Term
____ Bone was once called the malar bone, consequently "malar flush" is redness of the skin covering the ______ and is associated with a rise in temperature in _____ & _____ diseases |
|
Definition
Zygomatic Bone
Zygomatic Prominence
TB & Systemic Lupus |
|
|
Term
A fracture of the mandible usually involves ____, which frequently occur at _____ |
|
Definition
two fractures
opposite sides of the mandible |
|
|
Term
A hard blow to the mandible usually fractures its ____ and its body in the region of the _______ |
|
Definition
Neck
opposite canine tooth |
|
|
Term
Fractures of the Coronoid process are uncommon and usually _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fractures of the neck of the mandible are often ______ and may often be associated with dislocation of the _____ joint on the ____ side |
|
Definition
Transverse
Tempromandibular Joint (TMJ)
Same |
|
|
Term
Fractures of the angle of the mandible are usually ____ and may involve the bony socket or alveolus of the ____ tooth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fractures of the body of the mandible frequently pass through the _____ |
|
Definition
socket of the canine tooth |
|
|
Term
extraction of teeth causes the bone to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
More resorbtion will cause the maxillary foramen to gradually move towards ______ and eventually to disappear exposing the _____ nerves to injury. |
|
Definition
The superior border of the mandible
Mental |
|
|
Term
Hard blows in the thin areas of the Clavaria are likely to produce ______ fractures, in which a bone fragment ____ compressing or injuring the _____ |
|
Definition
Depressed Fractures
depresses inward
brain |
|
|
Term
Linear Calvarial Fractures usually occur at ______, but fracture lines often _____ |
|
Definition
the point of impact
radiate away from it |
|
|
Term
If the area of the Clavaria is thick at the site of impact, the bone may ______; however a ______ may occur some distance away from the trauma where the Clavaria is _____. |
|
Definition
bend inward without fracturing
fracture
thinner |
|
|
Term
In a Contrecoup Fracture (____), ______ occurs |
|
Definition
Counterblow fracture
No fracture occurs at the point of impact, but one occurs on the opposite side of the cranium |
|
|
Term
Craniotomy vs Craniectomy |
|
Definition
In a Craniectomy the bone flap is not replaced |
|
|
Term
The bones of the calvaria and some parts of the cranial base develop by ______ ossification; most parts of the cranial base develop by _____ ossification. |
|
Definition
Intramembranous
Endochondral |
|
|
Term
In a newborn the frontal and parietal bones are separated by the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a newborn the maxillae are separated by the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a newborn the mandibles are separated by the _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are no ____ or _____ processes at birth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Because there are no Mastoid Processes at birth the _______ are close to the surface when they emerge from the stylomastoid formina and therefore can injured by ____ during delivery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bones of the calvaria of a newborn are separated by ______ intervals: ______ |
|
Definition
membranous
Anterior and Posterior Fontanelles and the paired Sphhenoidal and Mastoid Fontanelles |
|
|
Term
Palpation of the fontanelles allows a physician to determine the progress of growth of the ___ & ____ bones, the degree of ______, and the level of _______ |
|
Definition
Front & Parietal Bones
Hydration
Intracranial Pressure |
|
|
Term
A bulging fontanelle indicates _____ |
|
Definition
increased pressure on the brain |
|
|
Term
A depressed fontanelle indicates _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anterior fontanelle is bounded by the halves of the _____ bone anteriorly & the _____ one posteriorly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Anterior fontanelle is at the junction of the ________ sutures, the future site of ________ |
|
Definition
sagital, coronal, and frontal sutures
bregma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anatomical point on the skull at which the coronal suture is intersected perpendicularly by the sagittal suture |
|
|
Term
By ____ months the bones have fused and the Anterior fontanelle is no longer palpable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At birth the frontal bone consists of _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In most cases the frontal suture is obliterated by the _____ year, but in some a remnant of it, ______, persists. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The posterior fontanelle is bound anteriorly by the ____ bones and posteriorly by the _____ bones. |
|
Definition
parietal bones
occipital bones |
|
|
Term
posterior fontanelle is located at the junction of the ___ & ____ sutures, the future site of _____ |
|
Definition
Lambdoid and Sagital
Lambda |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The occipital angle is rounded and corresponds with the point of meeting of the sagittal and lambdoidal sutures |
|
|
Term
In a newborn the mandible consists of two halves and is united in the median plane by the _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Premature closure of the cranial sutures |
|
|
Term
Premature closure of the sagital suture results in a _____ shaped cranium, a condition called _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When premature closure of the coronal or the Lambdoid suture occurs on one side only, the cranium is ____ & _____, a condition known as ______ |
|
Definition
twisted and asymmetrical
plagiocephaly |
|
|
Term
Premature closure of the coronal suture results in a _______ cranium, called _____ or ______ |
|
Definition
high tower-like cranium
oxycephaly or turricephaly |
|
|
Term
Premature closure of sutures usually does not affect _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wrinkles and ridges form in the skin ____ to the direction of the facial muscle fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nerves and vessels of the scalp enter ____ and then _____ to the skin, consequently scalp flaps are made so that they remain attached ______ |
|
Definition
inferiorly
ascend up
inferiorly |
|
|
Term
The Calvaria is supplied by the ______ arteries |
|
Definition
middle meningeal arteries |
|
|
Term
Pus and blood spreads easily in the ____ layer of the scalp |
|
Definition
the 4th (loose connective tissue layer) |
|
|
Term
Infection in the 4th (loose connective tissue layer) of the scalp can spread into the Cranial cavity through the _____ veins, which pass through the _____ foramina in the calvaria, and reach intercranial structures such as the meninges. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scalp infection cannot spread laterally beyond _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Black Eyes" (Periorbital Ecchymosis) can result from an injury to the _____ or _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ecchymosis, or ______, develop as a result of extravasation of blood into the ______ tissue and skin of the _____ |
|
Definition
Purple Patches
subcutaneous
eyelids |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cephalhematoma can result from a difficult birth in which blood becomes trapped in between ____ & _____ especially over the _____ bone. This is due to the rupture of multiple minute _____ arteries that nourish the bones of the calvaria. |
|
Definition
Calvaria & Pericranium
Parietal
Periosteal |
|
|
Term
True Nasal Breathers can ______ |
|
Definition
Flare their nostrils distinctly |
|
|
Term
Habitual mouth breathing diminishes the ability to _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Injury to the Facial Nerve (CN VII) may produce paralysis to facial muscles, called _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The loss of tonus of the _____ muscle in Bell palsy causes the inferior eyelid to fall away from the surface of the eyeball. As a result ____ fluid is not spread over this area of the cornea leaving it vulnerable to _____ |
|
Definition
Orbicularis Oris
Lacrimal Fluid
Ulceration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is the anteriormost portion of the oral cavity. It is the space between the cheek/lips and the teeth |
|
|
Term
If the buccinator is weakened by facial nerve (CN VII) injury, an individual will have trouble ____ |
|
Definition
Keeping food in mouth and out of the oral vestibule |
|
|
Term
Weakened lip muscles from injury to the facial nerve (CN VII) affects speech as a result of an inability to produce labial (________) sounds. Affected persons cannot _______ |
|
Definition
B, M, P, W
whistle or blow a wind instrument |
|
|
Term
People with _____ nerve injury constantly dab their eyes and lips |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
80% of salivary gland tumors occur in the ____ glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nerve plexus at risk during a parotidectomy (Removal of Parotid Glands) |
|
Definition
Parotid Plexus of CN VII (Facial Nerve) is embedded in the Parotid Gland |
|
|
Term
_____, a viral disease, may lead to infection of the parotid gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Parotiditis causes extreme pain, because _____ |
|
Definition
the parotid sheath limits swelling |
|
|
Term
In addition to being able to infect the Parotid gland the mumps virus may also cause _______, producing redness of the ________ |
|
Definition
inflammation of the parotid duct
redness of the parotid papilla |
|
|
Term
Pain produced by mumps may be confused with a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
redness of the parotid papilla is an early sign of _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Parotid Gland Disease often causes pain in the _____, _____, ____, and _____ because the auriculotemporal and |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To apply anesthesia to the upper lip, the _____ nerve is blocked by injecting anesthetic at ______ site. |
|
Definition
Infraorbital (Maxillary V3 once it passes infraorbital canal)
Infra-orbital foramen |
|
|
Term
Injection of an anesthetic into the ______ foramen blocks the ____ nerve that supplies the skin and mucous membrane of the lower lip from the ____foramen to the midline, including the chin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mental nerve (wiki) is a branch of the posterior trunk of the ______ nerve, which is itself a branch of the ______ |
|
Definition
inferior alveolar nerve
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) |
|
|
Term
To anesthetize the skin and mucous membrane of the cheek, an anesthetic injected into _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trigeminal Neuralgia or Tic Douloureux is a sensory disorder of the sensory root of ______. It is characterized by ______ & _____. |
|
Definition
CN V
Paroxysms (sudden sharp pain) & Tics (wincing from the pain) |
|
|
Term
_____ is nerve branch that is most frequently in Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic Douloureux), then _____, and then the least frequently _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Paroxysms of Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic Douloureux) are often set off by things such as: _____, especially by touching an especially sensitive "trigger zone" located ____ |
|
Definition
Touching the face, brushing the teeth, shaving, drinking, or chewing (examples)
tip of the nose or cheek |
|
|
Term
In Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic Douloureux), ____ of the axons in the ____ root occurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In most cases of Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic Douloureux) the demyelination of the axons is caused by pressure of a small aberrant _____. Often when the aberrant _____ is moved away from the ____ of CN V the symptoms disappear. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Paralysis of the muscles of mastication results from lesion of the entire _____ nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A herpes zoster virus may produce a lesion in the cranial ganglia. Involvement of the ____ ganglion occurs in approximately 20% of cases. The Ophthalmic division is the most commonly affected. Usually the ___ is involved resulting in ulceration and scarring. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To test sensory function of the Trigeminal nerve, the ____ is touched for V1, ____ for V2, ____ for V3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lesions near the origin of CNVII from the pons of the brain or proximal to the origin of the greater petrosal nerve, result in loss of ______ |
|
Definition
motor, gustatory (taste), and autonomic functions |
|
|
Term
Lesions distal to the geniculate ganglion, but proximal to the origin of the chora tympani nerve for CNVII results in loss of |
|
Definition
motor, gustatory (taste), and autonomic functions, but Lacrimal secretion is not affected |
|
|
Term
Injury to the facial nerve may result from fracture of the ____ nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lesion of the Zygomatic Branch of CNVII causes paralysis and loss of _____ for the ____ and ____ |
|
Definition
tonus for the Orbicularis oculi and the inferior eyelid |
|
|
Term
Paralysis of the Buccal branch of CN VII causes paralysis of: _______ |
|
Definition
Buccinator and superior portion of the Orbicularis Oris and upper lip muscles |
|
|
Term
Paralysis of the marginal mandibular branch of CN VII may occur wehn an incision is made along the _______ border of the mandible. Injury to this branch causes paralysis of the ______ and ______ |
|
Definition
Inferior Border
Inferior Portion of the Orbicularis Oris and Lower Lip Muscles |
|
|
Term
Facial artery can be compressed against ______, but because of anastomoses this must be done on _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At the medial angle of the eye, an anastomosis occurs between the facial artery, a branch of the _____ artery, and the cutaneous branches of the _____ artery. |
|
Definition
branch of external carotid artery
cutaneous branches of the carotid artery |
|
|
Term
Cancer of the central part of the lower lip, the floor of the mouth, and the apex of the tongue spread into the _____ nodes whereas cancer cells from the later part of the lower lip drain to the ______ nodes. |
|
Definition
Submental Lymph Nodes
Submandibular Lymph Nodes |
|
|
Term
Fracture of the pterion can be life threatening because it overlies ________, which lie in grooves on the internal aspect of the _____ wall of the calvaria. |
|
Definition
anterior branches of the middle meningeal vessels (One of main importance is artery)
lateral |
|
|
Term
The pterion is two fingers superior to _____ and a thumb's breadth posterior to the _____ of the Zygomatic bone. |
|
Definition
Zygomatic Arch
Frontal Process of the Zygomatic Bone |
|
|
Term
The resulting hematoma from rupture of the anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery due to a ____ fracture, exerts pressure on the underlying ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Facial vein makes connections through the _____ to the cavernous sinus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Facial Vein makes connections through the ____ to the Ptreygoid Venous Plexus. |
|
Definition
Inferior Ophthalmic and Deep Facial Veins |
|
|
Term
Because the Facial Vein has no _____, blood can pass through it in the opposite direction. Consequently venous blood from the facial vein may enter the ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thrombophlebitis of the Facial Vein is inflammation of the facial vein with secondary ______ |
|
Definition
Thrombus (Clot) formation |
|
|
Term
In people with "Thrombophlebitis of the Facial Vein" peices of an infected clot may extend into the ______ venous system and produce a "Thrombophlebitis of the ________" |
|
Definition
intracranial venous stystem
Thrombophlebitis of the Cavernous Sinus |
|
|
Term
he dural venous sinuses (also called dural sinuses, cerebral sinuses, or cranial sinuses) are {WIKI} |
|
Definition
venous channels found between layers of dura mater in the brain.[1] They receive blood from internal and external veins of the brain, receive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the subarachnoid space, and ultimately empty into the internal jugular vein. |
|
|
Term
Infection of the facial veins spreading to the dural venous sinuses may result from ________. |
|
Definition
Lacerations of the nose or by squeezing pustules (pimples) on the side of the nose and upper lip. |
|
|
Term
A blow to the head can detach the Periosteal layer of the ____ from the calvaria without fracturing the cranial bones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the ______, the two dural layers are firmly attached to the periostium and therefore a fracture usually _____ the dura and results in _______ |
|
Definition
Cranial Base
Tears the Dura
Leakage of CSF |
|
|
Term
Innermost layer of the dura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ____ notch is the opening in the _____ for the brain stem. |
|
Definition
Tentorial
Tentorium Cerebelli |
|
|
Term
Space-Occupying Lesions, such as tumors, in the supratentorial compartment, produce increased intracranial pressure and may cause part of the adjacent ______ lobe of the brain to herniate through the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During "Tentorial Herniation" the ____ lobe may be lacerated by the tough Tentorium Cerebelli, and the _____ nerve may be stretched or compressed |
|
Definition
Temporal Lobe
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) |
|
|
Term
The Tentorium cerebelli or cerebellar Tentorium {wiki} is |
|
Definition
is an extension of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the inferior portion of the occipital lobes. |
|
|
Term
Pituitary tumors may extend _____ through the aperture in the ______ or cause it to bulge. |
|
Definition
Superiorly
Diaphragma Sellae |
|
|
Term
Superior extension of a pituitary Tumor may cause _______ owing to pressure on the _______. |
|
Definition
Visual Impairment
Optic Chiasm |
|
|
Term
The Dural Venous Sinuses that are most frequently thrombosed are the _____, ______, and ________ sinuses |
|
Definition
transverse, cavernous, and superior sagital |
|
|
Term
The facial veins make clinically important connections with the cavernous sinus through the _____ veins. Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis usually results from infections in the ______, _____, and superior part of the face (The Danger Triangle) |
|
Definition
Ophthalmic
Orbit, Nasal sinuses, and superior part of the face |
|
|
Term
Occlusion of Cerebral Veins and Dural Venous Sinuses may result from: _______, ______, or _____. |
|
Definition
Thrombi (Clots), Thrombophlebitis (Venous Inflammation), or Tumors (ex. Meningiomas) |
|
|
Term
In patients with Thrombophlebitis of the Facial Vein (Venous Inflammation), pieces of an infected thrombus may extend into the _______, producing __________ |
|
Definition
Cavernous Sinus
Thrombophlebitis of the Cavernous Sinus (Venous Inflammation) |
|
|
Term
Thrombophlebitis of the Cavernous Sinus may affect the _____ nerve as it transverses the sinus and may also effect the nerves embedded in ______. |
|
Definition
Abducent Nerve
Nerves embedded within the lateral wall of the sinus |
|
|
Term
Septic Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus often results in the development of ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Basilar and Occipital Sinuses communicate through the ______ with the ________ plexuses. Because the these veins are valveless, compression from the lower regions may force venous blood into the internal vertebral sinuses and from it into the _____> |
|
Definition
Foramen Magnum
Internal Venous Plexuses
Dural Venous sinuses. |
|
|
Term
In fractures of the cranial base the _____ artery may be torn, producing a _____ within the sinuses. Arterial Blood rushes into the cavernous sinus, enlarging it and forcing retrograde blood back into its ____ , especially the _____ veins. |
|
Definition
Internal Carotid
Arteriovenous Fistula
venous tributaries, especially the ophthalmic veins |
|
|
Term
As a result of a arteriovenous fistula the eyeballs _____ and the conjunctiva becomes ______. |
|
Definition
Eyeballs protrude (exophthalmos)
becomes engorged (chemosis) |
|
|
Term
The protruding eyeballs as a result of a arteriovenous fistula, pulsates in synchrony with the _____ pulse, known as ______. |
|
Definition
Radial
Pulsating Exophthalmos |
|
|
Term
______ nerves may be affected by an arteriovenous fistula, because the lie along or close to the lateral wall of the Cavernous Sinus. |
|
Definition
CNIII CNIV CNV1 CNV2 CNVI |
|
|
Term
The dura is sensitive to pain, especially when related to the ______ sinuses and _____ arteries. |
|
Definition
Dural Venous Sinuses
Meningeal |
|
|
Term
Leptomeningitis is inflammation of the leptomeninges (______) resulting from _____. |
|
Definition
Pia and Arachnoid Matter
Pathological Microorganisms |
|
|
Term
The infection and inflammations associated with Leptomeningitis, are usually confined to the ____ space and the Arachnoid-Pia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bacteria causing Leptomeningitis may enter the subarachnoid space through the ____ or spread from an infection of the _____ or ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Microorganisms may also enter the subarachnoid space from a _____ fracture or a fracture of the ______ sinuses & _____ can result from infection with almost any pathogenic bacteria. |
|
Definition
Compound Cranial
Nasal
Acute Purulent Meningitis |
|
|
Term
Extradural or Epidural Hemorrhage is ____ in origin. Blood from torn branches of the ____ artery collects between the ______ of the dura and the ______. The extravasted blood strips the ____ from the cranium. |
|
Definition
Arterial
Middle Meningeal Artery
External Periosteal layer of the dura and the calvaria
dura |
|
|
Term
Extradural or Epidural Hemorrhage usually follows _____. Typically a brief ____ occurs, followed by a _____ interval of some hours. |
|
Definition
Hard blow to head
concussion
lucid |
|
|
Term
A "Dural Border Hematoma" is classically called a _____ hematoma, however this is a misnomer because there exists no space here. Instead hematomas at this junction _______, creating a ______ junction. |
|
Definition
Subdural
split open the dural cell layer
Dura-Arachnoid junction |
|
|
Term
Dural Border Hemorrhage usually follows a blow to the head that _____. The precipitating trauma may be trivial or _____. |
|
Definition
jerks the brain inside the cranium, injuring it
forgotten |
|
|
Term
Dural Border Hemorrhage is ____ in origin and commonly results from the tearing of a ______ as it enters the _____ sinus. |
|
Definition
Venous
Superior Cerebral Vein
Superior Sagital Sinus |
|
|
Term
Extradural or Epidural Hemorrhage is ____ in origin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage is an extravasation of blood, usually _____, into _____ |
|
Definition
Arterial
Subarachnoid Space |
|
|
Term
Most Subarachnoid Hemorrhages result from a _________, such as an aneurysm of the ______ artery. |
|
Definition
Rupture of a Saccular Aneurysm
Internal Carotid Artery |
|
|
Term
Bleeding into the subarachnoid space results in ____ irritation, severe ____, stiff ____, and often loss of _____ |
|
Definition
Meningeal Irritation, Severe Headache, Stiff Neck, and often loss of consciousness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sac-Like Dilation on the side of an Artery |
|
|
Term
Professional Boxers are especially at risk for _______, or _____ syndrome. |
|
Definition
Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
Punchdrunk Syndrome |
|
|
Term
Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (Punchdrunk Syndrome) is characterized by weakness in the ____, unsteady ____, _____ of muscle movements, tremors of the _____, _____ in speech, and slow ______. |
|
Definition
Weakness in the lower limbs, unsteady gait, slowness of muscular movements, tremors of the hands, hesitancy of speech, and slow cerebration (Use of one's brain) |
|
|
Term
An unsteady gait ______ (Wiki) |
|
Definition
An unsteady gait is a condition involving a problem with walking in a coordinated manner. |
|
|
Term
The brain injuries of Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (Punchdrunk Syndrome) results from ____-- |
|
Definition
Acceleration and deceleration of the head that shears or stretches the axons (diffuse axonal injury) |
|
|
Term
Cerebral Contusion results from brain trauma in which the _____ is ____ from the injured surface of the brain and may be torn, allowing blood to enter the ______ |
|
Definition
Pia is stripped
subarachnoid space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cerebral Contusion may result in an ______ |
|
Definition
extended loss of consciousness |
|
|
Term
Cerebral Lacerations are often associated with _____ or ____ wounds. |
|
Definition
Depressed Cranial Fractures
Gun Shot |
|
|
Term
Cerebral Lacerations result in bleeding into the brain and _____, causing increased _______. |
|
Definition
subarachnoid space
intracranial pressure |
|
|
Term
Cerebral Compression may be produced by: |
|
Definition
Intracranial Collections of Blood
Obstruction of CSF Circulation of Absorption
Intracranial tumors or abscesses
Brain swelling caused by "Brain Edema", an increase in brain volume resulting from an increase in water and sodium content |
|
|
Term
CSF may be obtained through the ______ through a cisternal puncture. |
|
Definition
Posterior Cerebellomedullary Cistern |
|
|
Term
Posterior Cerebellomedullary Cistern (Wiki) |
|
Definition
The cisterna magna (or cerebellomedullary cistern) is one of three principal openings in the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid and pia mater layers of the meninges surrounding the brain. The openings are collectively referred to as cisterns. The cisterna magna is located between the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata. |
|
|
Term
Obstructive Hydrocephalus results from _____ of CSF, obstruction of CSF _____, or interference with CSF _______ in the cerebral ventricles. |
|
Definition
Overproduction
Flow
Absoprtion |
|
|
Term
Ventricular system (Wiki) |
|
Definition
The ventricular system is a set of structures containing cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. It is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
The excess CSF in Hydrocephalus dilates the ______, thins the ____, and separates the _____ in infants. |
|
Definition
Dialtes Ventricles
Thins Cerebral Cortex
Bones of Calvaria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The cerebral cortex is a sheet of neural tissue that is outermost to the cerebrum of the mammalian brain. It covers the cerebrum and cerebellum, and is divided into left and right hemispheres |
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Term
The blockages of the flow of CSF that leads to Hydrocephalus is usually occurs in the ______ or an ______. |
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Definition
Cerebral Aqueduct or an Interventricular Foramen |
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Term
Aqueduct Stenosis may be caused by a nearby tumor in the ____ or by cellular debris following a ______ or infection in the _______ |
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Definition
Nearby tumor in the midbrain
intraventricular hemorrhage
CNS |
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Term
Blockage of CSF circulation results in dilation of the ventricles _____ to the point of obstruction and in pressure on the _______. |
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Definition
Superior
Cerebral Hemispheres |
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Term
Hydrocephalus squeezes the brain between the _____ and ____. In infants, the internal pressure results in expansion of the _____ & _____, because the sutures and fontanelles are still open. |
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Definition
Ventricular Fluid and the Calvarial Bone
Expansion of the Brain and Calvaria |
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Term
In "Communicating Hydrocephalus" the ____ is no impaired; however movement of CSF from this space to the ______ is partly or completely blocked. |
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Definition
flow of CSF through the ventricles and into the subarachnoid space is not impaired; however, movement of CSF from this space in the venous system is partly or completely blocked. |
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Term
The blockage in "Communicating Hydrocephalus" may be caused by the congenital absence of ______, or they may be blocked by ______ as the result of a _______. |
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Definition
Arachnoid Granulations
RBC's
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage |
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Term
If the Middle Meningeal Artery ruptured, what type of hemorrhage would result? |
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Definition
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Term
If the cerebral artery ruptured, what type of hemorrhage would result? |
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Definition
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Term
If the Cerebral Vein ruptured superficial to the Arachnoid, what type of hemorrhage would result? |
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Definition
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Term
Fractures in the floor of the middle cranial fossa may result in ____ leakage from the if the ____ superior to the ear are torn and the _____ is ruptured |
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Definition
CSF leakage from the external acoustic meatus (CSF Otorrhea)
meninges
tympanic membrane |
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Term
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Definition
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) though the ear structures |
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Term
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Definition
The eardrum, or tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external ear from the middle ear |
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Term
Fractures in the floor of the ____ may involve the cribriform plate of the ____ bone, resulting in CSF leakage through the _____. |
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Definition
Anterior Cranial Fossa
Ethmoid
Nose (CSF Rhinorrhea) |
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Term
CSF can be distinguished from mucus by testing its ______; the _____ level of CSF reflects that of ____. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
CSF Otorrhea and Rhinorrhea may be primary indicators of _____ and increase the risk of ______, because ____ |
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Definition
Cranial Base Fracture
Meningitis, because infection could spread from nose or ear to meninges |
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Term
An "Ischemic Stroke" denotes the sudden development of ______ that are usually related to impaired _____. |
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Definition
Focal Neurological Deficits
Impaired Cerebral Blood Flow |
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Term
An Ischemic Stroke is usually caused by _______ |
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Definition
An embolism in a major Cerebral Artery |
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Term
Cardinal feature of a stroke is _____ |
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Definition
Sudden onset of neurological symptoms |
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Term
The cerebral arterial circle is an important means of collateral circulation in the event of ______ |
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Definition
gradual obstruction of one of the major arteries forming the circle |
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Term
Sudden occlusion, even if only partial of the cerebral arterial circle results in ______ |
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Definition
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Term
Most common causes of strokes are ______, such as: _______ |
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Definition
Spontaneous Cerebrovascular Accidents
Such as: hemorrhage, cerebral embolism, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. |
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Term
Hemorrhagic Stroke follows _____ or _____. |
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Definition
rupture of an artery or a Saccular Aneurysm (sac-like dilation on weak part of arterial wall) |
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Term
Most common type of cerebral hemorrhage is a ______, occurring in the vessels of or near _____ and the medium arteries at the _______. |
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Definition
Berry Aneurysm
Cerebral Arterial Circle
base of the brain |
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Term
In time, especially in individuals with ____, the weak wall of the Aneurysm will rupture, allowing blood to enter _______ |
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Definition
Hypertension
Subarachnoid Space |
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Term
Sudden rupture of an aneurysm usually produces a severe, almost unbearable _____ & ______, resulting from bleeding into the ______. |
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Definition
Headache and stiff neck
Subarachnoid Space |
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Term
Interruption of blood supply for 30seconds results in _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Interruption of blood supply for 1-2 mins results in _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Interruption of blood supply after 5mins results in _____ |
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Definition
lack of oxygen (anoxia) and can result in cerebral infarction |
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Term
TIAs refer to neurological symptoms resulting from ______. |
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Definition
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Term
Because of the thinness of the ____ and ____ walls of the orbit, a blow may fracture them before the rim. |
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Definition
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Term
Indirect traumatic injury that displaces the orbital walls is called a ____ fracture. |
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Definition
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Term
A Blowout fracture of the medial wall may involve the ________ |
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Definition
ethmodial and sphenoid sinuses |
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Term
A blowout fracture of the inferior wall may involve the _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Orbital fractures often result in ______, which exerts ____ on the eyeball, causing ____. |
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Definition
Intraorbital Bleeding
Pressure
Exophthalmos (Protrusion of the Eyeball) |
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Term
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Definition
(Protrusion of the Eyeball) |
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Term
Bleeding into the maxillary sinus after a orbital fracture may cause displacement of the _____, bleeding into the ____ sinus, and fracture of the _____ bones. {Just random examples in book} |
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Definition
Maxillary teeth
Maxillary
Nasal |
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Term
Because of the closeness of the optic nerve to the _____ and ____ sinuses, a tumor in these _______ |
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Definition
P. Ethmodial & Sphenoidal
Compress the nerve and orbital contents |
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Term
Tumors in the Orbit produce ______ |
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Definition
Exophthalmos (Protrusion of Eyeball) |
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Term
The easiest entrance to the orbital cavity for a tumor in the middle cranial fossa is through the ______ |
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Definition
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Term
The easiest entrance to the orbital cavity for a tumor in the temporal or infratemporal fossa is through the _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Nearly 2.5cm of the eyeball is exposed when the pupil is turned _____ as far as possible, because _____ wall is shorter anteriorly than ____ wall. |
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Definition
Medially
lateral shorter than medial |
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Term
Which side is the best side for eye operations? |
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Definition
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Term
A lesion of the ____ nerve causes ptosis of the superior eyelid. |
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Definition
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Term
Damage of the ___ nerve prevents closing the eyelids fully, because of paralysis to _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Loss of tonus of the muscle of the inferior eyelid causes it to evert, leading to _____, this causes irritation and leads to ______ |
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Definition
Drying of the cornea
excessive but scientific lacrimation |
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Term
Excessive Lacrimal fluid also forms when ______ preventing the fluid from reaching the ____ part of the eyeball |
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Definition
Lacrimal drainage apparatus is blocked
inferior |
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Term
If the ducts of the Ciiliary Glands are obstructed, ______ develops |
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Definition
a painful red suppurative (pus-producing) swelling, a "Sty", develops on the eyelid |
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Term
Cysts of the sebaceous glands of the eyelid, called _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Obstruction of a Tarsal Gland produces inflammation, a _______, that ______ |
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Definition
Tarsal Chalazion
protrudes the eyeball forward and causes into rub against the eyelid when as they blink. |
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Term
The conjunctiva is colorless except when its vessels are ______ and _____. |
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Definition
Dilated and Congested (Bloodshot eyes) |
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Term
Hyperemia of the Conjunctiva is caused by ______. |
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Definition
Local irritation (smoking Pot!! dust, chlorine, or smoke) |
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Term
An inflamed conjunctiva, conjunctivitis (______), is a common ______ |
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Definition
Pink Eye
Contagious Infection of the Eye |
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Term
Subconjunctival hemorrhages are common and are manifested by ________. |
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Definition
red patches deep to and within the bulbar conjunctiva |
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Term
bulbar conjunctiva covers |
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Definition
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Term
Subconjunctival hemorrhages can be caused by injury, inflammation, or ______ |
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Definition
excessively hard blowing of the nose |
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Term
Retina develops from ____ |
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Definition
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Term
Optic Nerve develops from _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Optic cup is an outgrowth of the embryonic brain, the _______. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ and _____ cross the subarachnoid space and run within the distal part of the optic nerve. |
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Definition
central artery and vein of the retina |
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Term
The Pigmented Cell Layer of the Retina develops from the _______ |
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Definition
Outer Layer of the Optic Cup |
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Term
The Neural Layer of the Retina develops from the ______ |
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Definition
Inner Layer of the Optic Cup |
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Term
The layers of the Retina in the embryo are separated by an ______ |
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Definition
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Term
The _______ of the Retina becomes firmly attached to the _____, while its attachment to ____ is not nearly as strong. |
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Definition
Pigmented Layer
Choroid
Neural Layer |
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Term
Detachment of the ____ may follow from a blow to the eye. |
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Definition
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Term
A Detached Retina usually results from seepage of fluid between _____ & _____, perhaps ______ after the trauma. |
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Definition
The pigmented layer and neural layer
days or weeks |
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Term
Persons with a retinal detachment may complain of ______ |
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Definition
Flashes of light or specks floating in front of the eye |
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Term
Pupillary Light Reflex:
Afferent Limb: _____
Efferent Limb: _____ |
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Definition
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Term
Pupillary Light Reflex is the ______ |
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Definition
Rapid constriction of the pupil in response to light |
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Term
When light enters one eye in the Pupillary Light Reflex Test, _______, because _____ |
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Definition
Both pupils constrict, because each retina sends fibers into the optic tracts of both sides |
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Term
The Sphincter Pupillae is innervated by _____ fibers; consequently interruption of these fibers causes _____, because of _____ |
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Definition
Parasympathetic
Dilation of the Pupil
because of the unopposed action of the sympathetically innervated dilator pupillae muscle. |
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Term
The first sign of "compression of the Oculomotor nerve" is ______ |
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Definition
ipsilateral slowness of the Pupillary in response to light |
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Term
Uveitis, inflammation of the _______ |
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Definition
vascular layer of the eyeball (uvea) |
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Term
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Definition
The fundus of the eye is the interior surface of the eye, opposite the lens, and includes the retina, optic disc, macula and fovea, and posterior pole |
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Term
An increase in CSF pressure slows ______ from the retina, causing ______ |
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Definition
Venous Return
Edema of the Retina |
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Term
Edema of the Retina is viewed during opthalmoscopy as _______, a condition called ______. |
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Definition
swelling of the optic disc
papilledema |
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Term
Normally the optic disc is _____ and does not form a papilla. |
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Definition
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Term
Papilledema results from _________________ |
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Definition
Increased intracranial pressure and increased CSF pressure in the extension of the subarachnoid space around the optic nerve |
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Term
As people age the lens become _____ and this subsequently ______ |
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Definition
harder and flatter
reduces focal power |
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Term
In the Orbit outflow of aqueous humor through the _______ into the blood circulation must occur at ______ |
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Definition
Scleral Venous Sinus
at the same rate it is produced |
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Term
If outflow decreases through the Scleral Venous Sinus, then ________, a condition called ______. |
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Definition
Pressure builds up in the and anterior and posterior chambers a condition called Glaucoma |
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Term
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Definition
The iris (plural: irides or irises) is a thin, circular structure in the eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupils and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. In response to the amount of light entering the eye, muscles attached to the iris expand or contract the aperture at the center of the iris, known as the pupil. The larger the pupil, the more light can enter. |
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Term
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Definition
Iris Closes Drainage Angle and obstructs outflow of aqueous |
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Term
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Definition
Drainage angle is open; outflow of aqueous is blocked at trabeculae or Scleral venous sinus |
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Term
In Glaucoma blindness can result from compression of ____ and _____. |
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Definition
inner layer of the eyeball (retina) and the retinal arteries |
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Term
Hemorrhage within the Anterior Chamber of the eyeball (______) usually results from _______ |
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Definition
Hyphema or Hyphemia
Blunt trauma to eye (as in racquet ball!) |
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Term
Positive response for Corneal Reflex |
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Definition
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Term
Absence of a blink during the Corneal Reflex Test suggests a lesion of _____; a lesion of _____ may also impair this reflex. |
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Definition
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Term
Corneal abrasions caused by |
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Definition
foreign objects such as sand or metal filings |
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Term
Corneal lacerations are caused by |
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Definition
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Term
Injury to the _____ innervation of the cornea from the _____ nerve leaves the cornea vulnerable to injury. |
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Definition
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Term
Horner Syndrome results from interruption of a _______ and is manifest by the absence of ______ on the ipsilateral side of the head. |
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Definition
Cervical Sympathetic Ganglion
sympathetically stimulated functions on the ipsilateral side of the head. |
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Term
Signs of Horner Syndrome: _______ |
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Definition
Constriction of the Pupils (Miosis)
Drooping of the Superior Eyelid (Ptosis)
Redness and increased temperature of the skin (Vasodilation)
Absence of Sweating (Anhydrous) |
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Term
Constriction of the pupil occurs in Horner Syndrome, because ______ |
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Definition
The parasympathetically stimulated sphincter of the pupil is unopposed. |
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Term
The ptosis in Horner Syndrome is a consequence of the paralysis of _______ |
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Definition
Smooth muscle fibers interdigitated with the aponeurosis of the levator palpebrae superioris that collectively constitute the superior tarsal muscle, supplied by sympathetic fibers |
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Term
One or more extraocular muscles may be paralyzed by disease in the _____ or by head injury, resulting in ______. |
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Definition
brainstem
diplopia (double vision) |
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Term
Damage of a extraocular muscle becomes apparent when one tries to use it by the production of _______. |
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Definition
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Term
With Oculomotor Palsy the upper eyelid cannot be raised because of the unopposed action by _______ |
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Definition
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Term
With Oculomotor Palsy the pupil is ______ and _____, because of the unopposed _______. |
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Definition
Dilated and non-reactive
unopposed dilator pupillae |
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Term
With Oculomotor Palsy the pupil is _____ and _____ (direction) because of the unopposed activity of the ______ and _____ respectively. |
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Definition
Abducted and Depressed ("Down & Out")
lateral rectus & superior oblique |
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Term
When the Abducent nerve is paralyzed the individual cannot _____ |
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Definition
Abduct the pupil on the affected side |
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Term
When the Abducent nerve is paralyzed the pupil is fully _____ by the unopposed pull of the _____ m. |
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Definition
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Term
Obstruction of the _____ arteries can lead to instant and total blindness. |
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Definition
Terminal branches of the central artery of the retina |
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Term
Because the Central Vein of the Retina enters the _____ sinus, thrombophlebitis of this sinus may result in the passage of _____ to the central retinal vein. This occlusion results in a _____ |
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Definition
Cavernous Sinus
Thrombus
Slow painless loss of vision |
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Term
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Definition
A thrombus (Greek: θρόμβος), or blood clot. |
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Term
80% of Salivary Gland Tumors arise in _______ |
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Definition
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Term
______ is in jeopardy during removal of Parotid Gland. |
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Definition
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Term
Parotid Gland may become infected by agents passing through the blood stream such as ______. Infection results in ______ and extreme pain. Pain is made worse by _____, because _______. |
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Definition
Mumps
Parotiditis
Chewing
Enlarged gland wraps around posterior border of ramus and is compressed against the mastoid process when the mouth is opened. |
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Term
In addition to Parotiditis the Mumps Virus may cause inflammation of ______, producing ______. |
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Definition
the Parotid Duct
Redness of the Parotid Papilla |
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Term
Parotid Papilla is the ______ |
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Definition
small projection at the opening of the parotid duct into the superior oral vestibule |
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Term
Parotid Gland Disease often causes pain in the ______, ______, and _____ because of the ______ and _____ nerves, from which the parotid gland receives sensory fibers from also supplies sensory fibers to the skin over _____ and _____. |
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Definition
External Acoustic Meatus, Temporal region, TMJ
Auriculotemporal and Great Auricular Nerves
Temporal Fossa & Auricle |
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Term
A bacterial infection localized in the parotid gland usually produces an _____, which can result from poor ____. |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
is a collection of pus (dead neutrophils) that has accumulated in a cavity formed by the tissue in which the pus resides due to an infectious process (usually caused by bacteria or parasites) or other foreign materials |
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Term
The Parotid Duct may be blocked by an ______, called a ________. The resulting pain is made worse by ____ or ______. |
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Definition
calcified Deposit, called a sialolith or calculus
eating or sucking on a lemon (buildup of saliva in the proximal part of the duct) |
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Term
Sometimes an Accessory Parotid Gland lies on the _____ between the parotid duct and the ________. |
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Definition
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Term
To produce a "Mandibular Nerve Block" an anesthetic agent is injected near the ______ nerve where it ______. This anesthetizes: _________ nerves |
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Definition
Mandibular Nerve
Enters the Infratemporal Fossa
Auriculotemporal, Inferior Alveolar, Lingual, and Buccal Branches of CN V3 |
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Term
For a Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block the site of the anesthetic injection is _______. When the nerve block is successful _____ teeth are anesthetized. |
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Definition
Mandibular Foramen
All Maxillary teeth to the Midline |
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Term
In an inferior alveolar nerve block, if anesthetic is accidently injected into the medial pterygoid _____ will be affected. |
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Definition
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Term
Sometimes during yawning or taking a large bite, excessive contraction of the ______ may cause the heads of the mandible to dislocate _____. In this position the mandible will remain _____ |
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Definition
Lateral Pterygoids
Anteriorly
remain open and depressed |
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Term
Most common way to dislocate the TMJ anteriorly is by ______ |
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Definition
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Term
____ side of TMJ is dislocated when it receives a sideways blow. |
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Definition
The TMJ on the side that receives the blow |
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Term
Dislocation of the mandible may also accompanied by ______ |
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Definition
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Term
Usually in falls on the chin or direct blows, what will occur before a ______ occurs? |
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Definition
The neck of the mandible will fracture before the TMJ dislocates. |
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Term
Because of the close relationship of the relationship of the _____ and _____ nerves to the TMJ, care must be taken when resetting the dislocation. |
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Definition
Auriculotemporal & Facial Nerves |
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Term
Injuries to the _____ nerve supplying the TMJ, associated with traumatic _____ and rupture of the articular capsule and lateral ligament, leads to ______ |
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Definition
Auricular Branches of the Auriculotemporal Dislocation Laxity and Instability of the TMJ |
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Term
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Definition
The vermilion border (sometimes vermillion border) is the normally sharp demarcation between the lip (red colored) and the adjacent normal skin. It represents the change in the epidermis from highly keratinized external skin to less keratinized internal skin. It has no sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or hair. |
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Term
Both lips are provided with ____ innervation and arteriovenous _____, capable of redirecting a considerable portion of blood back to the body core in order to ______ |
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Definition
Sympathetic
Anastomoses
Reduce Heat Loss |
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Term
An excessively large _____ in children may cause a space between the central incisor teeth. |
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Definition
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Term
Resection of the Frenulum is a ____ |
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Definition
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Term
A large Lower Labial Frenulum in adults may pull on the labial gingiva and contribute to a ______, which results in ________ |
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Definition
Gingival Recession
Abnormal exposure of the roots of the teeth. |
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Term
If gingivitis goes untreated the disease can spread to _____, producing ______. |
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Definition
Alveolar Bone
Periodontitis (Inflammation and destruction of the bone and the periodontium) |
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Term
Neglected Dental Caries eventually _________ |
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Definition
invade and inflame the tissues of the pulp cavity causing pulpitis |
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Term
Pulpitis may eventually exert too much pressure on the structures of the _____, eventually causing them to die. Infectious particles can subsequently spread through the _____ into the ______, producing a abscess (____ disease. |
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Definition
Root Canal
Apical Canal and foramen into the periodontal tissues
periapical Disease |
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Term
Pus from an abscess of a Maxillary Molar Tooth may extend into the _____ or ______ |
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Definition
Nasal Cavity or Maxillary Sinus |
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Term
The roots of the Maxillary Molar is closely related to the _____ sinus. As a result, infection of the _____ may also cause Sinusitis, or Sinusitis may _______ |
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Definition
Maxillary
Pulp Cavity
or Sinusitis may stimulate the nerve and simulate a toothache. |
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Term
The roots of the Mandibular Teeth are closely related to the ______ and abscess formation may compress the nerve causing pain to be referred to ______ |
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Definition
Mandibular Canal
More anterior teeth |
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