Term
T or f, As many as 35% of patients with head and neck squamous cell carcinoma develop lung cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of lung cancers are central and which are peripheral? |
|
Definition
Central - squamous, small cell; peripheral - adenocarcinoma, large cell |
|
|
Term
Which of the following characteristics of a solitary pulmonary nodule indicate malignancy - spiculation, calcification, mass >3cm, pleural effusion, hemidiaphragm elevation, adenopathy, bony destruction, volume loss. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the SPHERE of complications of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (upper swelling), Pancosts tumor (apex carcinoma causing horners), Horners syndrome (miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis), Endocrine paraneoplastic (ACTH, SIADH, Lambert-eaton, hi Ca), Recurrent hoarseness, Effusions |
|
|
Term
Most lung cancers are metastatic beofer they are resectable. Which type is surgery a cure for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two types of imaging (with confirmation) are used to determine if non-small cell lung cancer is resectable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In lung cancer staging T and N stand for what? |
|
Definition
T is spread of tissue, N is nodal involvement |
|
|
Term
In non-small cell lung cancer stage 1,2 is resectable, Advanced stage 3a lung cancer is a potential surgical resection after neoadjuvant chemo, what stages are not candidates? |
|
Definition
3b, 4 just palliative chemo/rads |
|
|
Term
Most presentations of small cell lung cancer are extensive metastasis, what is recommended tx? |
|
Definition
Chemo for all, some rads improve local control |
|
|
Term
Analysis of cells and genes in lung cancer helps discriminate primary vs metastat lung cancer, ID molecular targets in malign tissues, associate gene profiles like DNA methylation with poor outcome. What are the effects of these 3 factors EGFR-TK, VEGF, COX-2? |
|
Definition
EGFR-TK binding induces proliferation, invasion, metastat but is tx with competitve inhibitor getfinib; VEGF induces angiogenesis and proliferation tx with bevacizumab; COX-2 facilitates invasion and immune resistance tx with celecoxib |
|
|
Term
What are 3 common metastat point for lung caner? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the lung cancer type - central, seen in smokers, hilar mass arising from main bronchus, cavitations, PTHrP, keratin pearls and intracellular bridges on histology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the lung cancer type - peripheral, develops in site of primary inflammation or injury, bronchial, not linked to smoking, can present like pneumonia, histology shows clarac and type 2 cells affected with multiple densities on CR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the lung cancer type - central, undiff, very aggressive, associated with ectopic ACTH, ADH, ANP, may lead to LEMS, responds to chemo, histo shows neoplasm of neuroendocrine cells and kulchitsky cells are small dark and blue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the lung cancer type - peripheral, highly anaplastic undifferentiated tumor, poor prognosis, less responsive to chemo, removed surgically, histo shows pleomorphic giant cells with leukocyte fragments in cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID the type of pleural effusions - down protein < .5, up hydrostatic pressure, down colloid pressure, up transport of peritoneal fluid thru diaphragm. Can be due to CHF, nephritic syndrome, hepatic cirrhosis, PE. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID the type of pleural effusions - up protein content > .5, up cap permeability, down absorption by lymphatics. Due to malign, pneumonia, collagen vascular disease, trauma, PE, in states of increased vascular permeability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name which group is signs of pleural effusion and which is pneumo thorax, 1. blunting of costophrenic angle, meniscus sign, contra lat displace trachea, 2. loss of lung markings, reflection, deep sulcus sign on supine, and contra lat displace of trachea in tension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the type of pleural effusion - milky fluid, high triglycerides, unilateral. |
|
Definition
Lymphatic block called chylothroax |
|
|
Term
What is the tx for simple, complicated, and empyema parapneumonic effusions? |
|
Definition
Antibios for all; simple - no drain, complicated - drain + fibrinolytics, epyema - drain + lytics, VATS |
|
|
Term
In pleural effusions, adenosine deaminase is checked and is positive in tuberculous pleurisy, epyema, pheumatoid pleurisy, malign. But a normal level is highly specific for abscene of __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T or F, Approximately 60% of malignant effusions can be diagnosed by cytology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the cause of primary, secondary, iatrogenic, and traumatic pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
Primary is spontaneous blebs not due to disease or trauma seen in thin young males, secondary due to underlying disease, iatrogenic from central line/biopsy/ventilator, trauma |
|
|
Term
What is the preferred intervention for sclerosis in lung which treats recurring pneumothoraxs by inducing inflammation and bidning of parietal and visceral surfaces. |
|
Definition
VATS over chest tube with med |
|
|
Term
A person with occupational asthma without latency can be irritant induced or with very high dose of toxic material they can present with __________? |
|
Definition
RADS - reactant airway disease that is not allergic |
|
|
Term
Is latex reaction asthma with latency or not? |
|
Definition
Latency, needs sensitization |
|
|
Term
T or F, COPD is attributed to 1/3 people who never smoked. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name this pleural disease - diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis caused by ihaled fibers, up risk of pleural mesothelioma, ivory white pleural plaques, affects lower lobes, smoking increases risk of bronchogenic carcinoma not mesolthelioma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coal and silica dust affect the upper lobes in pneumoconiosis without functional defecits but risks progressing to __________. |
|
Definition
Progressive massive fibrosis nodule >1cm |
|
|
Term
___________ is sthe infection/inflammation of lung parenchyma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sputum grain stain and culture are nebulous in their actual effectiveness but sputum culture should be done on which of the following just incase it helps direct tx: ICU, outpatient failure, alcoholics, cavitray lesions, severe lung disease, pleural effusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In determining which patients whould be admitted for Pneumonia ifthey have 2 or more CURB-65, which is? |
|
Definition
Confusion, Uremia BUN>20, RR>30, BP low, >65 |
|
|
Term
What are the principles of tx for pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Start anitbios within four hours wide spectrum narrowing later on, avoiding classes patient recently exposed to |
|
|
Term
Patients at risk for P. aeruginosa: structual lung disease such as bronchiectasis, steroid use (>10 mg/day prednisone), recent broad spectrum antibiotics, or malnutrition. How do you tx ICU patient if they do or dont have risk? |
|
Definition
No risk - antipneumo B-lactam + quinolone, Risk - antipneumo/pseudomonal B-lactam + cipro; tx for 7-10 days for typicals and 10-14 for atypicals while anaerobes for 6 weeks or clear CXR |
|
|
Term
T or f, Patient can be discharged from hospital if they qualify for oral antibiotics with these requirements : Improvement in cough and dyspnea, <100.0°F x2 8h apart, Decreasing WBC count, Functioning GI tract + good PO intake |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria is the main cause of pneumonia in outpatients, non-icu inpatients, and ICU? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the organisms most frequently seen in lobar pneumonia with intra-alveolar exudates leading to consolidation, may involve entire lung? |
|
Definition
Pneumococcus most frequently |
|
|
Term
Name the organisms most frequently seen in bronchopneumonia with acute inflammatory infiltrates from bronchioles to adjacent alveoli, with patchy distribution involvgin >1 lobe. |
|
Definition
S. aureaus, H. flu, Klebsiella, S. pyogenes |
|
|
Term
Name the organisms most frequently seen in interstitial atypical pneumonia with a more indolent course, patchy infiltration, distribution >1 lobe. |
|
Definition
Viruses, mycoplasma pneumo, Legionella, Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
Name this congential lung cyst - most common cyst in infancy, many situated in the medistinum close to carina, closed epithelium lined sacs developed from primitive upper gut and respiratory tract, often saccular and lined with gastric mucosa. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name this congenital cyst - abnormality of lung development, 5 types from bronchial to peripheral. |
|
Definition
Congenital cyst adenomatoid malformation |
|
|
Term
Name this pediatric pulmonary problem - It is pulmonary tissues that is isolated from normal functioning lung and is nourished by systemic blood supply. |
|
Definition
Congenital pulmonary sequesteration |
|
|
Term
Name this pediatric pulmonary problem - large hyperlucent lobe, causes are partial obstruction as by mucosal flaps or twisting of the lobe on its pedicle, Presents with symptoms and signs similar to tension pneumothorax. |
|
Definition
Congential lobar emphysema |
|
|
Term
What is the tx for congential lung cysts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define this pediatric pumonry disease: In a child younger than 2 years of age, the term refer to clinical syndrome characterized with rapid respiration, chest retractions and wheezing, CXR shows Hyperinflated lungs, peribronchial cuffing, and atelectasis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mean pulmonary arterial pressure <20mmHg, with 25 being HTN. What 3 factors can independently increase pul arterial pressure? |
|
Definition
Left atrial pressure, pulm vascular resistance, pul blood flow |
|
|
Term
The genetic defect of BMPR2 genetic defect can induce pulm HTN through what menas? |
|
Definition
Doesnt inhibit smooth muscle proliferation in the vascular wall |
|
|
Term
In severe pulm HTN a lesion forms with abnormal angiogenesis and anuerysmal formations what is it called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On physical exam for pul htn, what is seen in >90%? |
|
Definition
Accentuated 2nd heart sound. |
|
|
Term
There is no definitive way to tell if a person has a PE, so based on __________ and __________. |
|
Definition
Clinical suspicion and definitive testing |
|
|
Term
Name some diagnostic tests to check for DVT/PE in low and high risk patients. |
|
Definition
DVT ultrasound and d-dimers in blood for low, for high CT angiography or V/Q scan if allergy to dye/renal/preggers |
|
|