FALSE

Quiz 1

Superior (cranial) means:

a. toward the head

b. away from the head

c. toward the front

d. toward the back

a. toward the head

b. away from the head

c. toward the front

Quiz 1

Carbon atom whose atomic number is 6 has how many electrons in the outermost shell?

a. 1

b.6

c.8

d. 4

a. 1

b.6

c.8

Quiz 1

Sagittal plane divides the body into front and back sections.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 1

A plane that passes perpendicular to the long axis of the body, dividing the body intoa superior and inferior section is:

a. Sagittal

b. Coronal

c. Transverse

d. frontal

a. Sagittal

b. Coronal

c. Transverse

Quiz 1

Isotopes are atoms withtsame number of protons but a different number of neutrons.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 1

Maltose is a disaccharide made of two molecules of glucose.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 1

The study of the structure of individual cells is called:

a. Cytology

b. Histology

c. Embryology

d. Physiology

a. Cytology

b. Histology

c. Embryology

Quiz 1

Brachium is referred to:

a. head

b. neck

c. arm

d. carpus

a. head

b. neck

c. arm

Quiz 1

Animals stored carbohydrates as starch

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 1

A higher pH has a higher concentration of Hydrogen ion in a liquid solution.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 1

Gallbladder is located in wat region?

a. upper left

b. upper right

c. lower left

d. lower right

a. upper left

b. upper right

c. lower left

Quiz 1

How many carbon atoms are there in a sucrose molecule (tabe sugar)?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 12

e. 16

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 12

Quiz 1

Carbohydrates lipids and proteins are classified as:

a. organic molecules

b. inorganic molecules

c. acides

d. salts

a. organic molecules

b. inorganic molecules

c. acides

Quiz 1

Plasma membrane consists which of the following:

a. protein molecules

b. phospholipids

c. glycoproteins

d. glycolipids

e. all of these

a. protein molecules

b. phospholipids

c. glycoproteins

d. glycolipids

Quiz 1

If a cell lack mitochondria the direct result will be that it cannot:

a. manufacture protein

b. produce substantial amounts of ATP

c. packagte manufactured proteins

d. give strength to the cell

a. manufacture protein

b. produce substantial amounts of ATP

c. packagte manufactured proteins

Quiz1

Match each item with the most closely related item.

Ribosomes          a. internal protein framework

Lysosomes          b. flattened tubules

Golgi apparatus   c. site for protein synthesis

Cytoskeleton       d. vesicles containing digest enzym

Ribosomes          c

Lysosomes          d

Golgi apparatus   b

Cytoskeleton       a

Quiz 2

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?

 a. it is composed enterily of cells

b. it stores energy reserves

 c. it is avascular

d. it is capable of regeneration

e. all except b

a. it is composed enterily of cells

b. it stores energy reserves

 c. it is avascular

d. it is capable of regeneration

Quiz 2

An epithelial surface bears many microvilli.  What is the probable function of this epithelium?

a. absorption

b. secretion

c. transportation

d. sensation

a. absorption

b. secretion

c. transportation

d. sensation

Quiz 2

What kind of cells cover the Alveoli of lungs and lymphatic capillaries?

a. simple columnar

b. simple squamous

c. cuboidal

d. stratified squamous

a. simple columnar

b. simple squamous

c. cuboidal

Quiz 2

The layer of the epidermis that contains cells undergoing division is:

a. stratum corneum

b. stratum germinativum

c. stratum granulosum

d. stratum lucidum

a. stratum corneum

b. stratum germinativum

c. stratum granulosum

Quiz 2

Which layer is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

 a. dermis

b. epidermis

c. hypodermis

d. lining of trachea

a. dermis

b. epidermis

c. hypodermis

Quiz 2

The four basic types of tissue in the body are:

a. epithelial, connective, muscle and neural

b. simple, cuboidal, squamous and stratified

c. fibroblasts, adipocytes, melanocytes, and mesenchyme

d. lymphocytes, macrophages, microphages and adipocytes

a. epithelial, connective, muscle and neural

b. simple, cuboidal, squamous and stratified

c. fibroblasts, adipocytes, melanocytes, and mesenchyme

Quiz 2

The three basic types of fibers in connective tissue are:

a. tendons, ligaments and elastic ligaments

b. looser, dense and irregular

c. cartilage, bone, and collagen

d. collagen, reticular and elastic.

a. tendons, ligaments and elastic ligaments

b. looser, dense and irregular

c. cartilage, bone, and collagen

Quiz 2

The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are:

a. carotene and xanthophyll

b. carotene and melanin

c. melanin and chlorophyll

d. xanthophyll and melanin

a. carotene and xanthophyll

b. carotene and melanin

c. melanin and chlorophyll

Quiz 2

The primary function of sensible perspiration is to:

a. get rid of wastes

b. protect the skin from dryness

c. maintain electrolyte balance

d. reduce body temperature

a. get rid of wastes

b. protect the skin from dryness

c. maintain electrolyte balance

Quiz 2

Which two types of connective tissue have a fluid matrix?

a. lymph and cartilage

b. cartilage and bone

c. blood and bone

d. blood and lymph

a. lymph and cartilage

b. cartilage and bone

c. blood and bone

Quiz 2

Which cavities in the body are lined by serous membranes?

a. cranial and abdominal

b. pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial

c. synovial and fascial

d. nasal, urinary and reproductive

a. cranial and abdominal

b. pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial

c. synovial and fascial

Quiz 2

The lining of the nasal cavity is normally moist, contains numerous goblet cells, and rests on a layer of connective tissue called the lamina propria. Which type of membrane is this?

a. mucous

b. serous

c. cutaneous

d. synovial

a. mucous

b. serous

c. cutaneous

Quiz 2

Which is not a tissue type in the body?
a. epithelial

b. connective

c. muscular

d. golgi apparatus

e. nervous

a. epithelial

b. connective

c. muscular

d. golgi apparatus

Quiz 2

Which is an example of Merocrine gland?

a. sweat glands

b. milk glands

c. gastric glands

d. none of these

a. sweat glands

b. milk glands

c. gastric glands

Quiz 2

Tendons are made of:

a. dense regular CT

b. dense irregular CT

c. reticular

d. cartilage

d. liquid CT

a. dense regular CT

b. dense irregular CT

c. reticular

d. cartilage

Quiz 2

Matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue?

a. epithelial

b. neural

c. muscle

d. connective

a. epithelial

b. neural

c. muscle

Quiz 2

Which is considered a tissue of the body

a. epithelial

b. connective

c. muscular

d. nervous

e. all of them

a. epithelial

b. connective

c. muscular

d. nervous

Quiz 3

The human skeletal system consists of how many bones?

a. 120

b. 180

c. 206

d. 300

e. 350

a. 120

b. 180

c. 206

d. 300

Quiz 3

The concentric rings of calcified matrix in compact bone is called:

a. osteon

b. osteoid

c. lamella

d. lacuna

a. osteon

b. osteoid

c. lamella

Quiz 3

Hair-like tubules that allow nutrients to pass between the osteocytes is called:

a. osteons 

b. lamellae

c. matrix

d. canaliculi

e. lacunae

a. osteons 

b. lamellae

c. matrix

d. canaliculi

Quiz 3

The mature bone cells are called:

a. osteoclasts

b. osteoblasts 

c. osteocytes

d. chondrocytes

a. osteoclasts

b. osteoblasts 

c. osteocytes

Quiz 3

The first cervical vertebra is called:

a. coccyx

b. axis

c. atlas

d. occipital

a. coccyx

b. axis

c. atlas

d. occipital

Quiz 3

In jumping, if you fall on your heel, the bone that is likely to break is first metatarsal bone.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 3

If you hit a hard surface with your elbow, the bone that is more likely to fracutre is the:

a. styloid process of the radius

b. olecranon of the ulna

c. elecranon of the radius

d. head of ulna

a. styloid process of the radius

b. olecranon of the ulna

c. elecranon of the radius

Quiz 3

If you fall on your knee, the bone that is more likely to fracture is the ischium.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 3

In anatomical position, the radius is to the lateral (away from body midline)

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 3

The secretion of the hormone calcitonin, is triggered by high level of Ca++ in the blood.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 4

Collateral and popliteal ligaments contribute to teh stability of the:

a. knee

b. elbow

c. shoulder

d. ankle

a. knee

b. elbow

c. shoulder

Quiz 4

The hip bone is a:

a. hinge joint

b. synovial joint

c. ball and socket joint

d. both b and c

a. hinge joint

b. synovial joint

c. ball and socket joint

d. both b and c

Quiz 4

Joint between phalanges and metacarpal bone is a:

a. hinge joint

b. gliding joint

c. condyloid joint

d. pivot joint

a. hinge joint

b. gliding joint

c. condyloid joint

Quiz 4

Knee joint is more stable than hip joint.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 4

What tissues are striated, involuntary, branched, uninucleate and have short broad T-tubules?

a. smooth muscles

b. connective tissues

c. cardiac muscles

d. skeletal muscles

a. smooth muscles

b. connective tissues

c. cardiac muscles

Quiz 4

Pronation is when radius rotates over ulna.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 4

In some organs, smooth muscles can be controlled voluntarily.

True/False 

True/False 

Quiz 4

Which is found in the walls of visceral organs, such as the intestine, blood vessels...

a. smooth muscle

b. cardiac muscle

c. skeletal muscle

d. both a and b

a. smooth muscle

b. cardiac muscle

c. skeletal muscle

Quiz 4

The contracting proteins within a myofibril are:

a. troponin and tropomyosin

b. myosin and myoglobin

c. hemoglobin and myoglobin

d. myosin and actin

a. troponin and tropomyosin

b. myosin and myoglobin

c. hemoglobin and myoglobin

Quiz 4

When a muscle contracts, it:

a. shortens and pushes a bone

b. lengthens and pulls a bone

c. shortens and pulls or pushes a bone

d. shortens and pulls a bone

a. shortens and pushes a bone

b. lengthens and pulls a bone

c. shortens and pulls or pushes a bone

Quiz 4

Muscles are attached to bones by:

a. ligaments

b. fascia

c. other muscles

d. tendons

a. ligaments

b. fascia

c. other muscles

d. tendons

Quiz 4

Some oxygen may be stored within muscle fibers bonded to:

a. myosin

b. troponin

c. myoglobin

d. hemoglobin

a. myosin

b. troponin

c. myoglobin

Quiz 4

Acetylcholine secreted by nerve endings, makes the sarcolemma more permeable to:

a. oxygen

b. sodium ions

c. potassium ions

d. florin ions

a. oxygen

b. sodium ions

c. potassium ions

Quiz 4

Fast fibers, have larger fiber diameter, few mitochondria, contract fast, fatigue soon.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 4

Muscle fatigue is the reult of production of:

a. lactic acid

b. pyruvic acid

c. glucose

d. oxygen

a. lactic acid

b. pyruvic acid

c. glucose

Quiz 5

Which muscle wrinkles forehead and lifts eyebrow?

a. orbicularis oculi

b. orbicularis oris

c. frontalis

d. zygomaticus

a. orbicularis oculi

b. orbicularis oris

c. frontalis

Quiz 5

Which muscle abducts and raises arm at shoulder joint?

a. pectoralis major

b. deltoid

c. biceps brachii

d. masseter

a. pectoralis major

b. deltoid

c. biceps brachii

Quiz 5

Which muscle rotates thigh (sitting cross legged)?

a. rectus abdominis

b. sartorius

c. trapezius

d. external oblique

a. rectus abdominis

b. sartorius

c. trapezius

Quiz 5

Arise from four heads, extends knee and flex thigh at hip, used when we rise.

a. quadriceps femoris

b. biceps femoris

c. extensor digitorum

d. none of these

a. quadriceps femoris

b. biceps femoris

c. extensor digitorum

Quiz 5

The major extensor of thigh, most effective in climbin stairs is:

a. biceps femoris

b. gluteus maximus

c. semitendinosus

d. sartorius

a. biceps femoris

b. gluteus maximus

c. semitendinosus

Quiz 5

Which muscle raises corner of mouth when you smile?

a. frontalis

b. orbicularis oculi

c. zygomaticus

d. masseter

a. frontalis

b. orbicularis oculi

c. zygomaticus

Quiz 5

Which muscle is the major muscle for extending the leg at knee?

a. quadriceps femoris

b. biceps femoris

c. extensor digitorum

d. none of these

a. quadriceps femoris

b. biceps femoris

c. extensor digitorum

Quiz 5

Which is the prime mover of thigh flexion, consist of two muscles; used when we bow?

a. ilipsoas

b. tensor fasciae latae

c. quadriceps femoris

d. both b and c

a. ilipsoas

b. tensor fasciae latae

c. quadriceps femoris

Quiz 5

Its function is plantar flexion, important in walking, running,dancing.

a. gluteus minims

b. soleus

c. digitorum brevis

d. none of these

a. gluteus minims

b. soleus

c. digitorum brevis

Quiz 5

Which muscle is involved when we stand on our toe?

a. tibialis posterior

b. soleus

c. fibularis longus

d. all of these

a. tibialis posterior

b. soleus

c. fibularis longus

Quiz 6

 Which of the following is not the function of neuroglia?

a. support

b. information processing

c. secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

d. phagocytosis

a. support

b. information processing

c. secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

Quiz 6

Glial cells found surrounding the cell bodies of peripheral neurons are:

a. astrocytes

b. ependymal cells

c. microglia

d. satellite cells

a. astrocytes

b. ependymal cells

c. microglia

Quiz 6

Teh whole nerve is surrounded by tough fibrous sheath, referred to as:

a. epineurium

b. perineurium

c. endoneurium

d. epimesium

a. epineurium

b. perineurium

c. endoneurium

Quiz 6

Which part of the neuron is the major receptive site?

a. axon terminal

b. schwann cells

c. dendrites

d. neurofibrils

a. axon terminal

b. schwann cells

c. dendrites

Quiz 6

Which is not a true statement?

a. Nodes of ranvier are gaps along axon

b. Thick axons are myelinated

c. Dendrites are surrounded by Schwann cells

a. Nodes of ranvier are gaps along axon

b. Thick axons are myelinated

Quiz 6

Myelinated axons conduct impulses five times faster than unmyelinated axons.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 6

Phagocytic cells in the neural tissue of the CNS are:

a. astrocytes

b. ependymal cells

c. oligodendrocytes

d. microglia

a. astrocytes

b. ependymal cells

c. oligodendrocytes

Quiz 6

The neural cells responsible for the analysis of sensory inputs and coordination of the motor outputs are:

 a. neuroglia

b. interneurons

c. sensory neurons

d. motor neurons

a. neuroglia

b. interneurons

c. sensory neurons

Quiz 6

Posterior (dorsal) gray horn contain sensory nuclei.

True/False

True/False 

Quiz 6

There are 33 pairs of spinal nerves.

True/False

True/False 

Scantron marked True but I think it was 31 pairs.

Quiz 6

Regulation by the nervous system provides:

a. relatively slow, but long-lasting, responses to stimuli

b. swift, long-long lastingresponses to stimuli

c. swift, but brief, responses to stimuli

d. relatively slow, short-lived responses to stimuli

a. relatively slow, but long-lasting, responses to stimuli

b. swift, long-long lastingresponses to stimuli

c. swift, but brief, responses to stimuli

Quiz 6

The afferent division of the PNS

a.  brings sensory information to the CNS

b. carries motor commands to muscle and glands

c. processes and integrates sensory data

d. is the seat of higher functions in the body

a.  brings sensory information to the CNS

b. carries motor commands to muscle and glands

c. processes and integrates sensory data

Quiz 6

The part of the nervous system that controls voluntary contractions of skeletal muscle is the:

a. somatic nervous system

b. autonomic nervous system

c. visceral motor system

d. sympathetic division of the ANS

a. somatic nervous system

b. autonomic nervous system

c. visceral motor system

Quiz 6

Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands are among the targets of the:

a. somatic nervous system

b. sensory neurons

c. afferent division of the PNS

d. autonomic nervous system

a. somatic nervous system

b. sensory neurons

c. afferent division of the PNS

Quiz 6

In the CNS, a neuron typically receives information from other neurons at its:

a. axon

b. nissel bodies

c. dendrites

d. nucleus

a. axon

b. nissel bodies

c. dendrites