process of producing blood cells.
 Definition
HEMATOPOIESIS
Term
58.  _____ is the iron element at the center of the hemoglobin molecule.
 Definition
HEME
Term
59.  _____ is iron deficiency often due to blood loss or nutritional deficiencies.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
60.  The main stimulus for formation of erythrocytes is _____.
 Definition
HYPOXIA
Term
61.  Decreased blood oxygen causes signals to be sent to the kidneys to release _____. This hormone causes an increase in the blood production of RBC in the bone marrow.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIETIN
Term
62.  _____ is red blood cell making that occurs in the ends of long bones.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOIESIS
Term
63.  _____ is the inactive form of erythropoiesis formed in the liver.
 Definition
ERYTHROPOITINOGEN
Term
64.  _____ is secreted by the kidney that causes activation of erythropoitinogen.
 Definition
RENAL ERYTHROPOITINOGEN FACTOR (EZ)
Term
65.  _____ is the bone marrow that makes fatty cells used to beef up our bodies systems.
 Definition
YELLOW MARROW
Term
66.  Erythrocytes have an average life span of _____ days.
 Definition
120 DAYS
Term
67.  Erythrocyte breakdown occurs in the _____, and the _____ is the chief cell used to break them down.
 Definition
SPLEEN; MACROPHAGES
Term
68.  Hemoglobin is broken down into _____, which then becomes _____.
 Definition
HEME; BILIRUBIN
Term
69.  Bilirubin is responsible for giving _____ and _____ its color.
 Definition
URINE AND STOOL
Term
70.  _____ coming off from the heme is recycled and reused in the future.
 Definition
IRON
Term
71.  Excess bilirubin in the liver spills out in the skin causing _____.
 Definition
JAUNDICE
Term
72.  Proerythroblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
ERYTHROCYTES
Term
73.  Monoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
74.  Myeloblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
GRANULOCYTES
Term
75.  Lymphoblasts are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
76.  Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to _____.
 Definition
PLATELETS
Term
77.  3 types of granulocytes.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS, 2) BASOPHILS, 3) EOSINOPHILS
Term
78.  _____ are the most numerous white blood cells in the body. They are important phagoc ytes in acute inflammation.
 Definition
NEUTROPHILS
Term
79.  Neutrophils stain _____, and have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
LIGHT PURPLE; MULTI-LOBULED NUCLEUS
Term
80.  _____are white blood cells that protect us against infections caused by parasitic worms, and they are involved in allergic reactions.
 Definition
EOSINOPHILS
Term
81.  Eosinophils stain _____, and they have a _____ nucleus.
 Definition
ORANGE; 2 LOBE NUCLEUS
Term
82.  _____ are the least common white blood cells that are responsible for secreting heparin.
 Definition
BASOPHILS
Term
83.  Basophils stain _____, and have a _____ nuclei.
 Definition
DARK PURPLE; S-SHAPED
Term
84.  2 different types of agranulocytes.
 Definition
1) LYMPHOCYTES, 2) MONOCYTES
Term
85.  _____ are the second most common WBC’s that play an immunity role defense.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
86.  _____ lymphocytes are regulatory helper and suppressor cells.
 Definition
T-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
87.  _____ lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production.
 Definition
B-LYMPHOCYTES
Term
88.  Lymphocytes have a _____ stained cytoplasm.
 Definition
BLUE
Term
89.  _____ are key phagocytic agranulocytes that become macrophages in circulation as soon as they leave production.
 Definition
MONOCYTES
Term
90.  _____ is a decrease in the number of white blood cells.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
91.  3 causes of a shift to the left differential.
 Definition
1) NEUTROPHILS RESPONDING TO ACUTE INFLAMMATION, 2) LEUKOCYTOSIS, 3) MORE BAND CELLS IN THE PLASMA
Term
92.  2 causes of a shift to the right differential.
 Definition
1) INCREASED LYMPHOCYTES DURING CHRONIC INFLAMMATION, 2) LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKOCYTOSIS
Term
93.  88% neutrophils causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE LEFT, ACUTE INFLAMMATION
Term
94.  What is an example of a shift to the left?
 Definition
BACTERIAL INFECTION
Term
95.  40% lymphocytes causes what?
 Definition
SHIFT TO THE RIGHT, CHRONIC INFLAMMATION
Term
96.  What is an example of a shift to the right?
 Definition
MONONUCLEOSIS
Term
97.  _____ are cell fragments from megakaryocytes.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES (PLATELETS)
Term
98.  Platelets play a major role in _____ and _____, and they are released in response around tissue injury and clump together to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS (STOP BLEEDING) AND COAGULATION
Term
99.  The life span of platelets is typically _____ days.
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
100.                 The normal platelet count is between _____.
 Definition
150-350,000
Term
101.                 _____ is a deficiency in the number of WBC’s.
 Definition
LEUKOPENIA
Term
102.                 Leukopenia is a common side effect of _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY DRUGS
Term
103.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of neutrophils.
 Definition
NEUTROPENIA
Term
104.                 _____ is having decreased numbers of lymphocytes.
 Definition
LYMPHOPENIA
Term
105.                 _____ is a decrease in the number of platelets (below 100,000 platelets/mm3).
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
106.                 Why do we worry about patients with thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
WE WORRY ABOUT INTERNAL BLEEDING WHEN #’S FALL BELOW 40,000
Term
107.                 What is another name for platelets?
 Definition
THROMBOCYTES
Term
108.                 How are platelets formed?
 Definition
FROM CELL FRAGMENTS OF MEGAKARYOCYTES WHICH COME FROM STEM CELLS
Term
109.                 What is the average life span of platelets?
 Definition
7-8 DAYS
Term
110.                 Red blood cells have surface _____ that have been given classification in the ABO system.
 Definition
ANTIGENS
Term
111.                 Type A blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN A; TYPE B ANTIBODY
Term
112.                 Type B blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGEN B; TYPE A ANTIBODIES
Term
113.                 Type AB blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
ANTIGENS A AND B; NO A OR B ANTIBODIES
Term
114.                 Blood type AB is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT
Term
115.                 Type O blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma.
 Definition
NO A OR B ANTIGENS; A AND B ANTIBODIES
Term
116.                 Type O blood is known as the _____.
 Definition
UNIVERSAL DONOR
Term
117.                 _____ is when the D-antigen is present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(+)
Term
118.                 _____ is when there is no D-antigen present on the RBC surface.
 Definition
RH(-)
Term
119.                 _____ is when there is a blood transfusion reaction for an RH(-) patient. The first time fused no reaction will occur, but the patient will develop antibodies against the RH factor causing a reaction each subsequent blood transfusion.
 Definition
ABO INCOMPATIBILITY
Term
120.                 _____ is a condition when a RH(-) mother gets pregnant with an RH(+) baby. The mother body creates antibodies against the fetuses blood, causing a destruction of the baby’s erythrocytes.
 Definition
ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS (HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN)
Term
121.                 The dangers of erythroblastosis fetalis increases with _____.
 Definition
EACH SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCY
Term
122.                 _____ is the medication given to the mother with erythroblastosis fetalis. It causes the mothers body to think it has already made antibodies to the D-antigen; fooling the mothers immune system to prevent the in utero attach on the fetus.
 Definition
RHOGAM
Term
123.                 _____ means to stop bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOSTASIS
Term
124.                 3 ways our bodies perform hemostasis.
 Definition
1) VASCULAR SPASM, 2) PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, 3) FIBRIN FORMATION CAUSING COAGULATION
Term
125.                 _____ agents are direct dissolvers of blood clots.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTIC
Term
126.                 _____ agents are clot prevents and prevent clots from forming, or already formed clots from getting any bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
127.                 _____ is having blood in the stool.
 Definition
MELENA
Term
128.                 Blood clotting factors made in the liver are dependent on _____ for synthesis.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
129.                 _____ is an immediate but temporary closure of a blood vessel resulting from contraction of smooth muscle within the blood vessels wall.
 Definition
VASCULAR SPASM
Term
130.                 Vascular spasms are caused by these 2 bodily mechanisms.
 Definition
1) NERVOUS SYSTEM REFLEXES, 2) CHEMICALS RELEASED FROM PLATELETS DURING FORMATION OF THE PLATELET PLUG
Term
131.                 In small vessels, vascular spasm can close the vessel _____.
 Definition
COMPLETELY
Term
132.                 When a blood vessel is damaged, the endothelium becomes torn and the underlying tissue is exposed. When this happen _____ adhere to the _____ in the connective tissue.
 Definition
PLATELETS; COLLAGEN FIBERS
Term
133.                 When platelets adhere to the collagen fibers in the connective tissue during platelet plug formation, it causes the release of these 4 chemicals.
 Definition
1) ADP, 2) THROMBOXANE, 3) SEROTONIN, 4) CHEMICALS INVOLVED IN COAGULATION
Term
134.                 _____ and _____ are 2 chemicals released by platelets that cause vascular spasm.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE AND SEROTONIN
Term
135.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that makes their surface sticky, so additional platelets adhere to those already attached to the collagen fibers.
 Definition
ADP
Term
136.                 _____ is a chemical released by platelets that induces the aggregating platelets to release ADP, thromboxane, and other chemicals.
 Definition
THROMBOXANE
Term
137.                 When platelets adhere to each other and release chemicals that cause other platelets to adhere, it forms an accumulating mass called a _____.
 Definition
PLATELET PLUG
Term
138.                 _____ is the formation of a blood clot that consists of a network of fibrin in which blood cells, platelets, and fluid become trapped.
 Definition
COAGULATION
Term
139.                 Coagulation is dependent on coagulation factors present in the _____.
 Definition
PLASMA
Term
140.                 3 main stages of coagulation.
 Definition
STAGE 1) ACTIVATION OF FACTOR XII AND PRODUCTION OF PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR; STAGE 2) CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN TO THROMBIN BY PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR FACOR; STAGE 3) ENZYMATIC CONVERSION BY THROMBIN OF SOLUBLE FIBRINOGEN TO INSOLUBLE FIBRIN
Term
141.                 Coagulation operates via both the _____ and _____ pathways.
 Definition
INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC
Term
142.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is turned on by factors that are outside the damaged blood vessel. If surrounding tissues are damages, a domino effect will occur that will form the prothrombin factor.
 Definition
EXTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
143.                 The _____ pathway of coagulation is when circulating clotting factors (factor XII) comes in contact with damaged blood vessels that starts a cascade which ends up as prothrombin factor.
 Definition
INTRINSIC PATHWAY
Term
144.                 _____ is needed in both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways.
 Definition
CALCIUM
Term
145.                 Once a blood clot forms, it condenses into a denser, compact structure through a process known as _____.
 Definition
CLOT RETRACTION
Term
146.                 As a clot condenses _____ is squeezed out of the clot.
 Definition
SERUM
Term
147.                 Consolidation of clots pull the edges of damaged vessels together, which may help _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
STOP BLOOD FLOW, REDUCE INFECTION, AND ENHANCE HEALING
Term
148.                 A clot usually dissolves within a few days after a clot formation by a process known as _____, which is a natural biochem reaction that occurs when the threat is over and the body returns its tissue to the original structure and function.
 Definition
FIBRINOLYSIS
Term
149.                 3 steps of fibrinolysis.
 Definition
1) PLASMINOGEN IS ACTIVATED BY THROMBIN FACTOR XII, TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR, AND LYSOSOMAL ENZYMES RELEASED FROM DAMAGED TISSUES, 2) PLASMINOGEN FORMS PLASMIN, 3) PLASMIN HYDROLYZES FIBRIN DISSOLVING THE CLOT
Term
150.                 What is the difference between anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents?
 Definition
ANTICOAGULANTS PREVENT FIBRIN FROM FORMING, WHILE THROMBOLITIC AGENTS DISSOLVE FIBRIN OR BUST THE CLOT
Term
151.                 _____ are medications that drive the production of plasmin to bust the clots. They are not anti-coagulants.
 Definition
THROMBOLYTICS/FIBRINOLYTICS
Term
152.                 _____ do not dissolve clots, rather they prevents cots from forming or prevent existing clots from getting bigger.
 Definition
ANTI-COAGULANTS
Term
153.                 _____ and _____ are common anticoagulant medications.
 Definition
HEPARIN AND COUMADIN
Term
154.                 How does Coumadin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE LIVER BY COMPETING WITH VITAMIN K. SINCE CLOTTING FACTORS ARE DEPENDENT ON VITAMIN K, COUMADIN WILL RESTRICT FIBRIN SYNTHESIS
Term
155.                 If patients eat foods with _____, it can counteract the effects of Coumadin.
 Definition
VITAMIN K
Term
156.                 How does heparin work?
 Definition
IT WORKS IN THE PERIPHERY PREVENTING PROTHROMBIN FROM BEING CONVERTED TO THROMBIN
Term
157.                 Heparin takes up to _____hours to work.
 Definition
72 HOURS
Term
158.                 _____ is an antidote for heparin overdose, which is made from fish sperm.
 Definition
PROTAMINE SULFATE
Term
159.                 3 signs of internal bleeding.
 Definition
1) LARGE, DISTENDED HARD ABDOMEN, 2) FLANK PAIN, 3) BLOOD IN STOOL OR URINE
Term
160.                 3 signs of over-coagulation.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) PETECIAL HEMORRHAGES, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DO NOT STOP BLEEDING
Term
161.                 2 coagulation factors found in our body.
 Definition
1) FACTOR I- FIBRINOGEN, 2) FACTOR XII- FIBRIN STABILIZING FACTOR
Term
162.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people taking warfarin/Coumadin.
 Definition
PROTHROMBIN TIME (PT)
Term
163.                 _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people on heparin.
 Definition
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT)
Term
164.                 The normal PTT time is between _____.
 Definition
60-90 SECONDS
Term
165.                 _____ is the standardized clotting times across the globe, it consists of a ration responsible for standardizing everything.
 Definition
INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATION (INR)
Term
166.                 The normal clotting time in the INR is between _____.
 Definition
11-14 SECONDS
Term
167.                 The normal ratio of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
0.8-1.2
Term
168.                 The desirable anticoagulant effect of INR is between _____ and _____.
 Definition
2.0-3.0
Term
169.                 3 components of a complete blood count.
 Definition
1) WBC COUNT, 2) RBC COUNT, 3) PLATELET COUNT
Term
170.                 _____ is a test the counts the actual number of WBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
WBC COUNT
Term
171.                 _____ is a test that determines what types of WBC’s are present in the blood.
 Definition
WHITE BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL
Term
172.                 _____ is a test to determine the actual number of RBC’s per volume of blood.
 Definition
RBC COUNT
Term
173.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of oxygen carrying protein in the blood.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBIN
Term
174.                 _____ is a test to determine the rate of RBC production.
 Definition
RETICULOCYTE COUNT
Term
175.                 _____ is a test to determine the amount of space RBC’s take up in the blood.
 Definition
HEMATOCRIT
Term
176.                 _____ is a test to determine the number of platelets in a given volume of blood.
 Definition
PLATELET COUNT
Term
177.                 _____ is a test to measure the average size of RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME (MCV)
Term
178.                 MCV is an important in testing for _____.
 Definition
ANEMIAS DUE TO B12 DEFICIENCY
Term
179.                 _____ is a test to calculate the amount of hemoglobin inside of the RBC’s.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN (MCH)
Term
180.                 _____ is a test to calculate the percentage of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
 Definition
MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION (MCHC)
Term
181.                 _____ is a test to determine how varied the size of RBC’s are in a sample.
 Definition
RED CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (RDW)
Term
182.                 RDW helps determine the kind of _____ one may have.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
183.                 _____ is the most life threatening skin carcinoma.
 Definition
MELANOMA
Term
184.                 _____ for skin disorders serve as anti-inflammatory agents.
 Definition
CORTICOSTEROIDS
Term
185.                 What is a cubitus ulcer?
 Definition
A BEDSORE (WHEELCHAIR BOUND PATIENT)
Term
186.                 Herpes zoster spreads along the _____.
 Definition
DERMATOMES
Term
187.                 _____ is a condition caused by a low number of circulating red cells, abnormally low number of hemoglobin, or both.
 Definition
ANEMIA
Term
188.                 3 causes of anemia.
 Definition
1) BLOOD LOSS, 2) LACK OF OXYGEN DELIVERY TO CELLS/TISSUES, 3) DECREASED OXYGEN AFFINITY TO HEMOGLOBIN
Term
189.                 What increased oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin?
 Definition
THE ACTUAL BINDING OF OXYGEN TO THE HEMOGLOBIN
Term
190.                 3 things that decrease oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin.
 Definition
1) BINDING OF CO2 TO HEMOGLOBIN, 2) BINDING OF PROTONS TO SPECIFIC BASIC GROUPS, 3) BINDING OF CERTAIN ORGANIC PHOSPHATES
Term
191.                 _____ anemia is most common in menstruating women.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
192.                 _____ anemia is due to an early destruction of RBC’s due to a pathology.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
193.                 _____ is a major pathology that causes hemolytic anemia.
 Definition
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
Term
194.                 _____ anemia is caused by a vitamin B-12 deficiency.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
195.                 3 different types of nutritional deficiency anemia’s.
 Definition
1) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 2) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 3) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
196.                 _____ anemia is caused by a bone marrow depression causing a lack of adequate production of RBC’s. it is usually accompanied by depressions in other formed elements of the blood.
 Definition
APLASTIC ANEMIA
Term
197.                 9 signs and symptoms of general anemia.
 Definition
1) FATIGUE/WEAKNESS, 2) PALLOR, 3) TACHYCARDIA, 4) ANXIETY, 5) SYSTOLIC MURMUR, 6) VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY, 7) CHF, 8) ERYTHROPOEISIS, 9) ANGINA AND NIGHT CRAMPS
Term
198.                 _____ anemia’s are due to an early destruction of red blood cells either due to extrinsic or intrinsic causes.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS
Term
199.                 _____ is an intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia that is caused by an autosomal trait causing spherical-shaped RBC’s rather than biconcave disc shape.
 Definition
HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS
Term
200.                 In hereditary spherocytosis, the tight spherical shape RBC’s will hemolyze and be _____ early in mass numbers.
 Definition
DESTROYED
Term
201.                 _____ is sometimes used as the treatment of hemolytic anemia’s for adults, but it will not work in children.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
202.                 _____ are conditions inherent to hemoglobin molecules.
 Definition
HEMOGLOBINOPATHIES
Term
203.                 Hemoglobin usually consists of _____ polypeptide chains.
 Definition
4
Term
204.                 Hemoglobinopathies occur when one hemoglobin polypeptide chain is substituted with an _____.
 Definition
AMINO ACID
Term
205.                 Sickle cell anemia is a condition when one of the hemoglobin amino acids is substituted with _____ rather than a polypeptide chain.
 Definition
VALINE
Term
206.                 Sickle cell anemia typically occurs in _____.
 Definition
AFRICAN AMERICANS
Term
207.                 _____ are sickle cells.
 Definition
HBS
Term
208.                 _____ are normal hemoglobin cells.
 Definition
HBN
Term
209.                 Is a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they are carriers for the sickle cell trait.
 Definition
HBS AND HBN
Term
210.                 If a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they will have sickle cell anemia.
 Definition
HBS AND HBS
Term
211.                 Why is sickle cell anemia more dangers in a low oxygen environment.
 Definition
IN LOW OXYGEN ENVIORNMENTS, THE SICKLE HBS BECOMES AN AGGREGATE AND BOWS OUT THE CELL
Term
212.                 A sickling crisis can cause death by leading to _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYSIS AT LOG-JAMMED CAPILLARIES
Term
213.                 Factors that precipitate sickling are related to _____.
 Definition
DEOXYGENATION
Term
214.                 6 low oxygen situations that can lead to sickling.
 Definition
1) EXERCISE, 2) HYPOXIA, 3) ACIDOSIS, 4) DEHYDRATION, 5) INFECTION, 6) REDUCED OXYGEN TENSION IN SLEEP
Term
215.                 5 symptoms of sickle cell crisis.
 Definition
1) SWOLLEN HANDS AND FEET, 2) STROKE, 3) MI, 4) KIDNEY FAILURE, 5) HEMOLYSIS
Term
216.                 What causes the painful crisis of sickle cell?
 Definition
VESSEL OCCLUSION THAT MAY APPEAR SUDDENLY IN ALMOST ANY PART OF THE BODY
Term
217.                 Hemoglobin is composed of _____, which is made up of 4 folded polypeptide chains, and 4 _____.
 Definition
GLOBIN; HEME GROUPS
Term
218.                 Each hemoglobin molecule can carry _____ molecules of oxygen.
 Definition
4
Term
219.                 When hemoglobin is called _____ when carrying oxygen, and _____ when not carrying oxygen.
 Definition
OXYHEMOGLOBIN, REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN
Term
220.                 Hemoglobin can also combine with _____ to transport it from the tissues to the lungs for excretion.
 Definition
CARBON DIOXIDE
Term
221.                 _____ is a condition that results from absent or defective synthesis of either the alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin’s causing a decrease in the size of cells and a change in the MCV (size of RBC).
 Definition
THALASSEMIAS
Term
222.                 _____ is a repeated defect in the beta-chain synthesis of hemoglobin.
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
223.                 B-thalassemias is most common in the _____ population.
 Definition
MEDITERRANEAN
Term
224.                 If a person receives the B-thalassemias trait from both parents it will cause transfusion-dependent anemia leading to death by _____.
 Definition
HEMOCHROMATOSIS (EXCESS IRON)
Term
225.                 6 symptoms present in children with B-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) GROWTH RETARDATION, 2) SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) HEPATOMEGALY, 4) INCREASED RBC DISTRUCTION, 5) INCREASED STIM FOR HEMATOPORIESIS CAUSING BONE MARROW EXPANSION, 6) THINNING OF THE CORTICAL BONE
Term
226.                 A-thalassemias is most common in _____.
 Definition
ASIANS
Term
227.                 Most severe cases of A-thalassemias occurs in _____.
 Definition
NEONATES
Term
228.                 Anemia occurs in A-thalassemias due to _____ and _____.
 Definition
DEFECTIVE HEMOGLOBIN PRODUCTION, ACCUMULATION OF UNPAIRED GLOBIN CHAINS
Term
229.                 What is more severe alpha or beta thalassemias?
 Definition
B-THALASSEMIAS
Term
230.                 Individuals with the mildest form of A-thalassemias are usually _____ having mild _____.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC, MICROCYTOSIS
Term
231.                 The minor form of A-thalassemias is associated with these 4 conditions.
 Definition
1) MILD MICROCYTITC HYPOCHROMIC RETICULOCYTOSIS (IMMATURE RBC’S), 2) BONE MARROW HYPERPLASIA, 3) INCREASED SERUM IRON CONCENTRATION, 4) MODERATE SPLENOMEGALY
Term
232.                 2 factors that cause microcytic-hypochromic anemia in A-thalassemias.
 Definition
1) REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS AND IMBALANCE IN GLOBIN CHAIN PRODUCTION, 2) UNPAIRED CHAINS ACCUMULATE IN RED CELLS CAUSING RBC DESTRUCTION AND ANEMIA
Term
233.                 The most common disorder associated with an inherited enzyme deficiency is _____.
 Definition
G-6-PD (GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHO DEHYDROGENASE)
Term
234.                 G-6-PD causes the direct oxidation of hemoglobin which forms a _____.
 Definition
METHEMOGLOBIN
Term
235.                 3 risk factors of the formation of methemoglobin.
 Definition
1) THE CELL IS NOT FUNCTIONAL, 2) DENATURED HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULE RESULTS, 3) THEY CAN NOT MAKE IT THROUGH THE TIGHT CIRCULATORY AREAS OF THE BODY
Term
236.                 G-6-PD eventually results in _____.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Term
237.                 6 extrinsic anemia factors.
 Definition
1) DRUGS, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) TOXINS, 4) ARTIFICIAL MECHANICAL BODY STRUCTURES, 5) BURNS, 6) ANY DIRECT INJURY TO THE RBC’S THEMSELVES
Term
238.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCYTIC
Term
239.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is small.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC
Term
240.                 The most common cause of microcytic RBC’s is _____.
 Definition
IRON DEFICIENCY
Term
241.                 _____ means the size of the RBC is large.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC
Term
242.                 _____ means the color of the RBC is normal.
 Definition
NORMOCHROMIC
Term
243.                 _____ means there is a decrease in the color of the RBC.
 Definition
HYPOCHROMIC
Term
244.                 These 2 criteria must be met for anemia to be classified as nutritional anemia.
 Definition
1) THERE MUST BE A DEFECIENCY OR LACK OF A NUTRIENT ALONE CAUSING THE ANEMIA, 2) HAVING THE NUTRIENT PROVIDED CORRECTS THE ANEMIA
Term
245.                 4 symptoms associated with nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) PALLOR, 2) WEAKNESS, 3) LETHARGY, 4) HEART RATE ELEVATION
Term
246.                 2 additional symptoms associated with iron deficiency anemias.
 Definition
1) SOARS IN THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH, 2) PICA (EATING DIRT, CLAY OR ICE)
Term
247.                 If blood was drawn in a patient with iron deficiency anemia, the red blood cells would be _____ and _____.
 Definition
MICROCYTIC AND HYPOCHROMIC
Term
248.                 3 classes of nutritional anemias.
 Definition
1) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 2) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 3) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Term
249.                 _____ is essential for heme, in that each heme unit has one of these molecules at its center to form hemoglobin.
 Definition
IRON
Term
250.                 3 causes of iron deficiency during pregnancy and pre-natal development.
 Definition
1) IF MOM IS IRON DEFICIENT SO IS THE BABY, 2) MOMS WHO ARE IRON DEFICIENT AND BREAST FEED WILL TRANSFER IT TO THE BABY, 3) IF NOT BREAST FEEDING COWS MILK MUST BE IRON FORTIFIED
Term
251.                 What is the main symptom of iron deficiency during the infant/toddler years?
 Definition
PICA (EATING THINGS THAT ARE NOT NORMALLY EDIBLE)
Term
252.                 During the teenage years girls on their _____ and _____ are susceptible to iron deficiency.
 Definition
MENSTRUAL CYCLE, NOT EATING PROPERLY
Term
253.                 The most vulnerable time of iron deficiency in the adult years is during _____.
 Definition
PREGNANCY
Term
254.                 _____ is anemia caused by a lack of vitamin B12/intrinsic factor.
 Definition
PERNICIOUS ANEMIA
Term
255.                 Pernicious anemia causes _____ RBC’s as well as _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
256.                 The _____ is necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed in the intestine.
 Definition
INTRINSIC FACTOR
Term
257.                 Patients with pernicious anemia can have these 3 CNS related effects.
 Definition
1) NEUROLOGIC DEGENERATION OF DORSAL AND LATERAL SPINAL COLUMNS, 2) PARASTHESIA, 3) SPASTIC ATAXIA
Term
258.                 Folic acid anemias cause _____ RBC’s and _____ anemias.
 Definition
MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC
Term
259.                 _____ anemias usually have normal size and color RBC’s.
 Definition
HEMOLYTIC
Term
260.                 3 causes of a shift to the right in the oxygen saturation curve.
 Definition
1) EXERTION, 2) INFECTION (TEMP INCREASE), 3) SURGERY
Term
261.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by dehydration or fluid loss.
 Definition
RELATIVE POLYCYTEMIA
Term
262.                 _____ is polycythemia caused by anything that increases the bone marrow production of RBC’s.
 Definition
SECONDARY POLYCYTHEMIA
Term
263.                 _____ polycythemia is caused by a congenital issue leading to a proliferative disease in the bone marrow causing an accelerated production of RBC’s.
 Definition
PRIMARY POLYCYTHEMIA (POLYCYTHEMIA VERA)
Term
264.                 Polycythemia vera causes _____ blood due to extra RBC’s, and problems arise due to _____.
 Definition
VISCOUS; INCREASED BLOOD VISCOSITY
Term
265.                 The skin of a patient with polycythemia vera will appear _____.
 Definition
BLUISH/PURPLE TO RED
Term
266.                 _____ is the treatment of polycythemia vera.
 Definition
PHILEBOTOMY
Term
267.                 7 conditions associated with polycythemia vera.
 Definition
1) BLOOD CLOTS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) PAINFUL ITCHING SENSATIONS, 4) SLUGGISH BLOOD FLOW, 5) PROBLEMS HEARING AND CONCENTRATING, 6) IRRITABILITY, 7) THROMBOSIS
Term
268.                 Suppressing the bone marrow of polycythemia vera requires _____, which is risky due to the side effects.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
Term
269.                 Polycythemia vera may lead to _____ or _____ due to stagnation and build-up of thick blood.
 Definition
THROMBOSIS, FRANK HEMORRHAGING
Term
270.                 _____ disorders are caused by platelet issues and anything that causes a decrease in platelet production.
 Definition
BLEEDING
Term
271.                 _____ is a condition when there is less than 100,000 platelets in the body.
 Definition
THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Term
272.                 3 mechanisms behind thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) DECREASE IN PLATELET PRODUCTION BY THE BONE MARROW, 2) INCREASED POOLING OF PLATELETS IN THE SPLEEN CAUSING SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) DECREASED PLATELET SURVIVAL
Term
273.                 4 causes of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) VIRAL INFECTIONS, 2) DRUGS, 3) IDIOPATHIC, 4) BONE MARROW PROBLEMS
Term
274.                 3 signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) NOSE BLEEDS, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DON’T STOP BLEEDING
Term
275.                 _____ occurs 1-4 weeks after a viral infection, causing bruising and a generalized petechial rash that often occurs with acute onset.
 Definition
IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPA (ITP)
Term
276.                 4 conditions associated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
1) ASYMMETRICAL BLEEDING FOUND MOST FREQUENTLY COVERING THE LEGS, 2) HEMORRHAGE BULLAE OF THE MUCOUS MEMBRANES, 3) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS), 4) SPONTANEOUS HEMORRHAGES THAT LAST 1-2 WEEKS
Term
277.                 _____ is used to slow down the platelet production in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa.
 Definition
SPLENECTOMY
Term
278.                 _____ is a condition that begins as a systemic clotting issue that ends up as a bleeding problem secondary to some other event.
 Definition
DISIMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC)
Term
279.                 _____ is the most common cause of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
OBSTERIC COMPLICATIONS
Term
280.                 8 causes of disiminated intravascular coagulation.
 Definition
1) MASSIVE TRAUMA, 2) BURNS, 3) SEPSIS, 4) SHOCK, 5) MALIGNANT DISEASE, 6) MENONGOCOCCEMIA, 7) OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS, 8) SNAKE BITES
Term
281.                 _____ is a condition associated with disiminated intravascular coagulation that has a very high mortality rate.
 Definition
BLEEDING FROM EVERY ORIFICE
Term
282.                 What is the treatment of disiminated intravascular coagulation?
 Definition
STOP THE UNDERLYING PATHOLOGY AND ADMINISTER HEPARIN TO SUPPLY FRESH COAGULATION FACTORS AND PLATELETS
Term
283.                 _____ is a common bleeding pathology within the body.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA
Term
284.                 _____ is classic hemophilia, which is an x-linked recessive disorder manifesting in males that is transmitted by females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
285.                 Hemophilia A is caused by a defect of _____, which is prevented from participating in the intrinsic clotting pathway.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII
Term
286.                 _____ is the most common hemophilia and accounts for 80-85% of all cases.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA A
Term
287.                 Thrombin is nor normally found in circulating blood. In order for thrombin to be made in the intrinsic clotting pathway, prothrombin (factor II) requires _____ and _____ to be converted to thrombin.
 Definition
FACTOR VIII; CALCIUM
Term
288.                 _____ is the second most common hemophilia (15%) caused by an x-linked recessive trait that is clinically indistinguishable from a factor VIII deficiency.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA B
Term
289.                 Hemophilia B is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR IX
Term
290.                 Hemophilia B is also referred to as _____.
 Definition
CHRISTMAS DISEASE
Term
291.                 How can a doctor distinguish between hemophila A and B?
 Definition
BLOOD TESTS
Term
292.                 _____ is a hemophilia that results from an autosomal recessive disease that occurs equally in males and females.
 Definition
HEMOPHILIA C
Term
293.                 Hemophilia C is caused by a _____ deficiency.
 Definition
FACTOR XI
Term
294.                 In patients with hemophilia C, bleeding is usually _____ than in hemophilia A or B.
 Definition
LESS SEVERE
Term
295.                 Hemophilia C does not present at birth, but rather around _____ when clotting factors begin to fail.
 Definition
12 MONTHS
Term
296.                 4 symptoms of patients with hemophilia C.
 Definition
1) EASY BRUISING, 2) BLEEDING GUMS OR JOINTS, 3) BLOOD IN URINE OR STOOL, 4) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS) THAT DO NOT STOP
Term
297.                 _____ is a condition caused by a defect in a different subunit, co-factor, or carrier protein of factor VIII. It is an inherited autosomal dominant trait that is different from hemophilia A.
 Definition
VON WILDEBRAND DISEASE
Term
298.                 In von wilderband disease, rapidly circulating platelets are unable to stick to _____ and _____ cannot be formed.
 Definition
COLLAGEN; PLATELET PLUGS
Term
299.                 What is mainly affected by von wildebrand disease?
 Definition
ENDOTHELIAL CELLS THAT LINE VESSELS
Term
300.                 _____ is the usual treatment of von wildebrand disease, which caused factor VIII activity to increase for several days. It temporarily induced endogenous synthesis of factor VIII.
 Definition
INFUSION OF PLASMA CELLS
Term
301.                 _____ is a life threatening condition that causes a rapid proliferation of immature WBC’s by the bone marrow.
 Definition
LEUKEMIA
Term
302.                 11 endogenous findings associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ABNORMAL PATHOLOGICAL CELLS, 2) EXCESS BONE MARROW PROLIFERATION, 3) REPLACEMENT OF BONE MARROW WITH WBC’S (BONE MARROW DEPRESSION), 4) EXCESS NON-FUNCTIONAL WBC’S IN BLOOD, 5) SPLENOMEGALY, 6) HEPATOMEGALY, 7) LYMPHANDENOAPTHY, 8) WEIGHT LOSS, 9) NIGHT SWEATS, 10) LOW GRADE FEVER, 11) HYPERURICEMIA
Term
303.                 If a patient has leukemia, _____ and _____ will result due to decreased platelet and erythrocyte production.
 Definition
ANEMIA AND BLEEDING
Term
304.                 _____ is present in 90% of all leukemia patients.
 Definition
LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
305.                 6 CNS related conditions associated with leukemia.
 Definition
1) ENCEPHALOPATHY, 2) MENINGITIS, 3) CRANIAL NERVE PALSIES, 4) BLURRED VISION, 5) HEADACHE, 6) SEIZURES
Term
306.                 The 2 acute forms of leukemia are _____ and _____.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA OR ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
307.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a sudden onset most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 4.
 Definition
ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
308.                 In acute lymphocytic leukemia _____ are differentiated poorly.
 Definition
BLAST CELLS
Term
309.                 The onset of acute lymphocytic leukemia is _____.
 Definition
SUDDEN
Term
310.                 _____ accounts for 2/3 of all leukemia cases.
 Definition
ACUT E LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
311.                 6 symptoms associated with acute lymphocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) FEVER, 2) MUSCLE FATIGUE, 3) BLEEDING, 4) BONE PAIN, 5) BONE MARROW DYSFUNCTION, 6) ANEMIA
Term
312.                 More than _____% of children with acute lymphocytic leukemia have complete remission, while _____% of children live 5 years or longer. 90%,
 Definition
50-60%
Term
313.                 _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a low survival rate. It affects all the –phil cells, and symptoms arise abruptly which are similar to those of acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA (ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA)
Term
314.                 _____ is the most common type of leukemia found in adults.
 Definition
ACUTE MYELOTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
315.                 Acute myelotic leukemia is treated with intensive chemo to cause _____ of the bone marrow.
 Definition
APLASIA
Term
316.                 Only about _____% of acute myelotic leukemia patients who receive chemo will achieve long-term disease free survival.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
317.                 The more _____ a cell, the more malignant they can become and lead to a more progressive cancer.
 Definition
UNDIFFERENTIATED
Term
318.                 These are the 2 types of chronic leukemia’s.
 Definition
1) CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA, 2) CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
319.                 _____ is a form of chronic leukemia that is often a disorder in older adults between the ages of 50-70. The disease consists of slightly differentiated cells which causes the disease to progress _____.
 Definition
CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; SLOWLY
Term
320.                 Is chronic lymphocytic leukemia more common in men or women?
 Definition
MEN
Term
321.                 Unlike acute lymphocytic leukemia, in chronic lymphocytic leukemia the chronic cells are more _____ and easily identifiable.
 Definition
DIFFERENTIATED
Term
322.                 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells develops _____, but _____ are affected.
 Definition
SLOWLY; MORE CELLS
Term
323.                 Patients with chronic lymphocytic anemia are usually diagnosed when they are _____, and they life expectancy is _____ than those patients with acute lymphocytic anemia.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC; LONGER
Term
324.                 _____ is a chronic form of leukemia that occurs in patients between the ages of 30-50.
 Definition
CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Term
325.                 In chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia, bone marrow cells have the _____ chromosome that occurs in mitotic error with a shortened arm on chromosome _____.
 Definition
PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME; CHROMOSOME 22
Term
326.                 Chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients are often _____ when diagnosed.
 Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC
Term
327.                 About _____% of chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients enter an accelerated phase characteristic of acute leukemia which leads to _____ survival rates.
 Definition
LOW
Term
328.                 13 symptoms associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia.
 Definition
1) SPLENOMEAGALY, 2) IMMATURE LEUKOCYTES, 3) HIGH WBC COUNT, 4) ANEMIA, 5) THROMBOCYTOPENIA, 6) WEAKNESS, 7) FATIGUE, 8) DYSPNEA, 9) LOW GRADE FEVER, 10) NIGHT SWEATS, 11) WEIGHT LOSS, 12) HEPATOMEGALY, 13) LYMPHADENOPATHY
Term
329.                 4 caused associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemias.
 Definition
1) RADIATION, 2) CHEMICALS LIKE BENZENE, 3) TWINS, 4) ANIMALS
Term
330.                 _____ are cancers of WBC’s (lymphocytes).
 Definition
LYMPHOMAS
Term
331.                 _____ is a malignant disorder or lymphoid tissue that constitutes 40% of all malignant lymphomas seen in younger adults between the ages of 20-40.
 Definition
HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
332.                 In hodgkins lymphoma, lymphoid tissue is characterized by the presence of _____ upon biopsy.
 Definition
REED-STERNBURG CELLS
Term
333.                 Manifestations of hogdkins lymphoma are due to rapid proliferation of abnormal _____.
 Definition
LYMPHOCYTES
Term
334.                 Hodgkins lymphoma often begins in lymph tissue above the _____, which usually sends people to see the doctor.
 Definition
DIAPHRAGM
Term
335.                 10 symptoms associated with hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) PAINLESS ENLARGEMENT OF LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) SPLENOMEGALY, 3) FEVER, 4) NIGHT SWEATS, 5) WEIGHT LOSS, 6) FATIGUE, 7) PURITIS, 8) WEAKENED IMMUNE SYSTEM, 9) INCREASED WBC COUNT, 10) AFFECTED LIVER, LUNGS, DIGESTIVE TRACT AND CNS
Term
336.                 7 medical tests used to identify hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) LYMPH NODE BIOPSY, 2) CT SCANS OF ABDOMEN AND PELVIC LYMPH NODES, 3) LYMPHANGIOGRAPHY, 4) LAPAROTOMY, 5) LIVER BIOPSY, 6) BONE MARROW BIOPSY, 7) X RAYS AND LAB WORK
Term
337.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, a single lymph node or single extralymphatic region is affected.
 Definition
CLASS I
Term
338.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS II
Term
339.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm.
 Definition
CLASS III
Term
340.                 In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is diffused or disseminated involvement of lymph nodes.
 Definition
CLASS IV
Term
341.                 The incidence rate of hodgkins lymphoma is _____ cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
7500, 1500
Term
342.                 _____ is a type of lymphoma that typically affects immune suppressed people over the age of 50, which could be virus related. It consists of a group of neoplastic disorders of lymphoid tissue not characterized by reed-sternberg cells.
 Definition
NON-HODGKINS LYMPHOMA
Term
343.                 In patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma, there is early involvement of the lymph nodes in the _____ area.
 Definition
OROPHARYNGEAL
Term
344.                 There is less than _____% chance of curability of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
25.00000%
Term
345.                 Non-hodgkins lymphomas are divided into 3 main groups according to the cell types involved which are _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
B CELL, T CELL AND MIXED
Term
346.                 The diagnosis of non-hodgkins lymphoma is through a _____.
 Definition
LYMPH NODE BIOPSY
Term
347.                 4 signs and symptoms of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma.
 Definition
1) EARLY INVOLVELENT OF OROPHARYNGEAL LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) CONSTITUTIONAL SIGNS, 3) LEUKEMIC TRANSFORMATIONS WITH HIGH NUMBERS OF WBC’S, 4) INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY TO INFECTIONS
Term
348.                 The incidence rate of non-hodgkins lymphoma is _____ new cases a year with _____ deaths.
 Definition
15,000; 13,000
Term
350.                 _____ is a condition that consists of bone tumors of B-lymphocytes commonly affecting people between the ages of 50 and 60.
 Definition
MULTIPLE MYELOMA
Term
351.                 Multiple myelomas causing B-cell neoplasms leads to an excess production of _____ and _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS
Term
352.                 Multiple myeloma affecting B-cells can be detectable by _____ of the long bones, sternum, or skull.
 Definition
X-RAYS
Term
353.                 Multiple myeloma is characterized by multiple malignant tumor masses of _____ scattered throughout the skeletal system and sometimes soft tissues.
 Definition
PLASMA CELLS
Term
354.                 Incidence of multiple myelomas is _____ times greater than all other malignant tumors of the bone combined.
 Definition
3X
Term
355.                 Chronic stimulation of the mononuclear phagocytic system by these 3 things have been proposed causes of multiple myelomas.
 Definition
1) BACTERIA, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) VIRUSES
Term
356.                 In the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma, _____ arise from 1 clone of B-cells that produce abnormally large amounts of _____.
 Definition
MALIGNANT PLASMA CELLS; CLASS 1 IMMUNOGLOBULINS (IgG)
Term
357.                 Laboratory examinations of the bone marrow of patients with multiple myeloma shows proliferation of _____ and _____ cells with 20% or more having multinucleated cytoplasms containing multiple immunoglobulins (whits blobs). These cells often completely replace _____.
 Definition
IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS; BONE MARROW
Term
358.                 _____ proteins, which are fragments of IgG/A are present in the urine and blood of over 60% of patients with multiple myeloma.
 Definition
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
Term
359.                 Bence jones proteins are proliferations of the _____.
 Definition
LIGHT CHAINS OF IMMUNOGLOBULINS (M-CHAIN)
Term
360.                 In multiple myeloma patients, there is a higher frequency of _____ correlated with the amount of protein found in urine, since the excreted light chains are through to be toxin to the renal tubules.
 Definition
RENAL FAILURE
Term
361.                 The malignant neoplasm of multiple myeloma usually does not metastasize outside of the _____, rather the destructive lesions typically erode the _____ and cause _____ that are observable on radiographs.
 Definition
BONE; BONE; LYTIC LESIONS
Term
362.                 Lytic lesions of multiple myeloma patients are most frequently visualized in these 7 places.
 Definition
1) VERTEBRAL COLUMN, 2) RIBS, 3) SKULL, 4) PELVIS, 5) FEMUR, 6) CLAVICLE, 7) SCAPULA
Term
363.                 In multiple myeloma patients, pathological _____ usually occur in the areas with the lytic lesions, especially in the weigh bearing regions.
 Definition
FRACTURES
Term
364.                 In multiple myeloma, calcium metabolism is usually abnormal resulting in elevated _____, because of _____.
 Definition
SERUM CALCIUM LEVELS; PLASMA CELL PROLIFERATION
Term
365.                 Multiple myeloma patients often experience _____ and _____ anemia with variable depression of _____ and _____ counts.
 Definition
NOMOCYTIC AND NONOCHROMIC ANEMIA; WBC AND PLATELET COUNTS
Term
366.                 The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma is _____ or _____ pain, as well as _____.
 Definition
BONE OR BACK PAIN; COMPRESSION FRACTURES
Term
367.                 _____ and _____ may be caused by the secondary anemia of multiple myeloma.
 Definition
PALLOR; WEAKNESS
Term
368.                 Survival rates of multiple myeloma patients are generally poor, and rely largely on the persons response to _____.
 Definition
CHEMOTHERAPY
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