Term
Which of the following are functions of the limbic system - emotions, control of visceral function, olfaction, or long term memory? |
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Definition
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Term
The following regions involved in the triangular circuit - amygdala, orbital/medial prefrontal cortex, and mediodorsal nucleus of thalamus, are all involved in what limbic system function? |
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Definition
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Term
An early model for emotions circuit that involved projection from the mamillary body to the anterior thalamic nucleus, thalamus to cing gyrus, cing gyrus to hippocampus via cingulum, and hippo to the mamillary body via the fornix is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
What part of the brain is critically involed in emotional responses like learning if something is bad or good, using strong emotions to make memories, and fear from stimuli? |
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Definition
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Term
The amygdale and hippocampus are underneath what aspect of the gyrus locates in the medial brain? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the primary cell type in the dentate gyrus and the hippocampus? |
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Definition
Granule cell, and pyramidal cells |
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Term
Principal cells throughout the hippocampal circuit use what neurotransmitter? |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: In the hippocampal circuit, GABA interneurons are located in each region include basket cells. |
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Definition
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Term
Cholinergic innervation of the hippocampus comes from what nuclei? |
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Definition
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Term
Which subdivision of the hippocampus is particularly sensitive to ischemic damage? |
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Definition
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Term
Upon a pathology review of a patient there is hippocampal shrinking, gliosis, CA1/3 cell loss in hilus of dentate gyrus, preservation of granules cells and A2 in dentate gyrus, what is the diagnosis? |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: neurogenesis occurs in most regions of the brain during adult life, like dentate gyrus and subventricular zone. |
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Definition
False, new neurons only form in some regions of the brain like those listed, due to stimulation from severe seizures, exercise, SSRI treatment, and an enriched environment. |
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Term
Neurogenesis is decreased by what factor? |
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Definition
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Term
Resprouting of axons of damaged neurons may occur and has been demonstrated most clearly in patients with what disease? |
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Definition
Temporal lobe epilepsy, the mossy fibers of the granule cells occupy the inner part of the molecular cell layer in the dentate gyrus to fill in vacated spots of cells damaged in the hilus and CA3 |
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Term
The 3 major nuclei divisions of the amygdala are the basolateral, medial and central nuclei, what are their respective functions and connected regions? |
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Definition
Basolateral - emotion, association cortex (neocortical and Limbic); Medial - olfaction, olfactory cortex/hypothalamus; Central - Visceral Control, Hypothalamus/brainstem |
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Term
The following three regions are called what collectively - dentate gyrus, hippocampus, subiculum? |
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Definition
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Term
The dentate gyrus and the hippocampus are both made of 3 cell layers, explain the general cell layout. |
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Definition
The top layer is called the molecular layer/stratum radiatum, middle layer is the principal cell layer, and the bottome layer is the polymorph/stratum oriens |
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Term
T or F: the major pathway through the hippocampal formation is as follows - entorhinalcortex projects via perforant path to dentate gyrus, the dentate granule cells send their mossy fibers to the CA3 field, the schaffer axon collateral go from there to CA1, the signal is then sent to subiculum and entorhinal cortex. |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: the Cornu Ammonis are the divisions of the hippocampus. |
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Definition
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Term
The excitatory neurotransmitter of the hippocampal pathway is __________. |
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Definition
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Term
Which neurons are highly depleted in Alzheimers that innervate the hippocampus? |
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Definition
Cholinergic neurons like the septal nuclei |
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Term
This enlargement on the medial side of the temporal lobe could compress structures of the brainstem if the region were to herniated through the tentorial notch. |
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Definition
Uncus, ie. Uncal herniation |
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Term
The lenticulostriate arteries, deep branches of the MCA, penetrate the brain in what region? |
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Definition
Anterior perforated substance |
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Term
The ventral tegmental area is known for being the dopaminergic reward system of the brain, the area within the basal ganglia that receives heavy input from the VTA is …? |
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Definition
Nucleus Accumbens, which is where the head of the caudate and putamen meet |
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Term
Name the 5 components of the circle of willis. |
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Definition
ACA, Ant. comm. Art, Int. Carotid, Post. Comm Art, PCA |
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Term
What structure is the major efferent pathway for the amygdale? |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: Because abnormal neurological states may be extrinsically provoked, all seizures are a sign of epilepsy. |
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Definition
False, epilepsy is an intrinsic condition of the brain. |
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Term
What do the rhythyms ID’d in an EEG describe? |
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Definition
The post-synaptic potentials of the pyramidal layer of the cortex. |
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Term
T or F: consciousness is not an all or none phenomenon. |
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Definition
True, a deficit in any one of the neuroanatomical structures of the cortex, thalamus, or reticular activating system can produce focal or general deficits. |
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Term
What is the cause of epilepsy? |
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Definition
Any cause of cerebral cortex dysfunction: parent with epi, mental retardation, stroke, alzheimers |
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Term
T or F: more important that commonly occurring features of a seizure is the pattern of features for each individual. |
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Definition
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Term
If “ictal” means event in an EEG, what does an interictal epileptiform discharge refer to? |
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Definition
The ictal rhytyms and spikes across an EEG |
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Term
Name this seizure type: no impairment of mentation, auras, cognitive changes, autonomic changes, involuntary motor action, synesthesias. |
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Definition
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Term
Name this seizure type: altered mental status, not necessarily loss of consciousness, may/may not have aura, repetitive oral automatisms, amnesia during seizure, duration less than 2 minutes, and followed by confusion/fatigue/headache or focal neuro deficit. |
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Definition
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Term
Name this seizure type: obvious loss consciousness, may have aura, may follow complex partial, gaze deviation, less than 3 minutes, increased tone and jerks, often injury, followed by confusion/headache/amnesia |
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Definition
general tonic-clonic seizure |
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Term
How can you differentiate a generalized seizure versus a secondarily generalized seizure? |
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Definition
On the EEG, if the seizure starts partially then spreads to a both hemispheres then it is secondary, otherwise it should begin on both sides |
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Term
The neuronal membrane phenomenon that reflects instability and the occurrence of rapid cell firing is a marker of seizure risk, what is it called? |
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Definition
Paroxysmal depolarization shift |
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Term
ID which category of epilepsy each disease is associated with - Benign Rolandic, Temporal Lobe, Childhood Absence, Lennox-Gastaut. |
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Definition
Idiopathic focal, Symptomatic Focal, Idiopathic general, symptomatic general |
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Term
Which of the following are appropriate treatments for epilepsy - meds that affect neuronal membrane function, surgical resection, electrical stimulation of the vagus nerve, ketogenic diet to change serum pH. |
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Definition
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Term
Name this disease: family Hx of epilepsy, cerebral insult before age 5, auras, complex partial seizures, onset mid to late childhood, responds to treatment initially, depression, normal PE, EEG shows spikes, MRI atrophy of hippocampus, unilateral memory deficit. |
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Definition
Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy |
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Term
Of the adults with who have epilepsy 70% have partial seizures, what percent have complex partial seizures (usually occurring in the temporal lobe)? |
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Definition
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Term
What proportion of children with epilepsy have generalized epilepsy? |
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Definition
60%, it is frequently genetic |
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Term
What is the key site to prevent or terminate seizures that anti-epileptic drugs modify? |
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Definition
Ion channels in the neurons that are activated during a paroxysmal depolarizing shift |
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Term
Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Lamotrigine are all Na+ channel blockers that share what common mechanism of action? |
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Definition
They bind to the extracellular receptor on the Na+ channel. |
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Term
Which two drugs block AMPA, Kainate, and Calcium channels? |
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Definition
Topiramate, and Zonisamide |
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Term
Which anti-epileptic drug blocks synaptic vesicle protein SV2 and blocks K channels which thereby prevent AP’s and PDS’s? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following drugs act on Cl- channel to prevent APs - Benzos, Phenobarbital, Valproate? |
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Definition
All of them; first two bind to specific receptors and the last one decreases GABA degradation in the presynaptic terminal |
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Term
Which of these groups is syncope and which is seizure - 1. urinary incontinence, tongue biting, convulsions; 2. graying of vision, sweating, response to fear/pain, usually standing or sitting. |
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Definition
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Term
Name this generalized epilepsy: auto dom, carriers have EEG trait w/o clinical signs, onset 12-22, GTC seizures, provoked by EtOH/Sleep loss/strobe light. |
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Definition
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy |
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Term
ID whether each group is either absence generalized epilepsy or complex partial: 1. auras of déjà vu/epigastric rising, staring, minutes of duration, frequent automatisms, EEG shows focal sharp waves or normal, post ictal confusion, rare inheritance; 2. no auras, staring, seconds long, rare automatisms, bilateral 3 sec spike and wave on EEG, no post ictal confusion, auto dom inheritance. |
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Definition
1. complex partial, 2. absence |
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Term
Which of the following is true regarding treatment after a first seizure - early treatment reduces risk of recurrence within two years, early treatment affects long term prognosis, abnormal EEG or MRI increase risk of recurrence? |
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Definition
First and last are true, long term prognosis is not affected by early treatment |
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Term
Even though all AEDs cause fetal malformation in at least 6% of births, which of the following two classes of drugs is more teratogenic - 1. Class D - Phenytoin, Valproate, Phenobarbital, Carbamazepine; 2. Class C - Lamotrigine, Gabapentin? |
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Definition
Class D is more risky; however, Class C causes neural tube defects, ie. Lamo causes cleft lip and Gaba causes urogenital defects |
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Term
T or F: sudden death in epilepsy tends to affect young people ages 18-40, usually due to cardiac arrythmias or asphyxia. |
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Definition
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Term
Even though Carbamazepine is the drug of first choice for AED’s, a comparison of it with Levetiracetam showed what? |
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Definition
That Leve is as effective for INITIAL therapy with a similar side effect profile, although it had greater risk with insomnia and depression |
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Term
T or F: New AED’s are worse than old AED’s. |
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Definition
False, New AED’s are equivalent or better |
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Term
In the SANAD study, which drug proved better for partial seizures by being better tolerated and equiv to carbamazepine for long term? |
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Definition
Lamotrigine; although the study did show that Lamo, Carba, Topir are better than Gaba for long term remission |
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Term
In the SANAD study, it showed that which drug should remain the first choice of drug for generalized and unclassified epilepsies? |
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Definition
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Term
What does the rhomberg and pronator drift test for? |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: The ability to name objects comes from the occipital-temporal junction. |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: Lesions in the temporal lobe would cause problems like olfactory hallucinations and perception of GI disturbances. |
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Definition
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Term
A patient demonstrating a lucid phase between two episodes of unconsciousness is due to what type of hematoma? |
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Definition
SDH, usually due to severed middle meningeal artery |
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Term
Name the following syndrome: most common brain stem stroke, contralateral weakness in body, ipsilateral weakness in face, descending fiber prob causing Horner’s, possible ataxia, palatal weakness, and dysphagia. |
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Definition
Lateral medullary syndrome aka Wallenberg, usually due to posterior inferior cerebellar artery infarct |
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Term
Name the following syndrome: stroke characterized by oculomotor palsy and contralateral hemiparesis. |
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Definition
Weber syndrome, due to midbrain infarct causing lesions in corticospinal/bulbar tracts, 3rd nerve |
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