Term
T or f: Polypeptides are digested when taken orally and steroids are absorbed. |
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Definition
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Term
The body controls _________ with water, and _____ with salt. |
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Definition
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Term
With low vasopressin (______ _________) absence stimulation of V2 receptors causes polyuria of water. This should cause hypernatremia but stimulation of thirst keeps serum sodium near-normal. |
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Definition
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Term
With high vasopressin (__________) increase stimulation of V2 receptors causes water retention. Thirst is NOT decreased so there is volume expansion and hyponatremia. The volume expansion causes sodium excretion, aggravating the hyponatremia. |
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Definition
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Term
Damage of theOsmoreceptor System causes decreased AVP stimulation of the V2 receptors and produces ____. |
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Definition
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Term
Osmoreceptor controls _________ and is more important physiologically. |
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Definition
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Term
Thirst is stimulated at ________ osmolality and is not turned off at ______ osmolal. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the differential of DI? |
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Definition
Polyuria of hypotonic urine and polydipsia. |
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Term
T or F: DI can be caused by excess intake such as from primary polydup, dipsogenic DI, iatrogen admin of fluids. |
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Definition
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Term
In people with abnormal auto rece gene for AVP why do they have DI? |
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Definition
Because mutant precursors gum up the ER where made |
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Term
In pregnancy ________ metab of vasopressin is normal, but can cause DI. |
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Definition
Increased; causing decerased Na and Osm |
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Term
Hereditary nephro DI ahs defective AVP receptor and congenital version has defective aquaporins, name gene transmission for each. |
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Definition
X-link rece, auto rece; all aquired version of nephro DI have bad aquaporins |
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Term
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Definition
Water, ADH, chlorpropamide, thiazides |
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Term
Damage to what system causes increased AVP stim of V2 receptors cqausing water retention. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the differ dx of SIADH? |
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Definition
Hyponature, with inappropriate natriuesis |
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Term
Genetic SIADH is due to what causes of abnormal syn of AVP? |
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Definition
Bronchogenic CA, other cancers |
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Term
T or f: SIADH due to consitutuively active V2 recptor |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are treatments for hypo Na - fluid restriction, 3% saline, vasopressin antags. |
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Definition
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Term
Therapy of hypo Na is whether acute or chronic which is greater or less than _______ hours. |
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Definition
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Term
Osmotic demylination syndrome. |
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Definition
Pontine demylineation due to hypercorrection of hyponaturemia |
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Term
The hormones of the post pituit are made in the ______. |
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Definition
Hypothal - SO and PV nuclei |
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Term
Which of the following meds cause hyper prolactin - SSRI, phenothiazines, metoclopromide, TCA, H2 antags. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the treatment of choice for hyperprolactin using dopamine? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the treatment for acromegaly? |
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Definition
Transphenoid surgery first, dopamine and somato ags (octreotide which has side effects of ab discomfort, loose stools, nausea, gall stones) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What level of prolactin indicates a prolactinoma? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you establish cortisol excess? |
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Definition
24 urinary free cortisol over 250, and dexamethsone suppression test where cortisol doesn |
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Term
How does localizing the source of excess hormone in cushings via plasma ACTH work? |
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Definition
ACTH less than 5 its acth indep from adrenal source, greater than 10 is depend and is ectopic or pituit |
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Term
What is the treatment for cushings? |
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Definition
Transpehnoid surgery, if fails radio therapy, meds never primary |
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Term
Which of the following inhibit adrenal steroids - ketoconozole, metyrapone. |
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Definition
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Term
Non-functioning pituitary adenomas arise from what cells and what is treatment? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the diff btw auto dom MEN-1/2A/2B when describing genetic pituitary tumors? |
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Definition
MEN 1 - pancreas, pituit, parathy; MEN2A med thyroid carcinoma, pheochromo, para; MEN2b - med thyroid carcin, pheochromo |
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Term
What is the disease that is postpartum hypopituit disease due to infarct from obstetric hemorrhage? |
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Definition
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Term
In association with pregger lymphocytic invasion of pituitcytes and detruction of cells. |
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Definition
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Term
Name disease auto dom with GnRH defici, anosmia, eunuchoidal body with long arms and legs. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you asses pituitary function of GH and Cortisol? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the diff btw acute and subacute thyroiditis? |
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Definition
Suppurative thyroiditis: very rare, caused by bacteria or fungi; Subacute Thyroiditis -non-suppurative, granulomatous, giant cell, pseudotuberculous, de Quervain |
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Term
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Definition
chronic sclerosing thyroiditis. It leads to complete destruction of the thyroid gland and also involves the surrounding neck tissues by a progressive proliferating fibrosis. |
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Term
Describe diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid. |
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Definition
Diffuse hyperplasia is the common underlying lesion of thyrotoxicosis, Graves |
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Term
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Definition
Nodular hyperplasia may also be |
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Term
Name this malignant thyroid carcinoma - 60-70% of thyroid carcinomas. Radiation exposure to the neck is a known etiologic factor. Solitary cold nodule. Locally invasive and may be multicentric. Papillary pattern variable in extent (0-100%), remainder follicular. Even with mixed pattern |
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Definition
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Term
Low-grade lesions have same histologic patterns as follicular adenoma, but demonstrate capsular and/or vascular invasion. Higher grade lesions incompletely encapsulated or diffusely invasive. Lymph nodal metastasis much less common than with papillary carcinoma. Blood borne metastasis to lungs and bone most frequent. |
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Definition
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Term
Name this malignant thyroid carcinoma - derived from parafollicular C-cells, A neuro-endocrine tumor capable of producing calcitonin and ACTH. rather solid, trabecular or islet patterns. Frequently produces stromal amyloid. Metastasis to the regional lymph modes occurs early in the course of the disease. |
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Definition
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Term
How do you assess thyroid function with what tset? |
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Definition
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Term
Name three conditions which affect the whole thyuroid and 3 that are localized. |
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Definition
Graves, hashi, subacute thyroid; solitary nodule, multiple, toxic nuodule |
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Term
In what tissues does D1 deoiodinase and D2 live? |
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Definition
D1 is thyroid, lung and kidney, D2 is thyroid, skeletal/cardiac |
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Term
Where does D3 that inactivates thyroxine live? |
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Definition
Placenta, skin , brain, liver |
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Term
In what disease are anti-TPO and anti-TSHr found? |
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Definition
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Term
T or f, Hypothyroidism and TSH increase with age. |
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Definition
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Term
Why would you increase or decrease levothyroxine treatment? |
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Definition
Up - pregnant, poor absorp, up clearance; down - old, weight loss, androgen use |
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Term
Treatment for graves is drugs for mild, if no work then radio is Tx of choice, then surgery - list two drugs used. |
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Definition
Methimazole is DOC and Propylthiouracil is second with liver toxic |
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Term
T or f, Beta-blockers are used only for symptomatic relief of thyrotoxicoses. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the contraindic for radioiodine for graves? |
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Definition
Preggers, worsens eye disease |
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Term
Low iodine uptake is characterisitic of _________? |
|
Definition
Thyroiditis - hasi, sporadic, post-partum |
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Term
What are the treatment options for a non-toxic multinodular goiter? |
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Definition
Surgery first, radioiodine with recombinant TSH |
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Term
90% of nodules are hypofuncitoning and need to be aspirated. |
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Definition
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Term
Thryroid nodules increase with age and female, and with thry function test showing low TSH suggests a _____ nodule, and high TSH suggests __________. |
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Definition
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Term
Define which list of features is a malignant or benign thyroid nodule from ultrasound. 1 - hypoechogenic, no halo sign, irregular margins, microcalcifications. 2. - anecho or hyperecho, uniform, thin halo, regular margins, egg-shell calcifications. |
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Definition
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Term
Thyroid incedentalomas should be watched for what 3 things? |
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Definition
Microcalicifications, >1.5cm, irregular capsule or flow |
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Term
Sudden growths found in thyroid are most likely cysts or _______ ________ nodules. |
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Definition
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Term
T or f, Most hot nodules in thyroid are benign and need to be aspirated and treated with radioiodine. |
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Definition
False, no aspiration needed. |
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Term
What are the two ways to monitor thyroid cancer? |
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Definition
Serum Tg after normal cells ablated, and whole body iodine scan with stimulated TSH because cancer concentrates iodine poorly |
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Term
What two hormones are created from the POMC gene? |
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Definition
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Term
Cortisol has marked circadian rythyms and what are its affects. |
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Definition
Carb/lipid metab and catab, bone reformation, up vascular tone, down immune, down GH/thyroid |
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Term
Excess licorice prevents conversion of what hormone to its inactive state via 11b-HSD2? |
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Definition
Cortisol->cortisone, and cortisol binds mineralocorticoid and gluco receptor |
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Term
What happens to men and women with excessive adrenal androgen precursors? |
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Definition
Men - nothing, women- hirsuitism, acne, virilization |
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Term
Diff btw primary, seconday, gluco withdrawal adrenal insuff. |
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Definition
Primary is adrenal destruction, second is acth insuff due to pituit, gluco is from ACTH suppression due to exogenous glucose |
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Term
What is the cosyntropin test used for? |
|
Definition
Test adrenal insufficiency in morning with syn ACTH and measure cortisol response to R/O primary or secondary causes if prolonged ACTH suppression |
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|
Term
If aldosterone is low how do you check body response? |
|
Definition
Cosyntropin or salt restriction for 3-5 days |
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|
Term
If testing ACTH when should you perform any necessary gluco therapy? |
|
Definition
Draw labs before therapy or 24 hours after therapy |
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|
Term
T or f, Cortisol rises during surgery, sepsis. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the treatment of adrenal crisis (injury with adrenal insufficiency) that causes hypotension, shock, acidosis, hyponatremia. |
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Definition
Labs, fluids, hydrocortisone, test for insufficiency insufficiency |
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|
Term
What two drugs are therapy for primary insufficiency? |
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Definition
Hydrocortisone for glucose and fludrocortisone for mineralos, |
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|
Term
What are these changes acharacterisitc of - change in weight, poor sleep, depression, fatigue, decreased libido? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name 4 of types of cushings etiologies. |
|
Definition
ACTH-dep pituitary tumor, ACTH-indep adrenal adenoma, small cell carcinoma ups ACTH, pancreatic ups CRH |
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|
Term
What are some causes of pseudo-cushings? |
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Definition
Obesity, alcohol, depression, stress, preggers, anorexia |
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|
Term
How do you diagnose hypercortisolism? |
|
Definition
Urinary free cortisol (measures free not bound) and Overnight dexamethasone (gluco) treatment should cause a drop in cortisol in morning |
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|
Term
Why does a midnight cortisol test differ for cushings and pseudo cushings patients? |
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Definition
Cushings patients lack diurnal coritsol variation, while psuedos still havbe it. |
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|
Term
Low and high dose dexamethasone will suppress cortisol in what two types of cushings? |
|
Definition
Pseudo and ACTH-dep pituit |
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|
Term
What types of drugs can you use for cortisol excess starting with best? |
|
Definition
Mifeprestone, metyrapone, mitotane |
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|
Term
Why is a inferior petrosal sinus sampling done? |
|
Definition
To confirm pituitary source of ACTH |
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|
Term
What is the difference in origfin of primary or secondary hyp-eraldosteronism? |
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Definition
Primary is from adenomas or hyhperplasia, secondary is due to rennin system and may or may not have hypertension and hypokalemia |
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Term
What is the workup for mineralo excess? |
|
Definition
Test K, if low then test aldos and rennin; after diag, use CT to determine if primary adenoma (surgical treat) or hyperplasia (med treat) |
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Term
|
Definition
Hypersecretion of catecholamines most of which are in adenomas in the adrenal medulla or ectopic tumors in mediastinum or abdomen; findings are hypertension, variations in blood pressure, flushing axiety, headache, palpitations and sweating |
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Term
Plasma free metaneprhine or clonidine suppresion tests for what disease? |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma, because meta is metab of catechole |
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|
Term
What is the treatment for pheocromocytoma? |
|
Definition
Surgery, plus alpha and B antags prior to suregery (phenooxybenzamie is a tyrosine ihibi) |
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|
Term
What are the criteria for fasting glucose and 2 hour oral glucose test for DM? |
|
Definition
>125 on two occasions, or >200 |
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|
Term
T or f, All type 1 DM is immune mediated. |
|
Definition
Flase, type 1 B is non-immune based |
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|
Term
What are the genetic risk factors for T1DM? |
|
Definition
Not dom or recessive, 50% of genes on short arm chrom 6 of MHC called IDDM1, MHC2 DR3 and DR4 and DQ genes high risk |
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|
Term
T or f, Most cases of T1DM are familial. |
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Definition
F, most are sporadic with 10-15% having familial link, auto immune links, immunological and environmental trigger are part of it |
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|
Term
T1DM have immunological markers like autoantibodies until islet cells gone, what else is deficient in these patients? |
|
Definition
Amylin that is cosecreted with insulin |
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|
Term
What is the genetic and famlial link of T2DM? |
|
Definition
genetic is uncertain and multifactorial, familial is direct concordance and increased risk |
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|
Term
High fat foods reduce expression of what sensor in beta cells? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Deficiency in incretin, gut peptides GIP and GLP-1 are more prevalent in what disease? |
|
Definition
T2DM, they increase beta cell productivity from oral glucose ingestion |
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|
Term
Normal preggers has increased insulin resist but which passes the placenta glucose or insulin? |
|
Definition
Glucose, not insulin - can contribute to fetal hyperinsulinism |
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|
Term
What can prevent T1DM and T2DM? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the two most serious complication of diabetes? |
|
Definition
Diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolas state most commonly precitptated by infection or lack of insulin |
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|
Term
What is the key difference btw DKA and HHS in timing, history, and exam. |
|
Definition
DKA - rapid, vomiting ab pain, kussmaul respirations; HHS - over weeks, drowsiness, confusion, lethargy |
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|
Term
What is the patho or diabetic retino? |
|
Definition
Accum or sorbitol, glycosylation end products, impaired autoregulatino of blood flow, leading to vascular leak, ischemia, and VEGF induced neovascularization |
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|
Term
What is the difference between non-proliferative and prolif diabetic retino? |
|
Definition
Non-prolifer appears late in first decade of disease and has cotton wool spots and microanuerysms, Prolifer has leaky neovascularization due to hypoxia resulting in fibrosis and retinal detachment |
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|
Term
The patho of end stage renal disease is caused by soluble factors (growth, angio2), changes in microcirculation, structural changes in the glomer, all caused by what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the screening for diabetic nephropathy? |
|
Definition
Albuminuria 30-300 and GFR via creatininie |
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|
Term
T or f, Mesangial expansion and glomer sclerosing can be seen in nephropathy. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the patho of diab neuro? |
|
Definition
Accumulation of glycol end products and sorbitol, as well as increased oxidative stress |
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|
Term
Autonomic neuropathy from diabetes can affect what organs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
T or f, Risk of CHD and poor hemostasis increases before diabetes DX is establied. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
T or f, In patients with CAD, tight glycemic control decreases macrovascular outcomes. |
|
Definition
Flase, no correlation; however, statins help reduce CAD in diabetics |
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