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Canty Test 2
A
321
Health Care
Professional
02/24/2012
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Term
1.       The _____ is a 4 chambered structure located in the mediastinal space between the lungs.
 Definition
HEART
Term
2.       _____ of the heart is located in the mediastinal space.
 Definition
40942
Term
3.       The _____ is the top side of the heart pointing towards the right shoulder.
 Definition
BASE
Term
4.       The _____ of the heart is positioned downward, forward and to the left.
 Definition
APEX
Term
5.       The apex of the heart is located in the _____.
 Definition
LEFT 5TH INTERCOSTAL SPACE
Term
6.       The apex of the heart is important in that it is the location of there you take the _____.
 Definition
APICAL PULSE (PMI CAN BE PALPATED)
Term
7.       The average size of the heart is _____, and if it is bigger than _____ is possible.
 Definition
10 OZ; HYPERTENSION
Term
8.       The _____ is a translucent double membranous walled sac that encases the heart.
 Definition
PERICARDIUM
Term
9.       The _____ is the outer layer of pericardium.
 Definition
PARIETAL PERICARDIUM
Term
10.   The parietal pericardium is anchored to the _____ and _____.
 Definition
DIAPHRAGM, GREAT VESSELS
Term
11.   The parietal pericardium is made up of two layers which is the _____ and the _____.
 Definition
FIBROUS LAYER AND SEROUS LAYER
Term
12.   The _____ layer of the parietal pericardium is the outermost tough component.
 Definition
FIBROUS LAYER
Term
13.   3 functions of the fibrous layer of the parietal pericardium.
 Definition
1) PROTECION FROM INFECTION, 2) PROTECTION FROM TRAUMA, 3) SECURITY SURVEILANCE AGAINST OTHER DISEASES
Term
14.   The _____ layer of the parietal pericardium is the innermost layer that secretes fluid.
 Definition
SEROUS LAYER
Term
15.   The parietal pericardium folds over to sealing the heart in a layer called the _____.
 Definition
VISCERAL PERICARDIUM (EPICARDIUM)
Term
16.   The _____ is the space between the visceral and parietal pericardium that holds pericardial fluids.
 Definition
PERICARDIAL CAVITY
Term
17.   The fluids in the pericardial cavity serve these 2 functions.
 Definition
1) ACTS AS A LUBRICANT TO PROVIDE FRICTION FREE MOVEMENTS, 2) ALLOWS THE HEART BEAT WITH EASE
Term
18.   The parietal fluid in the parietal cavity is clear to straw in color, and it is considered an _____.
 Definition
EXUDATE
Term
19.   _____ is a condition where there is an excess of pericardial fluid in the pericardial cavity.
 Definition
PERICARDIAL EFFUSION
Term
20.   There are 4 different types of fluids that cause pericardial effusion, they are…
 Definition
1) SEROUS FLUID, 2) FIBROUS FLUID, 3) POSTLANT FLUID, 4) AMOUNT OF FLUID
Term
21.   _____ is a condition that has pericardial effusion associated with bleeding.
 Definition
HEMOPERICARDIUM
Term
22.   Hemopericardium is associated with these 3 conditions.
 Definition
1) TUBERCULOSIS, 2) PURULENT ORGANSISMS, 3) NEOPLASMS
Term
23.   _____ is a condition that consists of pussy pericarditis. There is suppurative exudate that contains a lot of white blood cells.
 Definition
PURULENT PERICARDITIS
Term
24.   _____ is a life threatening condition when pericardial fluid accumulates rapidly causing smothering effect on the heart. It comprises the great vessels and the filling/pumping actions of the heart are suppressed.
 Definition
CARDIAC TAMPOADE
Term
25.   What is the treatment of cardiac tamponade?
 Definition
CARDIAC WINDOW (GO IN BELOW THE BREAST AND SYRINGE OUT EXCESS FLUID)
Term
26.   _____ is inflammation of the pericardium.
 Definition
PERICARDITIS
Term
27.   3 causes of pericarditis.
 Definition
1) INFECTIOUS SOURCES, 2) IMMUNE-MEDIATED REACTIONS, 3) MISCELLANEOUS CAUSES
Term
28.   5 infectious causes of pericarditis.
 Definition
1) VIRUSES, 2) PYOGENIC BACTERIA, 3) TUBERCULOSIS, 4) FUNGI, 5) OTHER PARASITES
Term
29.   7 immune-mediated reactions (autoimmune) that cause pericarditis.
 Definition
1) RHEUMATIC FEVER, 2) LUPUS, 3) SLE, 4) SCLERODERMA, 5) POSTCARDIOTOMY, 6) RESSLER SYNDROME, 7) DRUG SENSITIVITY REACTION
Term
30.   8 miscellaneous causes of pericarditis.
 Definition
1) MYOCARDIAL INFRACTION, 2) UREMIA, 3) NEOPLASM, 4) RADIATION, 5) POST CARDIAC SURGERY, 6) NEOPLASIA, 7) TRAUMA, 8) RADIATION
Term
31.   _____ is a life threatening condition that consists of a rapid influx of fluid into the parietal cavity, causing the pericardium to extend to its maximum.
 Definition
PERICARDIAL TAMPONADE
Term
32.   What is the treatment of pericardial tamponade?
 Definition
PERICARDIAL SYNTHESIS (DRAW FLUID OUT)
Term
33.   Open heart surgeries have to cut up the pericardium, and it is not sown up again. Therefore after the surgery the heart may _____.
 Definition
SHIFT
Term
34.   _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when there is an accumulation of serous exudates from autoimmune complexes.
 Definition
SEROUS PERICARDITIS
Term
35.   In serous pericarditis the fluid accumulates _____, so there is no scar tissue or adhesions.
 Definition
SLOWLY
Term
36.   How does serous pericarditis heal?
 Definition
IT HEALS ON ITS OWN WITH NO SCAR TISSUE OR ADHESIONS
Term
37.   _____ is the most common/frequent type of pericarditis.
 Definition
FIBRINOUS PERICARDITIS
Term
38.   _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when the serous fluid is mixed with fibrin forming clotting factors.
 Definition
FIBRINOUS PERICARDITIS
Term
39.   A classic symptom of fibrinous pericarditis is _____.
 Definition
FRICTION RUBS
Term
40.   A patient with fibrinous pericarditis will present with these 2 symptoms.
 Definition
1) FRICTION RUBS, 2) SHARP AND LOCALIZED CHEST PAINS WHAT ARE MORE PRONOUNCED DURING RESPIRATION
Term
41.   What is the difference between angina and the pain associated with fibrinous pericarditis?
 Definition
THE PAIN FROM ANGINA DOES NOT CHANGE WHEN BREATHING
Term
42.   What is the outcome of fibrinous pericarditis?
 Definition
IT CAN COMPLETELY RESOLVE, OR SCAR TISSUES AND ADHESIONS MAY OCCUR
Term
43.   _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when there is an accumulation of pussy fluid. It is associated with an infection invasion from somewhere else in the body such as blood or lymph.
 Definition
PURULENT/SUPPURATIVE PERICARDITIS
Term
44.   _____ is a major cause of purulent/suppurative pericarditis.
 Definition
LOBAR PNEUMONIA
Term
45.   If somebody has purulent/supporative pericarditis they will present with a _____ and _____.
 Definition
FEVER AND CHILLS
Term
46.   Resolution of purulent/suppurative pericarditis is _____.
 Definition
INFREQUENT
Term
47.   The usual outcome of purulent/suppurative pericarditis is _____ in when scar tissue and adhesions form interfering with pumping of the heart.
 Definition
ORGANIZATION
Term
48.   _____ is a type of acute pericarditis is when there is blood mixed with purulent effusion.
 Definition
HEMORRHAGIC PERICARDITIS
Term
49.   Hemorrhagic pericarditis is associated with these 3 causes.
 Definition
1) TB, 2) CANCER, 3) CLINICAL LEADING OR ORGANIZATIONAL HEALING
Term
50.   _____ is a rare type of acute pericarditis caused by TB or fungal infections.
 Definition
CASSEOUS PERICARDITIS
Term
51.   Casseous pericarditis is a common cause of _____, which leads to some disability and organization.
 Definition
CONSTRICIVE PERICARDITIS
Term
52.   _____ is the usual outcome of casseous pericarditis with some scar tissue and ashesions.
 Definition
ORGANIZATION
Term
53.   In healed pericarditis we can have either resolution or organization. In some cases the pericardium will be _____ which is how adhesions get outside the pericardium.
 Definition
OBLITERATED
Term
54.   _____ is a type of healed pericarditis caused by a benign condition. Cardiac function may not be hampered, and it is obscure in origin.
 Definition
ADHESIVE PERICARDITIS
Term
55.   _____ is a type of healed pericarditis when there is adhesions of parietal peritoneum to contiguous structures causing stress and strain with each heartbeat pulling on the structures.
 Definition
ADHESIVE MEDIASTINOPERICARDITIS
Term
56.   Adhesive mediastinopericarditis can cause the parietal pericardium to adhere to these 3 places.
 Definition
1) TRACHEA, 2) THYMUS, 3) STERNUM
Term
57.   In adhesive mediastinopericarditis the workload is increased leading to _____ and _____.
 Definition
CARDIAC HYPERTROPHY AND DILATION OF THE CHAMBERS INSIDE
Term
58.   The end result of adhesive mediastinopericarditis is _____.
 Definition
HEART FAILURE
Term
59.   _____ is a life threatening form of healed pericarditis in which the heart is contained in a dense, fibrous, fibrocalcified scar that forms a smothering effect.
 Definition
CONSTRICTIVE PERICARDITIS
Term
60.   If constrictive pericarditis occurs there is no _____ or _____ of the heart.
 Definition
FILLING OR OUTPUT
Term
61.   If constrictive pericarditis occurs, usually _____ is eminent
 Definition
CARDIAC FAILURE
Term
62.   The heart muscle itself as well as the muscle cells are called _____.
 Definition
MYOCARDIUM
Term
63.   _____ is the innermost smooth myocardial membranous lining of the chambers, valve structures and great vessels.
 Definition
ENDOCARDIUM
Term
64.   Blood needs to be _____ or it will clot.
 Definition
SMOOTH
Term
65.   What is the function of the endocardium?
 Definition
TO AVOID BLOOD CLOTS
Term
66.   The outermost smooth myocardial layer is called _____, and it is much slicker compared to the endocardium.
 Definition
EPICARDIUM
Term
67.   What is the function of the epicardium?
 Definition
TO AVOID BLOOD CLOTS
Term
68.   The _____ are the innermost component of cardiac muscle cells that line the surface of the ventricles.
 Definition
TRABECULAE CARNAE
Term
69.   The _____ are the muscular projections that line the surface of the atria.
 Definition
PECTINATE MUSCLES
Term
70.   The _____ is muscle tissue coalescing with a meshwork of cartilaginous and elastic tissue forming a framework for the heart.
 Definition
FIBROUS SKELETON
Term
71.   3 purposes of the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
 Definition
1) TO PROVIDE STRUCTURAL SUPPORT FOR THE HEART, ESPECIALLY AROUND VALVES AND THE OPENINGS OF GREAT VESSELS, 2) GIVES CARDIAC MUSCLES SOMETHING TO PULL AGAINST, 3) TO SERVE AS A NON-CONDUCTOR OF ELECTRICITY LIMITING THE ROOT SYSTEM FOR ELECTRICAL CIRCUITRY OF THE HEART
Term
72.   Cardiac muscle consists of _____ and _____ fibers that are relatively short, thick and branched.
 Definition
STRIATED, INTERWOVEN
Term
73.   What is the purpose of cardiac cells being striated and interwoven?
 Definition
IT HELPS FACILITATE ELECTRICITY TRANSMISSION ALONG THE CARDIAC CELLS
Term
74.   What type of nuclei do cardiac cells have?
 Definition
1 CENTRALLY LOCATED NUCLEUS
Term
75.   The _____ is the calcium storage center of cardiac muscles that consists of a net-like encasing of myofibrils.
 Definition
SARCOPLASM RETICULUM
Term
76.   The sarcoplasm reticulum has _____ associated with the T (transverse) tubercles.
 Definition
FOOT LIKE SACS
Term
77.   The _____ are the component of cardiac muscle that supplement calcium from the ECF into the cell during excitation.
 Definition
T-TUBULES
Term
78.   Cardiac muscle cells themselves are referred to as _____.
 Definition
CARDIOCYTES
Term
79.   The cardiocytes are joined end to end by _____.
 Definition
INTERCALIATED DISCS
Term
80.   _____ are interdigitating folds used to increase the surface area of the heart.
 Definition
INTERCALIATED DISCS
Term
81.   _____ is a broad where actin filaments are anchored to the plasma membrane, and they allow for fascia adherence.
 Definition
MECHANICAL JUNCTIONS
Term
82.   Mechanical junction cells are linked to one another via _____.
 Definition
TRANSMEMBRANE PROTEINS
Term
83.   _____ are connectors along the fascia of the heart located along the intercaliated discs. They prevent the cardiocytes from pulling apart when the heart contracts.
 Definition
DESMOSOMES
Term
84.   _____ are gap junctions that act like little electrical tunnels allowing for membrane potential to be transmitted from 1 cardiocyte to the next.
 Definition
ELECTRICAL JUNCTIONS
Term
85.   In the electrical junctions, ions flow from the _____ directly into the _____ enabling cardiocytes to electrically stimulate neighbor cells.
 Definition
CYTOPLASM; NEXT CELL
Term
86.   The 2 atria of the heart are separated by a septum called the _____.
 Definition
INTERATRIAL SEPTUM
Term
87.   The 2 ventricles of the heart are separated by a septum called the _____.
 Definition
INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM
Term
88.   _____ of the heart are grooves that have vessels running in them.
 Definition
SULCI
Term
89.   The _____ sulci lies in the horizontal plane, and separates the atria from the ventricles.
 Definition
ATRIOVENTRICULAR (CORONARY) SULCUS
Term
90.   The anterior atrioventricular sulcus lies on the front of the heart and contains the _____.
 Definition
ANTERIOR CORONARY ARTERY
Term
91.   The posterior atrioventricular sulcus lies on the back of the heart and contains the _____.
 Definition
POSTERIOR CORONARY ARTERY
Term
92.   The trabeculae carnae consists of 2 components which are the _____ and the _____.
 Definition
CORDAE TENDINAE AND PAPILLARY MUSCLES
Term
93.   The _____ of the trabeculae carnae are little tendons that attach to valve leaflets.
 Definition
CORDAE TENDINAE
Term
94.   The _____ of the trabeculae carnae contract during ventricular contractions and tug on the cordae tendinae.
 Definition
PAPILLARY MUSCLES
Term
95.   The _____ are one way valves that allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles.
 Definition
ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVES
Term
96.   The _____ is the atrioventricular valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
 Definition
TRICUSPID VALVE
Term
97.   The _____ is the atrioventricular valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle.
 Definition
BICUSPID (MITRAL) VALVE
Term
98.   The atrioventricular valves are connected to papillary muscles by _____.
 Definition
CHORDAE TENDINAE
Term
99.   6 great vessels associated with the heart.
 Definition
1) PULMONARY TRUNK, 2) RIGHT AND LEFT PULMONARY ARTERY, 3) PULMONARY VEIN, 4) AORTA, 5) SVC, 6) IVC
Term
100.                        The left coronary artery (left main) branches in the interventricular sulcus to form the _____ and _____ arteries that supply the lateral wall to the posterior aspect of the heart.
 Definition
LEFT ANTERIOR DESCENDING BRANCH (ANTERIOR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY) AND CIRCUMFLEX BRANCH
Term
101.                        The _____ is often the first artery to get clogged with coronary disease.
 Definition
LEFT ANTERIOR DESCENDING BRANCH (ANTERIOR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY)
Term
102.                        The left anterior descending branch of the anterior interventricular artery has offshoots called _____, which run on the anterior interventricular sulcus.
 Definition
DIAGONALS
Term
103.                        The left anterior descending branch of the anterior interventricular artery supplies these 3 structures.
 Definition
1) ANTERIOR LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) SEPTUM, 3) SOME OF THE RIGHT VENTRICLE
Term
104.                        The _____ is a branch off the left coronary artery that proceeds laterally and travels to the back of the heart.
 Definition
CIRCUMFLEX ARTERY
Term
105.                        Off-shoots of the circumflex artery are called _____.
 Definition
OBTUSE MARGINALS
Term
106.                        The right coronary artery lies distal to the aorta and continues around to the back of the heart and becomes the _____.
 Definition
POSTEIROR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY
Term
107.                        4 things supplied by the right coronary artery.
 Definition
1) RIGHT ATRIUM, 2) RIGHT LATERAL WALL, 3) RIGHT POSTERIOR WALL, 4) ANY ANTERIOR WALL NOT SERVICED BY THE LAD
Term
108.                        If a blockage occurs _____in the right coronary artery it more significant in that it will affect more structures of the heart.
 Definition
HIGHER
Term
109.                        20% of the venous blood returned to the heart enters the _____, while 80% enters the _____.
 Definition
RIGHT ATRIUM, CORONARY SINUS
Term
110.                        The direction of the venous drainage from the heart is from the _____ to the _____.
 Definition
APEX TO THE BASE
Term
111.                        The _____ runs with the left anterior descending artery in the coronary sinus to the right atrium.
 Definition
GREAT CARDIAC VEIN
Term
112.                        The _____ runs from the right side of the heart with the right coronary artery and flips around the back to the right atrium.
 Definition
SMALL CARDIAC VEIN
Term
113.                        The _____ is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium of the heart.
 Definition
CORONARY SINUS
Term
114.                        The coronary sinus delivers deoxygenated blood to the _____.
 Definition
RIGHT ATRIUM
Term
115.                        Coronaries of the coronary sinus are embedded in the _____.
 Definition
AORTIC VALVE
Term
116.                        Venous blood from the body enters the SVC and IVC and is dumped into the _____.
 Definition
RIGHT ATRIUM
Term
117.                        From the right atrium, blood passes through the _____ into the right ventricle.
 Definition
TRICUSPID VALVE
Term
118.                        From the right ventricle blood is pumped through the _____ into the pulmonary trunk.
 Definition
PULMONARY SEMILUNAR VALVES
Term
119.                        The blood then enters the pulmonary arteries and travels to the lungs where _____ occurs.
 Definition
GAS EXCHANGE
Term
120.                        From the lungs blood comes back to the heart through the pulmonary veins and enters the _____.
 Definition
LEFT ATRIUM
Term
121.                        From the left atrium blood passes through the _____ to the left ventricle.
 Definition
MITRAL VALVE
Term
122.                        From the left ventricle blood is pumped through the _____ into the aorta to supply the body.
 Definition
AORTIC VALVE
Term
123.                        _____ is a mechanism saying that the atrium and ventricles fill together and contract together.
 Definition
SYNCTIUM
Term
124.                        _____ is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the AV valves are opened and the SL valves are closed. Blood flows passively through the atria into the ventricles until _____% of the ventricles are full.
 Definition
VENTRICULAR DIASTOLE; 70%
Term
125.                        _____ is contraction of the atria causing the remaining 30% of the blood to fill the ventricles, it occurs in the later part of the ventricular diastole.
 Definition
ATRIAL SYSTOLE
Term
126.                        At the end of atrial systole, each ventricle contains an _____ in which the atria are full and ready to go.
 Definition
END-DIASTOLIC VOLUME
Term
127.                        The end diastolic volume contains about _____mL of blood.
 Definition
130ML
Term
128.                        Right after atrial systole, _____ occurs in which there is relaxation of the atrium.
 Definition
ATRIA DIASTOLE
Term
129.                        _____ is the contractile phase of the ventricles when contraction begins in the ventricles due to the myocytes causing the ventricular pressure to rise.
 Definition
VENTRICUAR SYSTOLE
Term
130.                        When is the first heart sound heard?
 Definition
DRUING THE CLOSING OF THE AV VALVES OF VENTRICULAR SYSTOLE
Term
131.                        The first heart sound (S1) makes a _____ sound.
 Definition
LUB
Term
132.                        During ventricular systole, the _____ are contracting pulling on the chordae tendinae preventing the valve leaflets from ballooning backwards into the atria.
 Definition
PAPILLARY MUSCLES
Term
133.                        In ventricular systole, the SL valves remain closed as the pressure has not exceeded the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk. This brief period is called _____, because even though the ventricles are contacting, ejection has not occurred yet.
 Definition
ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION
Term
134.                        The amount of blood ejected from the heart during ventricular systole is called the _____.
 Definition
STROKE VOLUME
Term
135.                        The average stroke volume is _____.
 Definition
70ML
Term
136.                        The percentage of end diastolic volume ejected is called the _____, which is approximately _____%.
 Definition
EJECTION FRACTION; 50-60%
Term
137.                        _____ is anything below 40% of an ejection fraction.
 Definition
HEART FAILURE
Term
138.                        If the ejection fraction reaches 10-20%, the patient should start looking for a _____.
 Definition
HEART TRANSPLANT
Term
139.                        The blood remaining in the heart after the stroke volume is ejected is called _____.
 Definition
END SYSTOLIC VOLUME
Term
140.                        What is the equation to calculate end systolic volume?
 Definition
END DIASTOLIC VOLUME – STROKE VOLUME = END SYSTOLIC VOLUME
Term
141.                        Right after ventricular systole, ventricular diastole occurs again. Very early in this phase, the blood that was just ejected from the ventricles causes the aorta and pulmonary arteries to stretch and recoil causing a _____.
 Definition
BACKWASH EFFECT
Term
142.                        What causes the 2nd heart sound?
 Definition
THE BACKWASH EFFECT CAUSING THE SEMILUNAR VALVES TO CLOSE EARLY IN VENTRICULAR DIASTOLE
Term
143.                        The 2nd heart sound makes the sound of _____.
 Definition
DUB
Term
144.                        At the time of the second heart sound, the SL valves are closed and the AV valves have not opened yet, therefore blood is not flowing into the ventricles. This early part of the ventricular diastole is called _____.
 Definition
ISOVOLUMETRIC RELAXATION
Term
145.                        As the pressure of the ventricles falls below that of the atria, the _____ open and the cycle begins again.
 Definition
AV VALVES
Term
146.                        When the AV valves close the _____ is heard.
 Definition
S1 HEART SOUND
Term
147.                        The normal ejection fraction is _____% of blood volume from when systole began.
 Definition
55-60%
Term
148.                        When the SL valves close in early diastole, the _____ is heard.
 Definition
S2 HEART SOUND
Term
149.                        In ventricular diastole, the 2nd heart sound is heard due to a _____, and a backwash of blood causing _____.
 Definition
PRESSURE DROP IN VENTRICLES; EMBOLUS
Term
150.                        When is the 3rd heart sound heard?
 Definition
DURING RAPID FILLING OF THE VENTRICLE IN EARLY DAISTOLE
Term
151.                        The 3rd heart sound appears to result from either _____, or from the _____.
 Definition
SUDDEN DECELERATION OF BLOOD AS THE ELASTIC LIMITS OF THE VENTRICULAR CHAMBER ARE REACHED; OR THE ACTUAL IMPACT OF THE VENTRICULAR WALL AGAINST THE CHEST WALL
Term
152.                        A 3rd heart sound is normal in _____ or _____.
 Definition
CHILDREN OR YOUNG ADULTS
Term
153.                        If the 3rd heart sound is heard in adults, its pathognomic for _____.
 Definition
VENTRICULAR FAILURE
Term
154.                        The _____ is an atrial contraction sound normally not heard, but if there is increased stiffness of the ventricle a low pitched sound at end-diastole occurs concomitantly with atrial contraction.
 Definition
4TH HEART SOUND (S4)
Term
155.                        The 4th heart sound is best heard _____, particularly when the patient is rolled over on the _____.
 Definition
LATERALLY AT THE APICAL IMPULSE; LEFT SIDE
Term
156.                        A 4th heart sound is commonly heard in any patient with _____.
 Definition
HEART FAILURE DUE TO DIASTOLIC DYSFUNCTION
Term
157.                        What causes S1 or 1st heart sound?
 Definition
WHEN THE AV VALVES CLOSE IN EARLY SYSTOLE
Term
158.                        When does the 2nd heart sound occur?
 Definition
WHEN SL VALVES CLOSE IN EARLY DIASTOLE
Term
159.                        6 phases of the cardiac cycle.
 Definition
1) QUIESCENT PERIOD, 2) ATRIAL SYSTOLE, 3) ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION, 4) VENTRICULAR EJECTION, 5) ISOVOLUMETRIC RELAXATION, 6) VENTRICULAR FILLING
Term
160.                        The _____ is located in the right atrium and acts as the pacemaker of the heart.
 Definition
SA NODE
Term
161.                        The SA node sends out _____ impulses per minute, and averages roughly _____.
 Definition
60-100; 60-80
Term
162.                        The SA node sends signals to the _____ located on the right atrium, which holds on to the spark for a bit of time (allowing for atrial blood to dump into the ventricles) and then stimulates the ventricles.
 Definition
AV NODE
Term
163.                        The AV node sends out _____ impulses per minute.
 Definition
40-60
Term
164.                        The AV node sends the impulses across the _____.
 Definition
AV BUNDLE (BUNDLE OF HIS)
Term
165.                        The signals received by the bundle of his cause the right and left bundle branches to _____.
 Definition
CONTRACT
Term
166.                        After the right and left bundle branches contract, the _____ then release the spark to the ventricular cells producing ventricular contraction.
 Definition
PURKINJE FIBERS
Term
167.                        The resting membrane potential is _____mV inside of the cell, causing the cell to be polarized.
 Definition
-90MV
Term
168.                        The threshold potential is _____mV.
 Definition
-60MV
Term
169.                        5 steps in the action potential of a ventricular monocyte.
 Definition
1) DEPOLARIZATION OCCURS WHEN VOLTAGE GATED SODIUM CHANNELS OPEN 2) SODIUM RUSHES INTO THE MYOCYTE; THE RESTING MEMBRANE POENTIAL IS DEPOLARIZED UNTIL IT REACHES THRESHOLD POTENTIAL. THIS CAUSES A POSITIVE FEEDBACK CYCLE AND A RAPIDLY RISING MEMBRANE VOLTAGE. 3) SODIUM CHANNELS CLOSE WHEN THE CELL DEPOLARIZES, AND THE VOLTAGE PEAKS AT NEARLY +30MV INSIDE THE CELL. 4) CALCIUM ENTERS THROUGH SLOW CALCIUM CHANNELS PROLONGING DEPOLARIZATION OF THE MEMBRANE, CREATING A PLATEAU. POTASSIUM LEAKAGE CAUSES THE PLATEAU TO FALL SLIGHTLY, BUT MOST POTASSIUM CHANNELS REMAIN CLOSED UNTIL THE END OF PLATEAU. CALCIUM ENGAGES TRYPONINS CAUSING CONTRACTION. 5) CALCIUM CHANNELS CLOSE AND CALCIUM IS TRANSPORTED OUT OF THE CELL. POTASSIUM CHANNELS OPEN AND THE RAPID POTASSIUM INFLUX RETURNS THE MEMBRANE TO RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL
Term
170.                        3 major waves formed in an ECG.
 Definition
1) P WAVE, 2) QRS COMPLEX, 3) T WAVE
Term
171.                        _____ in an ECG is when the atria have depolarized when the SA node sends the signal across the atria.
 Definition
P WAVE
Term
172.                        _____ in an ECG is when ventricular depolarization/contraction occurs causing a huge wav to result.
 Definition
QRS COMPLEX
Term
173.                        _____ in an ECG is when ventricular repolarization occurs.
 Definition
T WAVE
Term
174.                        Ventricular systole ends at the end of the _____.
 Definition
T WAVE
Term
175.                        SA node firing occurs in front of the _____.
 Definition
P WAVE
Term
176.                        _____ in an ECG is when the SA node signals purkinje fibers.
 Definition
PR-INTERVAL
Term
177.                        The PR-interval of an ECG gives us information about the _____.
 Definition
AV NODAL DELAY
Term
178.                        A longer PR interval shows us that _____.
 Definition
AV NODE IS MAKING RELAY LONGER THAN USUAL WHICH CAN BE A POTENTIAL AV NODE/HEART BLOCK
Term
179.                        If the AV node/heart block delays too much we will run into the QRS complex, and it will cause a _____.
 Definition
SKIPPED BEAT
Term
180.                        Athletes may have a _____ on their ECG which are variations of normal.
 Definition
T-WAVE INVERSION
Term
181.                        _____ of an ECG is when ventricular contraction is happening.
 Definition
ST SEGMENT
Term
182.                        _____ of an ECG shows ischemic hypoxia is occurring.
 Definition
ST SEGMENT DEPRESSION
Term
183.                        ST segment depression is clinically important in diagnosing _____.
 Definition
CORONARY ARTERY ISCHEMIA
Term
184.                        ST segment depression is found during a _____, when blood load is not sufficient to sustain activity.
 Definition
STRESS TEST
Term
185.                        Low blood levels indicate _____, while low O2 levels in blood indicate _____ due to blocked blood flow.
 Definition
ISCHEMIA, HYPOXIA
Term
186.                        _____ of an ECG indicates ischemic and acute myocardial injury.
 Definition
ST SEGMENT ELEVATION
Term
187.                        ST segment elevation indicates there is cell damage due to hypoxia such as in a _____ or _____.
 Definition
MYOCARDIAL INFRACTION OR HEART ATTACH
Term
188.                        The number 1 cause of cell injury is _____.
 Definition
ISCHEMIC HYPOXIA
Term
189.                        The 1st heart sound occurs in the _____ of an ECG.
 Definition
IN THE MIDDLE OF QRS
Term
190.                        The 2nd heart sound occurs in the _____ of an ECG.
 Definition
AT THE END OF THE T WAVE
Term
191.                        The 3rd heart sound occurs _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
BEFORE THE P WAVE
Term
192.                        The 4th heart sound occurs _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
IN THE P-Q SEGMENT
Term
193.                        _____ is when no heart contraction/response can occur.
 Definition
ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD
Term
194.                        The absolute refractory period occurs from phase _____ to _____.
 Definition
PHASE 0 TO MID PHASE 3
Term
195.                        The relative refractory period occurs from phase _____ to _____.
 Definition
PHASE 3 TO MID PHASE 4
Term
196.                        During the relative refractory period a _____ can occur which indicates a lethal arrhythmia that can be caused by a striking blow to the chest.
 Definition
R ON T PHENOMENON
Term
197.                        _____ is when the SA node is firing at 100 or more bpm.
 Definition
SINUS TACHYCARDIA
Term
198.                        _____ is when the SA node is firing at 60 or below bpm.
 Definition
SINUS BRADYCARDIA
Term
199.                        Sinus bradycardia can occur in _____ which is normal, or during _____ which is a major problem.
 Definition
ATHLETES; SA NODAL FAILURE
Term
200.                        _____ is when there is no SA node activity.
 Definition
NODAL RHYTHM
Term
201.                        If nodal rhythm occurs there are no _____ present in an ECG.
 Definition
P WAVES
Term
202.                        _____ is when there is many ectopic atrial foci firing at different rates causing a chaotic irregular atrial rhythm.
 Definition
ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
Term
203.                        If atrial fibrillation occurs, there is no distinct _____ in an ECG.
 Definition
P WAVE
Term
204.                        _____ is an irregular heart beat that comes and goes due to abnormal SA node firing.
 Definition
PAROXYSMAL SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
Term
205.                        This type of AV nodal block is when the PR interval gets longer with normal QRS intervals.
 Definition
1ST DEGREE
Term
206.                        This type of AV nodal block is when there is progressive lengthening of the PR intervals with subsequent cycles until there is a loss of QRS.
 Definition
MOBITZ TYPE 1 (WENCKEBACH)
Term
207.                        This type of AV nodal block is when there is random/frequent dropping of the QRS interval in an ECG.
 Definition
MOBITZ TYPE 2
Term
208.                        If a person has a mobitz type 2 AV nodal block, they should get a _____.
 Definition
PACE MAKER
Term
209.                        This type of AV nodal block is when there is no signal going to the AV node so there is no signal to the ventricles or no QRS.
 Definition
3RD DEGREE OR COMPLETE
Term
210.                        This type of AV nodal block is when there is an R wave from 1 side of the heart with a delayed R wave from the either side, causing 2 R waves with a QRRS interval.
 Definition
BUNDLE BRANCH BLOCK
Term
211.                        _____ on an ECG indicates there are early atrial contractions going on for no significant reason.
 Definition
PREMATURE ATRIAL CONTRACTIONS
Term
212.                        1 premature ventricular contraction is normal occasionally due to an _____.
 Definition
ECTOPIC FOCUS OF A VENTRICLE
Term
213.                        6 or more premature ventricular contractions per minute is _____.
 Definition
PATHOLOGICAL
Term
214.                        Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by too much _____.
 Definition
CAFFEINE
Term
215.                        _____ are premature ventricular contractions that are from different locations which is bad.
 Definition
MULTIFOCAL PVC’S
Term
216.                        _____ is when there is 2 PVC’s in a row.
 Definition
BIGEMINY
Term
217.                        _____ is when there is 3 PVC’s in a row.
 Definition
TRIGEMINY
Term
218.                        _____ is when there is 4 PVC’s in a row.
 Definition
QUADRIGEMINY
Term
219.                        A long compensatory pause occurs after a PVC because there is no _____.
 Definition
CARDIAC OUTPUT
Term
220.                        2 types of ventricular arrhythmias that are life threatening.
 Definition
1) VENTRICULAR TRACHYCARDIA, 2) VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION
Term
221.                        _____ is a life threatening condition produced by a single ventricular ectopic focus firing at a rate of 200-300bpm.
 Definition
VENTRICULAR TRACHYCARDIA
Term
222.                        Why is ventricular trachycardia considered a code?
 Definition
BECAUSE CARDIAC OUTPUT IS COMPROMISED
Term
223.                        _____ is a life threatening condition created by multi-focal PVC’s causing many ventricular ectopic firings.
 Definition
VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION
Term
224.                        Why is ventricular fibrillation considered a code?
 Definition
BECAUSE THERE IS NO CARIDAC OUTPUT
Term
225.                        Cardiac innervation of the heart is through both _____ and _____ nervous systems.
 Definition
SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC
Term
226.                        Parasympathetic nerves that innervate the heart come from the _____.
 Definition
BRAINSTEM
Term
227.                        _____ refers to the strength of contraction or contraction power of the heart.
 Definition
IONOTROPIC
Term
228.                        _____ refers to conduction velocity of the SA node to purkinje fiber relay.
 Definition
DROMOTROPIC
Term
229.                        There are B2 receptors for NE in the _____.
 Definition
LUNGS
Term
230.                        There are B1 receptors for NE in the _____.
 Definition
HEART
Term
231.                        The cardioacceleratory center works through the _____ system of the thoracic spinal cord.
 Definition
SYMPATHETIC
Term
232.                        The cardioaccleratory center sends sympathetic cardiac accelerator nerves to the _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
SA NODE, AV NODE, AND MYOCARDIUM
Term
233.                        The nerves of the cardioaccleratory center secrete _____, which bind to _____ in the heart and produces a _____ increasing the heart rate.
 Definition
NE, B-ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS, POSITIVE CHRONOTROPIC EFFECT
Term
234.                        The cardioinhibitory center sends signals via parasympathetic fibers in the _____ nerves to the _____ and _____.
 Definition
VAGUS NERVES, AV NODES, SA NODES
Term
235.                        _____% of parasympathetics are delivered to the heart via the vagus nerve.
 Definition
75.00000%
Term
236.                        _____ nerve of the cardioinhibitory center innervates mainly the SA node.
 Definition
RIGHT VAGUS NERVE
Term
237.                        The _____ of the cardioinhibitory center innervates the AV node.
 Definition
LEFT VAGUS NERVE
Term
238.                        The vagus nerve secretes _____, which bind to _____, and opens _____ in the nodal cells.
 Definition
ACH, MUSCARINIC RECEPTORS, POTASSIUM CHANNELS
Term
239.                        As potassium leaves the cells, the cells become _____ and fire less frequently slowing the heart down.
 Definition
HYPERPOLARIZED
Term
240.                        The vagus nerves maintain a background firing rate called the _____ that inhibits the nodes.
 Definition
VAGAL TONE
Term
241.                        If the vagus nerves to the heart are severed, the SA node fires at its own intrinsic frequency of approximate _____bpm.
 Definition
100BPM
Term
242.                        When the vagus nerve is intact, the vagal tone holds the heart rate down to the usual sinus rhythm of _____bpm.
 Definition
70-80BPM
Term
243.                        Cardiovascular control centers of the brain are found in these 6 structures.
 Definition
1) MEDULLA, 2) HYPOTHALAMUS, 3) LIMBIC SYSTEM, 4) CEREBRAL CORTEX, 5) THALAMUS, 6) INTERNEURONS
Term
244.                        The _____ is a reflexive response of the heart that increases the heart rate due to an increase of the right atrial pressure causing stretch of the local muscle spindles.
 Definition
BAINBRIDGE REFLEX
Term
245.                        The _____ is a reflexive response of the pressure sensor in the carotids and aortic arch that send info the cardio control center, causing an excitatory signal increasing the heart rate.
 Definition
BARORECEPTOR REFLEX
Term
246.                        3 factors that influence the cardiac center.
 Definition
1) CHEMORECEPTORS, 2) BARORECEPTORS, 3) PROPRIORECEPTORS
Term
247.                        _____ and _____ are potent cardiac stimulants secreted by the cardiac accelerator nerves and the adrenal medulla.
 Definition
EPINEPHRINE AND NOREPINEPHRINE
Term
248.                        Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in response to _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
STRESS, EXERCISE AND AROUSAL
Term
249.                        Epinephrine and norepinephrine act through _____ as a second messenger.
 Definition
cAMP
Term
250.                        _____ has a positive chronotropic effect caused by inhibiting the breakdown of cAMP.
 Definition
CAFFEINE
Term
251.                        _____ accelerates the heart by stimulating catecholamine secretion.
 Definition
NICOTINE
Term
252.                        _____ increases the number of adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle, making the heart more responsive to sympathetic stimulation, this increasing the heart rate.
 Definition
THYROID HORMONE
Term
253.                        _____ and _____ affect the excitability of myocardial cells, this leading to changes in an ECG.
 Definition
HYPERKALEMIA AND HYPOKALEMIA
Term
254.                        _____ is excess calcium which reduces the heart rate and _____ is calcium deficiency which increases the heart rate.
 Definition
HYPERCALEMIA, HYPOCALEMIA
Term
255.                        _____ pressure is related to the filling of the ventricles and is dependent on venous return.
 Definition
PRELOAD PRESSURE
Term
256.                        Preload pressure is determined by _____.
 Definition
END-DIASTOLE VOLUME
Term
257.                        _____ pressure is the resistance or impedance to ejection of blood from the left ventricle. It is the load the muscle must move after it starts to contract.
 Definition
AFTERLOAD PRESSURE
Term
258.                        Increased afterload pressure causes _____ against which the heart must function.
 Definition
HIGHER WORKLOADS
Term
259.                        Pressure in the ventricle must _____ aortic pressure before blood can be pumped out during systole.
 Definition
EXCEED
Term
260.                        Afterload pressure involves a _____ relationship, in that the lighter the afterload, the faster the contraction; and the heavier the afterload, the slower the contraction.
 Definition
FORCE-VELOCITY
Term
261.                        _____ states that the resting sarcomere length, expressed as the volume of blood In the heart at the end of diastole, is related to the tension generated in the development of left ventricular pressure. There is a direct relationship between the volume of blood at the end of diastole, and the force of contraction during the next systole.
 Definition
FRANK STARLING LAW
Term
262.                        _____ is a condition that usually follows a throat infection with group a beta-hemolytic streptococci 1-4 weeks after the initial infection.
 Definition
RHEUMATIC FEVER
Term
263.                        Rheumatic fever primarily affects school aged children between the ages of _____.
 Definition
41044
Term
264.                        Rheumatic fever can affect all _____.
 Definition
3 LAYERS OF THE HEART
Term
265.                        Rheumatic fever affecting the _____ and _____ are the most disabling.
 Definition
ENDOCARDIUM AND VALVULAR STRUCTURES
Term
266.                        _____ and _____ valves are the most commonly affected by rheumatic fever.
 Definition
MITRAL AND AORTIC VALVES
Term
267.                        If rheumatic fever affects vulvar structures they can become _____ and _____.
 Definition
REDDENED AND SWOLLEN
Term
268.                        When rheumatic fever affects the heart, _____ develop on valve leaflets.
 Definition
SMALL VEGATATIVE LESIONS
Term
269.                        Post rheumatic fever, _____ development causes deformity of valve leaflets and shortening of chordae tendinae.
 Definition
FIBROUS SCAR TISSUE DEVELOPMENT
Term
270.                        5 manifestations of rheumatic fever.
 Definition
1) CARDITIS, 2) POLYARTHRITIS, 3) CHORA, 4) ERYTHMEA MARGINATUM, 5) SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES
Term
271.                        If carditis develops in a patient with rheumatic fever and they previously had a heart murmur, there can be a change in the _____.
 Definition
EXISTING HEART MUMUR
Term
272.                        If carditis occurs in a patient with rheumatic fever _____ can occur and a doctor will hear _____ upon auscultation.
 Definition
CARDIOMEGALY, FRICTION RUBS
Term
273.                        Rheumatic fever causing carditis can lead to _____ in a child without discernible cause.
 Definition
CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE
Term
274.                        _____ is the most common finding in patients with rheumatic fever, and it occurs in 95% of the cases.
 Definition
POLYARTHRITIS
Term
275.                        If polyarthritis occurs in a patient with rheumatic fever, the inflammatory process affect the synovial membrane of the joint causing _____, _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
HEAT, REDNESS, PAIN AND LIMITED ROM
Term
276.                        _____ joints are usually affected by polyarthritic rheumatic fever such as the kness, ankles, elbows and wrists.
 Definition
LARGE JOINTS
Term
277.                        Polyarthritis is almost always _____, affecting one joint and moving to another.
 Definition
MIGRATORY
Term
278.                        The polyarthritis of rheumatic fever can last up to _____.
 Definition
4 WEEKS
Term
279.                        _____ is the major CNS manifestation of rheumatic fever.
 Definition
SYDENHAM’S CHOREA
Term
280.                        Syndenham’s chorea is most frequently found in _____.
 Definition
GIRLS
Term
281.                        4 symptoms of syndeham’s chorea.
 Definition
1) CHILD IS FIDGETY, 2) CLUMSY WALK, 3) DROPS THINGS, 4) CRIES EASILY
Term
282.                        If a patient with rheumatic fever develops chorea, the choreic movements are spontaneous and purposeless _____ movements that interfere with voluntary activities.
 Definition
JERKING MOVEMENTS
Term
283.                        The chorea associated with rheumatic fever usually resolves in a _____ or _____.
 Definition
FEW WEEKS OR MONTHS
Term
284.                        _____ is a condition associated with rheumatic fever when there are maplike macular areas most commonly seen on the trunk or inner aspects of the upper arm and thigh.
 Definition
ERYTHEMA MARGINATUM
Term
285.                        Erythema marginatum presents in only about _____% of rheumatic fever patients.
 Definition
10.00000%
Term
286.                        _____ is a condition associated with rheumatic fever when there are 1-4cm nodules that present as hard painless freely movable structures.
 Definition
SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES
Term
287.                        Subcutaneous nodules lie over the extensor surfaces of _____, _____, _____, and _____.
 Definition
WRISTS, ANKLES, KNEES AND ELBOWS
Term
288.                        _____ states that the presence of 2 major or one major and two minor criteria indicate a high probability of acute rheumatic fever, if supported by evidence of a preceding group A streptococcal infection.
 Definition
JONES CRITERIA
Term
289.                        Lab work will show these 3 indications of rheumatic fever.
 Definition
1) ELEVATION OF WBC, 2) C-REACTIVE PROTEIN, 3) ESR
Term
290.                        A throat culture of a patient with rheumatic fever they will test positive for _____.
 Definition
GROUP A BETA-HEMOLTIC STREPTOCOCCUS
Term
291.                        5 major manifestations of Jones criteria in regards to rheumatic fever.
 Definition
1) CARDITIS, 2) POLYARTHRITIS, 3) CHOREA, 4) ERYTHMEA MARGINATUM, 5) SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES
Term
292.                        4 minor manifestations of Jones criteria in regards to rheumatic fever.
 Definition
1) HISTORY OF PREVIOUS RHEUMATIC FEVER OR RHEUMATIC HEART DISEASE, 2) ARTHRALGIA, 3) FEVER, 4) ELEVATED LABORATORY FINDINGS
Term
293.                        A prolonged _____ on an ECG supports evidence of a streptococcal infection.
 Definition
PR INTERVAL
Term
294.                        4 treatments of rheumatic fever.
 Definition
1) ANTIBIOTICS, 2) ANTIINFLAMMATORY DRUGS, 3) RESTRICTION OF PHYSCIAL ACTIVITY, 4) PROPHYLACTIC USE OF PENICILLIN
Term
295.                        The pathophysiology of _____ consists of a characteristic vegetative lesion found loosely attached to the free edges of the valve surface. Fragments of these lesions are carried by the blood to give rise to small hemorrhages, abscesses and infarcted areas in other parts of the body.
 Definition
BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS
Term
296.                        4 causes of bacterial endocarditis.
 Definition
1) STREPTOCOCCUS VIRIDANS, 2) FUNGI, 3) GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA, 4) STAPHYLOCOCCI
Term
297.                        _____ is the most common cause of bacteria endocarditis.
 Definition
STREPTOCOCCUS VIRIDANS
Term
298.                        2 predisposing factors that may lead to bacterial endocarditis.
 Definition
1) A DAMAGED ENDOCARDIAL SURFACE, 2) BACTEREMIA DUE TO RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTION, SKIN LESIONS, OR A DENTAL PROCEDURE
Term
299.                        Subacute bacterial endocarditis affects individuals with _____.
 Definition
PREVIOUSLY DAMAGED HEARTS
Term
300.                        Symptoms of subacute bacterial endocarditis include a _____.
 Definition
LOW GRADE FEVER OF GRADUAL ONSET
Term
301.                        Subacute bacterial endocarditis is frequently accompanied by other signs of inflammation such as _____, _____ and _____.
 Definition
ANOREXIA, MALAISE, AND LETHARGY
Term
302.                        In subacute bacterial endocarditis, _____ frequently result when emboli lodge in small vessels of the skin, nail beds, and mucous membranes. Cough, dyspnea, arthralgia, diarrhea, and abdominal pain may occur as a result of systemic emboli.
 Definition
SMALL PETECHIAL HEMORRHAGES
Term
303.                        _____ affects individuals with normal hearts, and symptoms include a spiking fever accompanied with chills, evidence of a murmur, and evidence of embolic distribution of vegetative lesions.
 Definition
ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS
Term
304.                        _____ is the most definitive diagnostic procedure used to identify subacute and acute bacterial endocarditis.
 Definition
BLOOD CULTURES
Term
305.                        3 treatments of subacute and acute bacterial endocarditis.
 Definition
1) ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY, 2) MINIMIZE CARDIAC EFFECTS, 3) TREAT THE PATHOLOGY INDUCED BY THE EMBOLI
Term
306.                        _____ is when the valve orifice of the heart is constricted impeding the forward flow of blood. It causes an increased work demand on the chamber preceding valve, and increased pressure in the chamber to overcome resistance flow.
 Definition
STENOSIS
Term
307.                        Stenosis of a heart valve will eventually lead to _____ of the chamber.
 Definition
HYPERTROPHY
Term
308.                        _____ leads to increased resistance to blood flow in the aorta, and decreased volume of blood ejected into systemic circulation.
 Definition
AORTIC VALVE STENOSIS
Term
309.                        Aortic valve stenosis can be caused by either _____ or _____.
 Definition
RHEUMATIC FEVER OR CONGENITAL HEART DEFECTS
Term
310.                        Aortic valve stenosis leads to an increased work demand on the _____.
 Definition
LEFT VENTRICLE
Term
311.                        Obstruction of aortic blood flow associate with an aortic valve stenosis leads to these 3 things.
 Definition
1) DECREASE IN STROKE VOLUME, 2) REDUCED SYSTOLIC BP, 3) AUSCULATORY MURMUR DURING SYSTOLE
Term
312.                        4 symptoms of aortic valve stenosis.
 Definition
1) EXETIONAL DYSPNEA, 2) VERTIGO, 3) SYNCOPE, 4) ANGINA
Term
313.                        5 side effects associated with mitral valve stenosis.
 Definition
1) INCREASED RESISTANCE TO BLOOD FLOW INTO THE LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) INCREASED LEFT ATRIAL PRESSURE LEADING TO DILATION OF THE LEFT ATRIUM, 3) PULMONARY CONGESTION, 4) DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT DURING EXTREME EXERTION, 5) PULMONARY HYPERTENSION LEADING TO RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE
Term
314.                        _____ is due to an incompetent or insufficient valve that permits blood flow to continue while the valve is closed. If this occurs the work demands of both the heart chambers in from and in back of the affected valve are increased.
 Definition
REGURGITATION
Term
315.                        _____ is the number 1 cause of aortic valve regurgitation.
 Definition
RHEUMATIC FEVER
Term
316.                        If aortic valve regurgitation is present there is a _____ due to increase in systolic pressure, and a decrease in diastolic pressure.
 Definition
WIDENING OF PULSE PRESSURE
Term
317.                        3 conditions associated with aortic valve regurgitation.
 Definition
1) HYPERTROPHY OF LEFT VENTRICLE DUE TO INCREASED VOLUME LOAD, 2) HIGH PITCHED MURMUR DURING DIASTOLE, 3) EVIDENCE OF A WATERHAMMER PULSE
Term
318.                        4 causes of mitral valve regurgitation.
 Definition
1) RHEUMATIC FEV, 2) RUPTURE OF CHORDAE TENDINAE, 3) PAPILLARY MUSCLE DYSFUCNTION, 4) STRETCHING OF VALVE STRUCTURES SECONDARY TO DILATION OF THE LEFT VENTRICLE
Term
319.                        In mitral valve regurgitation, blood from the left ventricle is forced back into the left atrium during _____.
 Definition
SYSTOLE
Term
320.                        4 conditions associated with mitral valve regurgitation.
 Definition
1) DILATION/ENLARGING OF LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) LEFT VENTRICLE DYSFUNCTION CAUSING PULMONARY HYPERTENSION, 3) PANSYSTOLIC MURMUR
Term
321.                        When do you hear a murmur?
 Definition
IN STENOSIS AND REGURGITATION FOR SYSTOLE AND DIASTOLE
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