Term
| The _____ is a 4 chambered structure located in the mediastinal space between the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ of the heart is located in the mediastinal space. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the top side of the heart pointing towards the right shoulder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ of the heart is positioned downward, forward and to the left. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The apex of the heart is located in the _____. |
|
Definition
| LEFT 5TH INTERCOSTAL SPACE |
|
|
Term
| The apex of the heart is important in that it is the location of there you take the _____. |
|
Definition
| APICAL PULSE (PMI CAN BE PALPATED) |
|
|
Term
| The average size of the heart is _____, and if it is bigger than _____ is possible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is a translucent double membranous walled sac that encases the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the outer layer of pericardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parietal pericardium is anchored to the _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parietal pericardium is made up of two layers which is the _____ and the _____. |
|
Definition
| FIBROUS LAYER AND SEROUS LAYER |
|
|
Term
| The _____ layer of the parietal pericardium is the outermost tough component. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 functions of the fibrous layer of the parietal pericardium. |
|
Definition
| 1) PROTECION FROM INFECTION, 2) PROTECTION FROM TRAUMA, 3) SECURITY SURVEILANCE AGAINST OTHER DISEASES |
|
|
Term
| The _____ layer of the parietal pericardium is the innermost layer that secretes fluid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parietal pericardium folds over to sealing the heart in a layer called the _____. |
|
Definition
| VISCERAL PERICARDIUM (EPICARDIUM) |
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the space between the visceral and parietal pericardium that holds pericardial fluids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fluids in the pericardial cavity serve these 2 functions. |
|
Definition
| 1) ACTS AS A LUBRICANT TO PROVIDE FRICTION FREE MOVEMENTS, 2) ALLOWS THE HEART BEAT WITH EASE |
|
|
Term
| The parietal fluid in the parietal cavity is clear to straw in color, and it is considered an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition where there is an excess of pericardial fluid in the pericardial cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are 4 different types of fluids that cause pericardial effusion, they are… |
|
Definition
| 1) SEROUS FLUID, 2) FIBROUS FLUID, 3) POSTLANT FLUID, 4) AMOUNT OF FLUID |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition that has pericardial effusion associated with bleeding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemopericardium is associated with these 3 conditions. |
|
Definition
| 1) TUBERCULOSIS, 2) PURULENT ORGANSISMS, 3) NEOPLASMS |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition that consists of pussy pericarditis. There is suppurative exudate that contains a lot of white blood cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a life threatening condition when pericardial fluid accumulates rapidly causing smothering effect on the heart. It comprises the great vessels and the filling/pumping actions of the heart are suppressed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of cardiac tamponade? |
|
Definition
| CARDIAC WINDOW (GO IN BELOW THE BREAST AND SYRINGE OUT EXCESS FLUID) |
|
|
Term
| _____ is inflammation of the pericardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 causes of pericarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) INFECTIOUS SOURCES, 2) IMMUNE-MEDIATED REACTIONS, 3) MISCELLANEOUS CAUSES |
|
|
Term
| 5 infectious causes of pericarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) VIRUSES, 2) PYOGENIC BACTERIA, 3) TUBERCULOSIS, 4) FUNGI, 5) OTHER PARASITES |
|
|
Term
| 7 immune-mediated reactions (autoimmune) that cause pericarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) RHEUMATIC FEVER, 2) LUPUS, 3) SLE, 4) SCLERODERMA, 5) POSTCARDIOTOMY, 6) RESSLER SYNDROME, 7) DRUG SENSITIVITY REACTION |
|
|
Term
| 8 miscellaneous causes of pericarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) MYOCARDIAL INFRACTION, 2) UREMIA, 3) NEOPLASM, 4) RADIATION, 5) POST CARDIAC SURGERY, 6) NEOPLASIA, 7) TRAUMA, 8) RADIATION |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a life threatening condition that consists of a rapid influx of fluid into the parietal cavity, causing the pericardium to extend to its maximum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of pericardial tamponade? |
|
Definition
| PERICARDIAL SYNTHESIS (DRAW FLUID OUT) |
|
|
Term
| Open heart surgeries have to cut up the pericardium, and it is not sown up again. Therefore after the surgery the heart may _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when there is an accumulation of serous exudates from autoimmune complexes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In serous pericarditis the fluid accumulates _____, so there is no scar tissue or adhesions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does serous pericarditis heal? |
|
Definition
| IT HEALS ON ITS OWN WITH NO SCAR TISSUE OR ADHESIONS |
|
|
Term
| _____ is the most common/frequent type of pericarditis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when the serous fluid is mixed with fibrin forming clotting factors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A classic symptom of fibrinous pericarditis is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient with fibrinous pericarditis will present with these 2 symptoms. |
|
Definition
| 1) FRICTION RUBS, 2) SHARP AND LOCALIZED CHEST PAINS WHAT ARE MORE PRONOUNCED DURING RESPIRATION |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between angina and the pain associated with fibrinous pericarditis? |
|
Definition
| THE PAIN FROM ANGINA DOES NOT CHANGE WHEN BREATHING |
|
|
Term
| What is the outcome of fibrinous pericarditis? |
|
Definition
| IT CAN COMPLETELY RESOLVE, OR SCAR TISSUES AND ADHESIONS MAY OCCUR |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of acute pericarditis when there is an accumulation of pussy fluid. It is associated with an infection invasion from somewhere else in the body such as blood or lymph. |
|
Definition
| PURULENT/SUPPURATIVE PERICARDITIS |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a major cause of purulent/suppurative pericarditis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If somebody has purulent/supporative pericarditis they will present with a _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resolution of purulent/suppurative pericarditis is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The usual outcome of purulent/suppurative pericarditis is _____ in when scar tissue and adhesions form interfering with pumping of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of acute pericarditis is when there is blood mixed with purulent effusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemorrhagic pericarditis is associated with these 3 causes. |
|
Definition
| 1) TB, 2) CANCER, 3) CLINICAL LEADING OR ORGANIZATIONAL HEALING |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a rare type of acute pericarditis caused by TB or fungal infections. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Casseous pericarditis is a common cause of _____, which leads to some disability and organization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the usual outcome of casseous pericarditis with some scar tissue and ashesions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In healed pericarditis we can have either resolution or organization. In some cases the pericardium will be _____ which is how adhesions get outside the pericardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of healed pericarditis caused by a benign condition. Cardiac function may not be hampered, and it is obscure in origin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a type of healed pericarditis when there is adhesions of parietal peritoneum to contiguous structures causing stress and strain with each heartbeat pulling on the structures. |
|
Definition
| ADHESIVE MEDIASTINOPERICARDITIS |
|
|
Term
| Adhesive mediastinopericarditis can cause the parietal pericardium to adhere to these 3 places. |
|
Definition
| 1) TRACHEA, 2) THYMUS, 3) STERNUM |
|
|
Term
| In adhesive mediastinopericarditis the workload is increased leading to _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| CARDIAC HYPERTROPHY AND DILATION OF THE CHAMBERS INSIDE |
|
|
Term
| The end result of adhesive mediastinopericarditis is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a life threatening form of healed pericarditis in which the heart is contained in a dense, fibrous, fibrocalcified scar that forms a smothering effect. |
|
Definition
| CONSTRICTIVE PERICARDITIS |
|
|
Term
| If constrictive pericarditis occurs there is no _____ or _____ of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If constrictive pericarditis occurs, usually _____ is eminent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The heart muscle itself as well as the muscle cells are called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the innermost smooth myocardial membranous lining of the chambers, valve structures and great vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood needs to be _____ or it will clot. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the endocardium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The outermost smooth myocardial layer is called _____, and it is much slicker compared to the endocardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the epicardium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ are the innermost component of cardiac muscle cells that line the surface of the ventricles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ are the muscular projections that line the surface of the atria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is muscle tissue coalescing with a meshwork of cartilaginous and elastic tissue forming a framework for the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 purposes of the fibrous skeleton of the heart. |
|
Definition
| 1) TO PROVIDE STRUCTURAL SUPPORT FOR THE HEART, ESPECIALLY AROUND VALVES AND THE OPENINGS OF GREAT VESSELS, 2) GIVES CARDIAC MUSCLES SOMETHING TO PULL AGAINST, 3) TO SERVE AS A NON-CONDUCTOR OF ELECTRICITY LIMITING THE ROOT SYSTEM FOR ELECTRICAL CIRCUITRY OF THE HEART |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac muscle consists of _____ and _____ fibers that are relatively short, thick and branched. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of cardiac cells being striated and interwoven? |
|
Definition
| IT HELPS FACILITATE ELECTRICITY TRANSMISSION ALONG THE CARDIAC CELLS |
|
|
Term
| What type of nuclei do cardiac cells have? |
|
Definition
| 1 CENTRALLY LOCATED NUCLEUS |
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the calcium storage center of cardiac muscles that consists of a net-like encasing of myofibrils. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The sarcoplasm reticulum has _____ associated with the T (transverse) tubercles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ are the component of cardiac muscle that supplement calcium from the ECF into the cell during excitation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac muscle cells themselves are referred to as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cardiocytes are joined end to end by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are interdigitating folds used to increase the surface area of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a broad where actin filaments are anchored to the plasma membrane, and they allow for fascia adherence. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mechanical junction cells are linked to one another via _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are connectors along the fascia of the heart located along the intercaliated discs. They prevent the cardiocytes from pulling apart when the heart contracts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are gap junctions that act like little electrical tunnels allowing for membrane potential to be transmitted from 1 cardiocyte to the next. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the electrical junctions, ions flow from the _____ directly into the _____ enabling cardiocytes to electrically stimulate neighbor cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 2 atria of the heart are separated by a septum called the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 2 ventricles of the heart are separated by a septum called the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ of the heart are grooves that have vessels running in them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ sulci lies in the horizontal plane, and separates the atria from the ventricles. |
|
Definition
| ATRIOVENTRICULAR (CORONARY) SULCUS |
|
|
Term
| The anterior atrioventricular sulcus lies on the front of the heart and contains the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The posterior atrioventricular sulcus lies on the back of the heart and contains the _____. |
|
Definition
| POSTERIOR CORONARY ARTERY |
|
|
Term
| The trabeculae carnae consists of 2 components which are the _____ and the _____. |
|
Definition
| CORDAE TENDINAE AND PAPILLARY MUSCLES |
|
|
Term
| The _____ of the trabeculae carnae are little tendons that attach to valve leaflets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ of the trabeculae carnae contract during ventricular contractions and tug on the cordae tendinae. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ are one way valves that allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the atrioventricular valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is the atrioventricular valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The atrioventricular valves are connected to papillary muscles by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6 great vessels associated with the heart. |
|
Definition
| 1) PULMONARY TRUNK, 2) RIGHT AND LEFT PULMONARY ARTERY, 3) PULMONARY VEIN, 4) AORTA, 5) SVC, 6) IVC |
|
|
Term
| The left coronary artery (left main) branches in the interventricular sulcus to form the _____ and _____ arteries that supply the lateral wall to the posterior aspect of the heart. |
|
Definition
| LEFT ANTERIOR DESCENDING BRANCH (ANTERIOR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY) AND CIRCUMFLEX BRANCH |
|
|
Term
| The _____ is often the first artery to get clogged with coronary disease. |
|
Definition
| LEFT ANTERIOR DESCENDING BRANCH (ANTERIOR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY) |
|
|
Term
| The left anterior descending branch of the anterior interventricular artery has offshoots called _____, which run on the anterior interventricular sulcus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The left anterior descending branch of the anterior interventricular artery supplies these 3 structures. |
|
Definition
| 1) ANTERIOR LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) SEPTUM, 3) SOME OF THE RIGHT VENTRICLE |
|
|
Term
| The _____ is a branch off the left coronary artery that proceeds laterally and travels to the back of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Off-shoots of the circumflex artery are called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right coronary artery lies distal to the aorta and continues around to the back of the heart and becomes the _____. |
|
Definition
| POSTEIROR INTERVENTRICULAR ARTERY |
|
|
Term
| 4 things supplied by the right coronary artery. |
|
Definition
| 1) RIGHT ATRIUM, 2) RIGHT LATERAL WALL, 3) RIGHT POSTERIOR WALL, 4) ANY ANTERIOR WALL NOT SERVICED BY THE LAD |
|
|
Term
| If a blockage occurs _____in the right coronary artery it more significant in that it will affect more structures of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20% of the venous blood returned to the heart enters the _____, while 80% enters the _____. |
|
Definition
| RIGHT ATRIUM, CORONARY SINUS |
|
|
Term
| The direction of the venous drainage from the heart is from the _____ to the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ runs with the left anterior descending artery in the coronary sinus to the right atrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ runs from the right side of the heart with the right coronary artery and flips around the back to the right atrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The coronary sinus delivers deoxygenated blood to the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coronaries of the coronary sinus are embedded in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Venous blood from the body enters the SVC and IVC and is dumped into the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the right atrium, blood passes through the _____ into the right ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the right ventricle blood is pumped through the _____ into the pulmonary trunk. |
|
Definition
| PULMONARY SEMILUNAR VALVES |
|
|
Term
| The blood then enters the pulmonary arteries and travels to the lungs where _____ occurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the lungs blood comes back to the heart through the pulmonary veins and enters the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the left atrium blood passes through the _____ to the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the left ventricle blood is pumped through the _____ into the aorta to supply the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a mechanism saying that the atrium and ventricles fill together and contract together. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the AV valves are opened and the SL valves are closed. Blood flows passively through the atria into the ventricles until _____% of the ventricles are full. |
|
Definition
| VENTRICULAR DIASTOLE; 70% |
|
|
Term
| _____ is contraction of the atria causing the remaining 30% of the blood to fill the ventricles, it occurs in the later part of the ventricular diastole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the end of atrial systole, each ventricle contains an _____ in which the atria are full and ready to go. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The end diastolic volume contains about _____mL of blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Right after atrial systole, _____ occurs in which there is relaxation of the atrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the contractile phase of the ventricles when contraction begins in the ventricles due to the myocytes causing the ventricular pressure to rise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the first heart sound heard? |
|
Definition
| DRUING THE CLOSING OF THE AV VALVES OF VENTRICULAR SYSTOLE |
|
|
Term
| The first heart sound (S1) makes a _____ sound. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During ventricular systole, the _____ are contracting pulling on the chordae tendinae preventing the valve leaflets from ballooning backwards into the atria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In ventricular systole, the SL valves remain closed as the pressure has not exceeded the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk. This brief period is called _____, because even though the ventricles are contacting, ejection has not occurred yet. |
|
Definition
| ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION |
|
|
Term
| The amount of blood ejected from the heart during ventricular systole is called the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The average stroke volume is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The percentage of end diastolic volume ejected is called the _____, which is approximately _____%. |
|
Definition
| EJECTION FRACTION; 50-60% |
|
|
Term
| _____ is anything below 40% of an ejection fraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the ejection fraction reaches 10-20%, the patient should start looking for a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blood remaining in the heart after the stroke volume is ejected is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the equation to calculate end systolic volume? |
|
Definition
| END DIASTOLIC VOLUME – STROKE VOLUME = END SYSTOLIC VOLUME |
|
|
Term
| Right after ventricular systole, ventricular diastole occurs again. Very early in this phase, the blood that was just ejected from the ventricles causes the aorta and pulmonary arteries to stretch and recoil causing a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the 2nd heart sound? |
|
Definition
| THE BACKWASH EFFECT CAUSING THE SEMILUNAR VALVES TO CLOSE EARLY IN VENTRICULAR DIASTOLE |
|
|
Term
| The 2nd heart sound makes the sound of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the time of the second heart sound, the SL valves are closed and the AV valves have not opened yet, therefore blood is not flowing into the ventricles. This early part of the ventricular diastole is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As the pressure of the ventricles falls below that of the atria, the _____ open and the cycle begins again. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the AV valves close the _____ is heard. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal ejection fraction is _____% of blood volume from when systole began. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the SL valves close in early diastole, the _____ is heard. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In ventricular diastole, the 2nd heart sound is heard due to a _____, and a backwash of blood causing _____. |
|
Definition
| PRESSURE DROP IN VENTRICLES; EMBOLUS |
|
|
Term
| When is the 3rd heart sound heard? |
|
Definition
| DURING RAPID FILLING OF THE VENTRICLE IN EARLY DAISTOLE |
|
|
Term
| The 3rd heart sound appears to result from either _____, or from the _____. |
|
Definition
| SUDDEN DECELERATION OF BLOOD AS THE ELASTIC LIMITS OF THE VENTRICULAR CHAMBER ARE REACHED; OR THE ACTUAL IMPACT OF THE VENTRICULAR WALL AGAINST THE CHEST WALL |
|
|
Term
| A 3rd heart sound is normal in _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the 3rd heart sound is heard in adults, its pathognomic for _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is an atrial contraction sound normally not heard, but if there is increased stiffness of the ventricle a low pitched sound at end-diastole occurs concomitantly with atrial contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 4th heart sound is best heard _____, particularly when the patient is rolled over on the _____. |
|
Definition
| LATERALLY AT THE APICAL IMPULSE; LEFT SIDE |
|
|
Term
| A 4th heart sound is commonly heard in any patient with _____. |
|
Definition
| HEART FAILURE DUE TO DIASTOLIC DYSFUNCTION |
|
|
Term
| What causes S1 or 1st heart sound? |
|
Definition
| WHEN THE AV VALVES CLOSE IN EARLY SYSTOLE |
|
|
Term
| When does the 2nd heart sound occur? |
|
Definition
| WHEN SL VALVES CLOSE IN EARLY DIASTOLE |
|
|
Term
| 6 phases of the cardiac cycle. |
|
Definition
| 1) QUIESCENT PERIOD, 2) ATRIAL SYSTOLE, 3) ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION, 4) VENTRICULAR EJECTION, 5) ISOVOLUMETRIC RELAXATION, 6) VENTRICULAR FILLING |
|
|
Term
| The _____ is located in the right atrium and acts as the pacemaker of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The SA node sends out _____ impulses per minute, and averages roughly _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The SA node sends signals to the _____ located on the right atrium, which holds on to the spark for a bit of time (allowing for atrial blood to dump into the ventricles) and then stimulates the ventricles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The AV node sends out _____ impulses per minute. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The AV node sends the impulses across the _____. |
|
Definition
| AV BUNDLE (BUNDLE OF HIS) |
|
|
Term
| The signals received by the bundle of his cause the right and left bundle branches to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the right and left bundle branches contract, the _____ then release the spark to the ventricular cells producing ventricular contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The resting membrane potential is _____mV inside of the cell, causing the cell to be polarized. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The threshold potential is _____mV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 steps in the action potential of a ventricular monocyte. |
|
Definition
| 1) DEPOLARIZATION OCCURS WHEN VOLTAGE GATED SODIUM CHANNELS OPEN 2) SODIUM RUSHES INTO THE MYOCYTE; THE RESTING MEMBRANE POENTIAL IS DEPOLARIZED UNTIL IT REACHES THRESHOLD POTENTIAL. THIS CAUSES A POSITIVE FEEDBACK CYCLE AND A RAPIDLY RISING MEMBRANE VOLTAGE. 3) SODIUM CHANNELS CLOSE WHEN THE CELL DEPOLARIZES, AND THE VOLTAGE PEAKS AT NEARLY +30MV INSIDE THE CELL. 4) CALCIUM ENTERS THROUGH SLOW CALCIUM CHANNELS PROLONGING DEPOLARIZATION OF THE MEMBRANE, CREATING A PLATEAU. POTASSIUM LEAKAGE CAUSES THE PLATEAU TO FALL SLIGHTLY, BUT MOST POTASSIUM CHANNELS REMAIN CLOSED UNTIL THE END OF PLATEAU. CALCIUM ENGAGES TRYPONINS CAUSING CONTRACTION. 5) CALCIUM CHANNELS CLOSE AND CALCIUM IS TRANSPORTED OUT OF THE CELL. POTASSIUM CHANNELS OPEN AND THE RAPID POTASSIUM INFLUX RETURNS THE MEMBRANE TO RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL |
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Term
| 3 major waves formed in an ECG. |
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Definition
| 1) P WAVE, 2) QRS COMPLEX, 3) T WAVE |
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Term
| _____ in an ECG is when the atria have depolarized when the SA node sends the signal across the atria. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| _____ in an ECG is when ventricular depolarization/contraction occurs causing a huge wav to result. |
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Definition
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Term
| _____ in an ECG is when ventricular repolarization occurs. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Ventricular systole ends at the end of the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| SA node firing occurs in front of the _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ in an ECG is when the SA node signals purkinje fibers. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The PR-interval of an ECG gives us information about the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| A longer PR interval shows us that _____. |
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Definition
| AV NODE IS MAKING RELAY LONGER THAN USUAL WHICH CAN BE A POTENTIAL AV NODE/HEART BLOCK |
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Term
| If the AV node/heart block delays too much we will run into the QRS complex, and it will cause a _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Athletes may have a _____ on their ECG which are variations of normal. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ of an ECG is when ventricular contraction is happening. |
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Definition
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Term
| _____ of an ECG shows ischemic hypoxia is occurring. |
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Definition
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Term
| ST segment depression is clinically important in diagnosing _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| ST segment depression is found during a _____, when blood load is not sufficient to sustain activity. |
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Definition
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Term
| Low blood levels indicate _____, while low O2 levels in blood indicate _____ due to blocked blood flow. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ of an ECG indicates ischemic and acute myocardial injury. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| ST segment elevation indicates there is cell damage due to hypoxia such as in a _____ or _____. |
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Definition
| MYOCARDIAL INFRACTION OR HEART ATTACH |
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Term
| The number 1 cause of cell injury is _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The 1st heart sound occurs in the _____ of an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The 2nd heart sound occurs in the _____ of an ECG. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The 3rd heart sound occurs _____ in an ECG. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The 4th heart sound occurs _____ in an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when no heart contraction/response can occur. |
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Definition
| ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD |
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Term
| The absolute refractory period occurs from phase _____ to _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The relative refractory period occurs from phase _____ to _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| During the relative refractory period a _____ can occur which indicates a lethal arrhythmia that can be caused by a striking blow to the chest. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ is when the SA node is firing at 100 or more bpm. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when the SA node is firing at 60 or below bpm. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Sinus bradycardia can occur in _____ which is normal, or during _____ which is a major problem. |
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Definition
| ATHLETES; SA NODAL FAILURE |
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Term
| _____ is when there is no SA node activity. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| If nodal rhythm occurs there are no _____ present in an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when there is many ectopic atrial foci firing at different rates causing a chaotic irregular atrial rhythm. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| If atrial fibrillation occurs, there is no distinct _____ in an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is an irregular heart beat that comes and goes due to abnormal SA node firing. |
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Definition
| PAROXYSMAL SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA |
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Term
| This type of AV nodal block is when the PR interval gets longer with normal QRS intervals. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| This type of AV nodal block is when there is progressive lengthening of the PR intervals with subsequent cycles until there is a loss of QRS. |
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Definition
| MOBITZ TYPE 1 (WENCKEBACH) |
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Term
| This type of AV nodal block is when there is random/frequent dropping of the QRS interval in an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person has a mobitz type 2 AV nodal block, they should get a _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of AV nodal block is when there is no signal going to the AV node so there is no signal to the ventricles or no QRS. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of AV nodal block is when there is an R wave from 1 side of the heart with a delayed R wave from the either side, causing 2 R waves with a QRRS interval. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ on an ECG indicates there are early atrial contractions going on for no significant reason. |
|
Definition
| PREMATURE ATRIAL CONTRACTIONS |
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|
Term
| 1 premature ventricular contraction is normal occasionally due to an _____. |
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Definition
| ECTOPIC FOCUS OF A VENTRICLE |
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|
Term
| 6 or more premature ventricular contractions per minute is _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by too much _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are premature ventricular contractions that are from different locations which is bad. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when there is 2 PVC’s in a row. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when there is 3 PVC’s in a row. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is when there is 4 PVC’s in a row. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A long compensatory pause occurs after a PVC because there is no _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 types of ventricular arrhythmias that are life threatening. |
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Definition
| 1) VENTRICULAR TRACHYCARDIA, 2) VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION |
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|
Term
| _____ is a life threatening condition produced by a single ventricular ectopic focus firing at a rate of 200-300bpm. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is ventricular trachycardia considered a code? |
|
Definition
| BECAUSE CARDIAC OUTPUT IS COMPROMISED |
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|
Term
| _____ is a life threatening condition created by multi-focal PVC’s causing many ventricular ectopic firings. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is ventricular fibrillation considered a code? |
|
Definition
| BECAUSE THERE IS NO CARIDAC OUTPUT |
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|
Term
| Cardiac innervation of the heart is through both _____ and _____ nervous systems. |
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Definition
| SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC |
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Term
| Parasympathetic nerves that innervate the heart come from the _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ refers to the strength of contraction or contraction power of the heart. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ refers to conduction velocity of the SA node to purkinje fiber relay. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| There are B2 receptors for NE in the _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| There are B1 receptors for NE in the _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The cardioacceleratory center works through the _____ system of the thoracic spinal cord. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The cardioaccleratory center sends sympathetic cardiac accelerator nerves to the _____, _____ and _____. |
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Definition
| SA NODE, AV NODE, AND MYOCARDIUM |
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|
Term
| The nerves of the cardioaccleratory center secrete _____, which bind to _____ in the heart and produces a _____ increasing the heart rate. |
|
Definition
| NE, B-ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS, POSITIVE CHRONOTROPIC EFFECT |
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|
Term
| The cardioinhibitory center sends signals via parasympathetic fibers in the _____ nerves to the _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| VAGUS NERVES, AV NODES, SA NODES |
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|
Term
| _____% of parasympathetics are delivered to the heart via the vagus nerve. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ nerve of the cardioinhibitory center innervates mainly the SA node. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ of the cardioinhibitory center innervates the AV node. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The vagus nerve secretes _____, which bind to _____, and opens _____ in the nodal cells. |
|
Definition
| ACH, MUSCARINIC RECEPTORS, POTASSIUM CHANNELS |
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|
Term
| As potassium leaves the cells, the cells become _____ and fire less frequently slowing the heart down. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The vagus nerves maintain a background firing rate called the _____ that inhibits the nodes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the vagus nerves to the heart are severed, the SA node fires at its own intrinsic frequency of approximate _____bpm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the vagus nerve is intact, the vagal tone holds the heart rate down to the usual sinus rhythm of _____bpm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiovascular control centers of the brain are found in these 6 structures. |
|
Definition
| 1) MEDULLA, 2) HYPOTHALAMUS, 3) LIMBIC SYSTEM, 4) CEREBRAL CORTEX, 5) THALAMUS, 6) INTERNEURONS |
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|
Term
| The _____ is a reflexive response of the heart that increases the heart rate due to an increase of the right atrial pressure causing stretch of the local muscle spindles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ is a reflexive response of the pressure sensor in the carotids and aortic arch that send info the cardio control center, causing an excitatory signal increasing the heart rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 factors that influence the cardiac center. |
|
Definition
| 1) CHEMORECEPTORS, 2) BARORECEPTORS, 3) PROPRIORECEPTORS |
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|
Term
| _____ and _____ are potent cardiac stimulants secreted by the cardiac accelerator nerves and the adrenal medulla. |
|
Definition
| EPINEPHRINE AND NOREPINEPHRINE |
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|
Term
| Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in response to _____, _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| STRESS, EXERCISE AND AROUSAL |
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|
Term
| Epinephrine and norepinephrine act through _____ as a second messenger. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ has a positive chronotropic effect caused by inhibiting the breakdown of cAMP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ accelerates the heart by stimulating catecholamine secretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ increases the number of adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle, making the heart more responsive to sympathetic stimulation, this increasing the heart rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ and _____ affect the excitability of myocardial cells, this leading to changes in an ECG. |
|
Definition
| HYPERKALEMIA AND HYPOKALEMIA |
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|
Term
| _____ is excess calcium which reduces the heart rate and _____ is calcium deficiency which increases the heart rate. |
|
Definition
| HYPERCALEMIA, HYPOCALEMIA |
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|
Term
| _____ pressure is related to the filling of the ventricles and is dependent on venous return. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Preload pressure is determined by _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ pressure is the resistance or impedance to ejection of blood from the left ventricle. It is the load the muscle must move after it starts to contract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased afterload pressure causes _____ against which the heart must function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pressure in the ventricle must _____ aortic pressure before blood can be pumped out during systole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Afterload pressure involves a _____ relationship, in that the lighter the afterload, the faster the contraction; and the heavier the afterload, the slower the contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ states that the resting sarcomere length, expressed as the volume of blood In the heart at the end of diastole, is related to the tension generated in the development of left ventricular pressure. There is a direct relationship between the volume of blood at the end of diastole, and the force of contraction during the next systole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition that usually follows a throat infection with group a beta-hemolytic streptococci 1-4 weeks after the initial infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever primarily affects school aged children between the ages of _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever can affect all _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever affecting the _____ and _____ are the most disabling. |
|
Definition
| ENDOCARDIUM AND VALVULAR STRUCTURES |
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|
Term
| _____ and _____ valves are the most commonly affected by rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If rheumatic fever affects vulvar structures they can become _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When rheumatic fever affects the heart, _____ develop on valve leaflets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Post rheumatic fever, _____ development causes deformity of valve leaflets and shortening of chordae tendinae. |
|
Definition
| FIBROUS SCAR TISSUE DEVELOPMENT |
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|
Term
| 5 manifestations of rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
| 1) CARDITIS, 2) POLYARTHRITIS, 3) CHORA, 4) ERYTHMEA MARGINATUM, 5) SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES |
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|
Term
| If carditis develops in a patient with rheumatic fever and they previously had a heart murmur, there can be a change in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If carditis occurs in a patient with rheumatic fever _____ can occur and a doctor will hear _____ upon auscultation. |
|
Definition
| CARDIOMEGALY, FRICTION RUBS |
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|
Term
| Rheumatic fever causing carditis can lead to _____ in a child without discernible cause. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the most common finding in patients with rheumatic fever, and it occurs in 95% of the cases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If polyarthritis occurs in a patient with rheumatic fever, the inflammatory process affect the synovial membrane of the joint causing _____, _____, _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| HEAT, REDNESS, PAIN AND LIMITED ROM |
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|
Term
| _____ joints are usually affected by polyarthritic rheumatic fever such as the kness, ankles, elbows and wrists. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Polyarthritis is almost always _____, affecting one joint and moving to another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The polyarthritis of rheumatic fever can last up to _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the major CNS manifestation of rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Syndenham’s chorea is most frequently found in _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 symptoms of syndeham’s chorea. |
|
Definition
| 1) CHILD IS FIDGETY, 2) CLUMSY WALK, 3) DROPS THINGS, 4) CRIES EASILY |
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|
Term
| If a patient with rheumatic fever develops chorea, the choreic movements are spontaneous and purposeless _____ movements that interfere with voluntary activities. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The chorea associated with rheumatic fever usually resolves in a _____ or _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition associated with rheumatic fever when there are maplike macular areas most commonly seen on the trunk or inner aspects of the upper arm and thigh. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythema marginatum presents in only about _____% of rheumatic fever patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a condition associated with rheumatic fever when there are 1-4cm nodules that present as hard painless freely movable structures. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Subcutaneous nodules lie over the extensor surfaces of _____, _____, _____, and _____. |
|
Definition
| WRISTS, ANKLES, KNEES AND ELBOWS |
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|
Term
| _____ states that the presence of 2 major or one major and two minor criteria indicate a high probability of acute rheumatic fever, if supported by evidence of a preceding group A streptococcal infection. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Lab work will show these 3 indications of rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
| 1) ELEVATION OF WBC, 2) C-REACTIVE PROTEIN, 3) ESR |
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|
Term
| A throat culture of a patient with rheumatic fever they will test positive for _____. |
|
Definition
| GROUP A BETA-HEMOLTIC STREPTOCOCCUS |
|
|
Term
| 5 major manifestations of Jones criteria in regards to rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
| 1) CARDITIS, 2) POLYARTHRITIS, 3) CHOREA, 4) ERYTHMEA MARGINATUM, 5) SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES |
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|
Term
| 4 minor manifestations of Jones criteria in regards to rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
| 1) HISTORY OF PREVIOUS RHEUMATIC FEVER OR RHEUMATIC HEART DISEASE, 2) ARTHRALGIA, 3) FEVER, 4) ELEVATED LABORATORY FINDINGS |
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|
Term
| A prolonged _____ on an ECG supports evidence of a streptococcal infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 treatments of rheumatic fever. |
|
Definition
| 1) ANTIBIOTICS, 2) ANTIINFLAMMATORY DRUGS, 3) RESTRICTION OF PHYSCIAL ACTIVITY, 4) PROPHYLACTIC USE OF PENICILLIN |
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|
Term
| The pathophysiology of _____ consists of a characteristic vegetative lesion found loosely attached to the free edges of the valve surface. Fragments of these lesions are carried by the blood to give rise to small hemorrhages, abscesses and infarcted areas in other parts of the body. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 causes of bacterial endocarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) STREPTOCOCCUS VIRIDANS, 2) FUNGI, 3) GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA, 4) STAPHYLOCOCCI |
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|
Term
| _____ is the most common cause of bacteria endocarditis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 predisposing factors that may lead to bacterial endocarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) A DAMAGED ENDOCARDIAL SURFACE, 2) BACTEREMIA DUE TO RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTION, SKIN LESIONS, OR A DENTAL PROCEDURE |
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|
Term
| Subacute bacterial endocarditis affects individuals with _____. |
|
Definition
| PREVIOUSLY DAMAGED HEARTS |
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|
Term
| Symptoms of subacute bacterial endocarditis include a _____. |
|
Definition
| LOW GRADE FEVER OF GRADUAL ONSET |
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|
Term
| Subacute bacterial endocarditis is frequently accompanied by other signs of inflammation such as _____, _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| ANOREXIA, MALAISE, AND LETHARGY |
|
|
Term
| In subacute bacterial endocarditis, _____ frequently result when emboli lodge in small vessels of the skin, nail beds, and mucous membranes. Cough, dyspnea, arthralgia, diarrhea, and abdominal pain may occur as a result of systemic emboli. |
|
Definition
| SMALL PETECHIAL HEMORRHAGES |
|
|
Term
| _____ affects individuals with normal hearts, and symptoms include a spiking fever accompanied with chills, evidence of a murmur, and evidence of embolic distribution of vegetative lesions. |
|
Definition
| ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS |
|
|
Term
| _____ is the most definitive diagnostic procedure used to identify subacute and acute bacterial endocarditis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 treatments of subacute and acute bacterial endocarditis. |
|
Definition
| 1) ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY, 2) MINIMIZE CARDIAC EFFECTS, 3) TREAT THE PATHOLOGY INDUCED BY THE EMBOLI |
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|
Term
| _____ is when the valve orifice of the heart is constricted impeding the forward flow of blood. It causes an increased work demand on the chamber preceding valve, and increased pressure in the chamber to overcome resistance flow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stenosis of a heart valve will eventually lead to _____ of the chamber. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ leads to increased resistance to blood flow in the aorta, and decreased volume of blood ejected into systemic circulation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aortic valve stenosis can be caused by either _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
| RHEUMATIC FEVER OR CONGENITAL HEART DEFECTS |
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|
Term
| Aortic valve stenosis leads to an increased work demand on the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstruction of aortic blood flow associate with an aortic valve stenosis leads to these 3 things. |
|
Definition
| 1) DECREASE IN STROKE VOLUME, 2) REDUCED SYSTOLIC BP, 3) AUSCULATORY MURMUR DURING SYSTOLE |
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|
Term
| 4 symptoms of aortic valve stenosis. |
|
Definition
| 1) EXETIONAL DYSPNEA, 2) VERTIGO, 3) SYNCOPE, 4) ANGINA |
|
|
Term
| 5 side effects associated with mitral valve stenosis. |
|
Definition
| 1) INCREASED RESISTANCE TO BLOOD FLOW INTO THE LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) INCREASED LEFT ATRIAL PRESSURE LEADING TO DILATION OF THE LEFT ATRIUM, 3) PULMONARY CONGESTION, 4) DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT DURING EXTREME EXERTION, 5) PULMONARY HYPERTENSION LEADING TO RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE |
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|
Term
| _____ is due to an incompetent or insufficient valve that permits blood flow to continue while the valve is closed. If this occurs the work demands of both the heart chambers in from and in back of the affected valve are increased. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the number 1 cause of aortic valve regurgitation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If aortic valve regurgitation is present there is a _____ due to increase in systolic pressure, and a decrease in diastolic pressure. |
|
Definition
| WIDENING OF PULSE PRESSURE |
|
|
Term
| 3 conditions associated with aortic valve regurgitation. |
|
Definition
| 1) HYPERTROPHY OF LEFT VENTRICLE DUE TO INCREASED VOLUME LOAD, 2) HIGH PITCHED MURMUR DURING DIASTOLE, 3) EVIDENCE OF A WATERHAMMER PULSE |
|
|
Term
| 4 causes of mitral valve regurgitation. |
|
Definition
| 1) RHEUMATIC FEV, 2) RUPTURE OF CHORDAE TENDINAE, 3) PAPILLARY MUSCLE DYSFUCNTION, 4) STRETCHING OF VALVE STRUCTURES SECONDARY TO DILATION OF THE LEFT VENTRICLE |
|
|
Term
| In mitral valve regurgitation, blood from the left ventricle is forced back into the left atrium during _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 conditions associated with mitral valve regurgitation. |
|
Definition
| 1) DILATION/ENLARGING OF LEFT VENTRICLE, 2) LEFT VENTRICLE DYSFUNCTION CAUSING PULMONARY HYPERTENSION, 3) PANSYSTOLIC MURMUR |
|
|
Term
| When do you hear a murmur? |
|
Definition
| IN STENOSIS AND REGURGITATION FOR SYSTOLE AND DIASTOLE |
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|
