Term
Describe Huntington's disease |
|
Definition
-Progressive degenerative neurological disease
-Characterized by involuntary jerky movements called "chorea"
-Memory loss, depression, dementia
-Onset: ~40
-Death by early 50s
-No known cure |
|
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Term
How is Huntington's disease inherited? |
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Definition
-Single gene
-Dominant
-Fully penetrant |
|
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Term
How is breast cancer inherited? |
|
Definition
-Dominant
-BRCA 1 - susceptibility gene
-Incompletely penetrant: 80% chance of developing breast cancer, 50% chance of developing ovarian cancer |
|
|
Term
In what percentage of breast cancers are BRCA1 mutations present? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What are the normal roles of the two types of genes? |
|
Definition
1) To promote cell cycle/cell division
2) To prevent cell cycle/cell division
(BRCA 1 falls into neither of these categories) |
|
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Term
Many genes involved in cancer function by... |
|
Definition
directly controlling the cell cycle and cell division.
(Cancer is largely a disease where cells lose growth control) |
|
|
Term
What is the function of BRCA1? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
-A single unit of heritable information
-A gene is comprised of the transcribed region of DNA plus all of the DNA control sequences necessary to get the transcript expressed in the proper expression pattern (i.e. at the correct level, in the correct cell type, at the correct time in development, under the proper environmental conditions) |
|
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Term
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Definition
Genetic variant; one allele is different from another because of changes in DNA sequence; alleles vary in populations |
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Term
|
Definition
-Genetic makeup of an organism
-Description of all alleles than an organism possesses |
|
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Term
|
Definition
-An observable trait
-Dependent on both genotype and environment |
|
|
Term
Two mutations are allelic (i.e. contain mutations in the same gene) if when crossed together... |
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Definition
they fail to complement in the F1 generation - meaning that the complementation test (which looks at separation of phenotypes) failed to get the wild type in progeny. Thus if you get complementation, there are mutations in different genes. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
-Most often protein
-Increasingly RNA
-Carry out functions in cells |
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Term
What are control regions? |
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Definition
-Generally not transcribed
-Generally 5' to the start of transcription
-Provide information about when, where, and at what level a gene is to be transcribed |
|
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Term
What is the most important mechanism of gene regulation? |
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Definition
Regulation of the initiation of transcription of genes |
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Term
Explain spatial and temporal control of gene expression (which is present in multicellular eukaryotes) |
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Definition
Spatial: genes turn on in a subset of cells of the organism, e.g. brain specific, liver specific
Temporal: genes turn on at a particular time in development, e.g. embryonic vs. adult |
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Term
How many genes are present in humans? |
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Definition
20,000
(Human haploid genome contains 3.2 X 109 bp) |
|
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Term
How many naturally occurring amino acids are there? |
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Definition
20
(43 = 64 possibilites, 61 codons are amino acids, 3 are stop codons) |
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|
Term
What is the function of the UTR regions? |
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Definition
To control efficiency of translation |
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Term
Where does RNA processing/splicing take place? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three components of DNA? |
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Definition
1) Base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine)
2) Sugar (deoxyribose)
3) Phosphate
Nucleotides are composed of these 3 things |
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Term
How are nucleotides linked together? |
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Definition
5' phosphate end, 3' hydroxyl end - 3' to 5' phosphodiester bond |
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Term
What are the 5 key aspects of the Watson-Crick model? |
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Definition
1) Hydrogen bonds between pyrimidines and purines
2) Two chains - double helix
3) Antiparallel - 5' to 3' directionality of two chains run in opposite directions
4) Sugar-phosphate backbone is on the outside, bases in middle
5) DNA has a net negative charge |
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Term
What are 3 key differences between RNA and DNA? |
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Definition
1) Sugar: ribose for RNA, 2' deoxyribose for DNA
2) Uracil (a pyrimidine) is utilized in place of thymine
3) Although RNA can form Watson-Crick hydrogen bonds, RNA is generally single stranded |
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Term
What are two ways to develop a mutation? |
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Definition
1) DNA replication errors - one copying error per billion nucleotides synthesized
2) Chemical damage to DNA - spontaneous breakdown, environmental damage |
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Term
Describe the effects of mutations |
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Definition
2 possibilities
1) Between genes --> no phenotypic effect
2) Within a gene --> can cause phenotypic effects
-------2 possibilities
------1) in control region
------2) in transcribed region
------------2 possibilities
------------1) in coding region - open reading frame (ORF)
------------2) in transcribed, but untranslated regions (UTR) |
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Term
What are the implications of mutations - specifically single base changes within a coding region (ORF)? |
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Definition
1) Silent (synonymous) - no change in amino acid
GGG (glycine) --> GGA (still glycine)
2) Missense (non-synonymous) - change in amino acid; altered protein
CTT (leucine) --> CGT (arginine)
3) Nonsense - amino acid to stop codon; truncated protein
TGG (tryptophan) --> TGA (stop)
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Term
Mutations in the control region can affect... |
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Definition
binding of sequence-specific regulatory proteins |
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Term
What are the three classes of the (rare) gain-of-function alleles? |
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Definition
1) Overexpression, misexpression
2) New activity
3) "Dominant-negative" |
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|
Term
What is the mutation rate per nucleotide per generation? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Homologous chromosomes align and segregate independently during... |
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Definition
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Term
In ____ , the homologous chromosomes find each other, line up along their entire length, and exchange genetic information in a process called recombination |
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Definition
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Term
When an organism has multiple chromosomes, _______ _______ of homologues increases diversity |
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Definition
independent assortment
(2n possible combinations for n homologues) |
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Term
Who coined the terms "zygote," "heterozygote," "homozygote," "allele," and "genetics?" |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who was a chicken breeder and middle school student torturer? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Describe the level of variation in humans |
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Definition
There is one variable nucleotide every 1000 base pairs ~ 0.001 |
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Term
You perform a controlled cross and observe 9:3:3:1 segregation of a phenotype. Can only one locus control this trait? |
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Definition
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|
Term
List the sources of phenotypic variation |
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Definition
-Genetic variation
-Environmental variation
Variance components: (Vp=Vg+Ve)
-Heritability (H=Vg/Vp) = slope of parent offspring regression |
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Term
A perfectly inbred breed of dog shows variation in both weight and behavior. This is due to ______ variation. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Describe protein electrophoresis |
|
Definition
Measures genetic variation
1) Homogenize individuals
2) Apply homogenate to electrophoresis gel
3) Run gel; proteins migrate according to charge
4) Apply a histochemical stain to gel
5) Alternative genotypes and alleles directly visible
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Term
Describe the 1980s style of DNA fingerprinting |
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Definition
1) Extract DNA
2) Cleave with restriction endonuclease
3) Run out on gel
4) Stain / add probe
5) Compare fingerprints
Current forensic technologies focus on extremely variable repeat sequences in human genome |
|
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Term
What are microsatellites? |
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Definition
Highly variable repeats (used in forensics) |
|
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Term
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Definition
A haplotype is like an extended allele - basically a haploid string of alleles |
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Term
The common disease - common variant hypothesis states that... |
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Definition
common diseases should be caused by common genetic variants
(this is not reasonable, however, because natural selection selects against common genetic variants that cause disease) |
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Term
Why was the HapMap Project unsuccessful? |
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Definition
While the project's original goal was to explain common genetic disease through identification of common variation, the CD-CV hypothesis was not very good and there was a problem of "missing heritability" |
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Term
Why does SNP density vary throughout the human genome? |
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Definition
Genes expressed in introns, for example, are less likely to be expressed phenotypically, and thus mutations in introns will not lower a person's chance of passing on genes to offspring. Thus, SNP density is larger in introns. |
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Term
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Definition
Change in gene frequencies across generations/populations |
|
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Term
What are three deterministic forces? |
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Definition
1) Selection
2) Migration
3) Mutation
Non-random, linear pressure - change in allele frequencies in a directional manner |
|
|
Term
What are two stochastic forces? |
|
Definition
1) Genetic drift (random change in allele frequency from one generation to the next)
2) Recombination |
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|
Term
List the six assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg Law |
|
Definition
1) Diploid sexual population
2) Infinite population size
3) Random mating
4) No selection
5) No migration
6) No mutation |
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|
Term
Darwin defined evolution as... |
|
Definition
descent with modification |
|
|
Term
What is the organizing force in biology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fitness is how likely an organism with any given genotype is to survive to adulthood and then reproduce |
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Term
_________ _________ removes variation from populations |
|
Definition
Directional selection
(Mutations work conversely - add variation) |
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|
Term
In smaller populations, which is more powerful: selection or drift? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What were the three major evolutionary transitions experienced by humans? |
|
Definition
1) Terrestriality
2) Bipedalism
3) Encephalization |
|
|
Term
What is the African replacement model? |
|
Definition
-African origin of H. sapiens
-2nd, 3rd wave of migration
-H. sapiens displaces resident H. erectus and Neanderthals |
|
|
Term
What is the hybridization model? |
|
Definition
-Like African replacement model
-Involves hybridization between H. sapiens and others |
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|
Term
What is the multi-regional model? |
|
Definition
-Parallel origin of H. sapiens in different regions
-Requires gene flow |
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Term
|
Definition
Equivalent to genetic variation. Literally equals 2pq as calculated from allele frequencies. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A comparison of diversity between populations. Fst equals the amount of variation that is between populations versus within. Fst=1 if populations share no variation, Fst=0 if populations are totally the same. |
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Term
What do the mitochondrial eve hypothesis and multi-locus microsatellite analysis tell us about human origins? |
|
Definition
-Greater diversity in Africa
-Most recent common ancestor 100,000-200,000 years ago |
|
|
Term
What does Neanderthal mtDNA tell us about human origins? |
|
Definition
-Very distinct from human mtDNA
-No gene flow
-Only one "gene" |
|
|
Term
How much variation exists within human populations, between populations within a race, and between races? |
|
Definition
-85% within population
-8-9% between populations within races
-6% between races |
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|
Term
Are there genes than can define race? |
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Definition
No - but there are genes than can identify phenotypes correlated with race |
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|
Term
What happens when you engineer mice with null alleles of the HTT gene? |
|
Definition
Homozygous mutant mice (htt/htt) are embryonic lethal - die during gestation
But heterozygous (htt/HTT+) mice are completely normal. This demonstrates that htt is recessive to HTT+. --Evidence that HD disease alleles are new activity gain-of-function |
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|
Term
List potential treatments/cures for Huntington's disease |
|
Definition
1) Drugs to promote clearance of aggregated nuclear HTT protein
2) Drugs to block "new" activities of HTT aggregates
3) Drugs to inhibit the proteases that cleave mutant HTT (protease cleavage is necessary for disease development)
4) Allele-specific gene silencing strategies -- difficult |
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|
Term
Why do we map disease genes? |
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Definition
Markers --> Linkage --> Phenotype
Want to find genetic variant(s) which explain additive variance underlying a trait |
|
|
Term
Who was Thomas Hunt Morgan? |
|
Definition
Father of Drosophila genetics |
|
|
Term
Who was Alfred Sturtevant? |
|
Definition
Inventor of genetic mapping |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Founder of the chromosomal theory of inheritance |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of PCR? |
|
Definition
-Amplify small regions (100-10,000 bp) of DNA in vitro (in a test tube)
-Can get 106-109 fold amplification |
|
|
Term
DNA synthesis (in vitro and in vivo) requires these four things: |
|
Definition
1) Enzyme to polymerize DNA (DNA polymerase)
2) Template (DNA to copy)
3) Oligonucleotide primer - need a free 3'-OH to begin synthesis
4) Deoxynucleotide triphosphates - dATP, dCTP, dGTP, dTTP (dNTPs)
(DNA synthesis always proceeds 5' to 3') |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 key components of PCR? |
|
Definition
1) Two single-stranded oligonucleotide primers
-complementary to sequences flanking the microsatellite
-arranged in an orientation so that their 3' ends point toward each other
2) Double-stranded DNA template
3)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
4) Thermostable DNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1) Denature DNA (95oC) - separates two strands
2) Anneal primers (50oC) - usually 20-25 bases long
3) Add nucleotides (dNTPs) and DNA polymerase
4) Repeat: denature, anneal, polymerize - amplification of the DNA between the primers |
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Term
|
Definition
The tendency for trait to be co-inherited - results from physical organization of chromosomes
(Markers that are far away on chromosomes will have less linkage disequilibrium / more recombination than markers that are close to each other) |
|
|
Term
What are the major steps of nucleotide excision repair (NER), used to remove thymine dimers in E. coli and in humans |
|
Definition
1) Recognition of damage
2) Removal of damaged region
3) Resynthesis of DNA to replace the removed region (using DNA polymerase) |
|
|
Term
Mismatch repair repairs... |
|
Definition
DNA replication errors
(able to distinguish newly replicated strand from template strand) |
|
|
Term
Lynch syndrome exhibit "_______" instability |
|
Definition
microsatellite
-Microsatellites are not accurately replicated by DNA polymerases
-Need to the MMR machinery to correct these errors |
|
|
Term
What are two possibilities for repairing double strand breaks? |
|
Definition
1) Randomly glue the pieces back together using non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) - active in G1 of the cell cycle
2) Use the sister chromatid to serve as a template for putting the pieces back together - recombination repair - active in G2 of the cell cycle |
|
|
Term
Proteins can encode these 3 things: |
|
Definition
1) enzymes
2) regulatory molecules
3) structural proteins |
|
|
Term
Describe Xeroderma Pigmentosa (XP) |
|
Definition
Patients exhibit extreme sun sensitivity and have a high rate of skin damage and skin cancers (1000 fold increased rate)
Autosomal recessive inheritance |
|
|
Term
Describe Trichothiodystrophy (TDD) |
|
Definition
-Patients exhibit brittle hair, fish-like scales on the skin, developmental and mental retardation
-Defects in sulfur metabolism
-Autosomal recessive inheritance
-No increased rate of skin cancers |
|
|
Term
Describe Cockayne syndrome (CS) |
|
Definition
-Patients are dwarfs often exhibit facial and limb abnormalities
-Mental retardation
-Premature aging
-Early death due to neurodegeneration
-No increased rate of skin cancers |
|
|
Term
How can we explain 3 diseases (XP, TDD, and CS) which all have mutations in XPB and XPD? |
|
Definition
XPB and XPD - 3 activities
1) Basal transcription - defective in TDD
2) NER - defective in XP
3) Transcription-coupled DNA repair - defective in CS
Partial loss of function |
|
|
Term
What is the leading cause of blindness in the US? |
|
Definition
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) |
|
|
Term
Which type of AMD is characterized by: blood vessel growth under macula, leakage of capillary fluid (blood damages retina), rapidly occurring damage, and straight lines appearing wavy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of AMD is characterized by: slow breakdown of photosensitive cells in macula, gradual loss of central vision, and drusen (early symptom)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the gene responsible for macular degeneration? |
|
Definition
HTRA1 (heat shock serine protease / HTRA serine peptidase)
Encodes a protein of 480 amino acids |
|
|
Term
How does the HTRA disease allele affect gene activity? |
|
Definition
-Control region mutations can affect transcription
-Can affect level - too much RNA produced
-Can affect spatial/temporal pattern - where/when RNA is transcribed |
|
|
Term
Why do we see an increase in the level of HTRA RNA when we have a mutation at -512? |
|
Definition
-In control regions, there are binding sites for sequence-specific DNA binding proteins
-Some of these sequence specific DNA binding proteins function as activators (increase rate of transcription)
-Other sequence specific DNA binding proteins function as repressors (decrease transcription) |
|
|
Term
List four degenerative diseases |
|
Definition
Parkinson's
Diabetes
Alzheimer's
Hepatitis |
|
|
Term
What type of diseases are cured by stem cell based therapies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List two genetic diseases |
|
Definition
Cystic fibrosis
Huntington's disease |
|
|
Term
What type of therapy is used to cure genetic diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will happen to an 8 cell embryo if one cell is removed? |
|
Definition
A normal embryo will develop |
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|
Term
What are the different types of stem cells? |
|
Definition
1) Totipotent - give rise to all cells - embryonic and extraembryonic (e.g. placenta)
2) Pluripotent - give rise to all cell types of the embryo/adult
3) Multipotent - give rise to a subset of cell types, e.g. hematopoetic stem cell give rise to all blood cells |
|
|
Term
What are the two functions of stem cells? |
|
Definition
1) Produce different cell types during development
2) Replenish cells in the adult |
|
|
Term
What are the desired characteristics of stem cell lines? |
|
Definition
1) Renewable - replace themselves
2) Stable - not change over time
3) Expandable - produce large numbers
4) Differentiation - reproducible, controllable, functional in vivo |
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|
Term
Why is the development of iPS cells very encouraging? |
|
Definition
1) Addresses ethical concerns since ES cells are generated from adult cells - no embryos are destroyed
2) Addresses issues of rejection - since could generate ES cells for each individual |
|
|
Term
Of the following reprogramming factors, which is essential to form iPS cells?
Oct4, Sox2, c-myc, Klf4 |
|
Definition
Oct4, which encodes a DNA binding protein / transcription factor |
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|
Term
List the two types of gene therapy and how they work |
|
Definition
1) Germ-line gene therapy - transgene present in germ cells (eggs and sperm), thus alleles that are passed on to progeny are changed - not being pursued in humans due to ethical concerns
2) Somatic cell gene therapy - cure genetic defect in an affected somatic cell type - is being pursued in humans, but results are mixed |
|
|
Term
Describe the characteristics of cystic fibrosis |
|
Definition
-Lungs accumulate thick mucus secretions
-Leads to blockage of airways and secondary infections - mostly bacterial
-Chronic, persistent, and serious lung infections
-Underhydration of lung airway
-Leads to changes in viscosity and/or ionic properties of the airway surface mucus leading to reduced ability to clear inhaled bacteria |
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|
Term
Explain the inheritance patterns of cystic fibrosis |
|
Definition
-Recessive
-Single gene
-Loss-of-function alleles
-One of the most common genetic disorders among individuals of W. European origin |
|
|
Term
What does a p-value represent? |
|
Definition
The probability of data under the null model |
|
|
Term
Which repair pathway is BRCA1 involved in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is the change in F508 so damaging in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
The deletion of this single amino acid in the cytoplasmic domain causes the CFTR protein to not fold correctly. Normally the membrane protein CFTR is translated by ribosomes associated with the ER. However, in this case, the "unfolded protein" response machinery degrades the protein and thus, it never makes it to the PM. |
|
|
Term
What are 4 gene delivery mechanisms for somatic cell gene therapy used to treat cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
1) Use an adenovirus to deliver the CFTR gene - not effective, get immunological response
2) Use liposome mediated gene transfer to deliver the CFTR gene - more effective than Adv - low level correction that is extremely transient
3) Use a recombinant adeno-associated virus to deliver the CFTR gene - partial correction of chloride transport abnormalities
4) Use compacted DNA to deliver the CFTR gene |
|
|
Term
Why doesn't CF fit the mutation selection balance model? |
|
Definition
There is a heterozygote advantage - increased Cl in cells leads to less diarrhea when infected with cholera, thus survival |
|
|
Term
What are two molecular causes of SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency)?
(Lack of function of B and T lymphocytes - compromised immune system) |
|
Definition
1) Mutation in ADA gene - encodes adenosine deaminase - in the absence of this enzyme, a metabolic intermediate builds up in cells that is toxic to B and T cells
2) Mutation in γc-cytokine IL2 receptor - protein necessary for growth and differentiation of T cells |
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|
Term
Was the ex vivo approach effective in treating SCID? |
|
Definition
No - success depended on percent of cells that contained transgene - lymphocytes do not persist indefinitely - transgene transcriptionally silenced - some patients went on to develop T-cell leukemias due to insertion of the retroviral DNA carrying the transgene into a gene known to be associated with T-cell leukemias |
|
|
Term
What is the function of PNKP? |
|
Definition
Polynucleotide kinase 3' phosphatase
Kinase - enzyme that adds a phosphate
Phosphatase - enzyme that removes a phosphate |
|
|
Term
What is the inheritance pattern of MCSZ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or false: MCSZ causes immunodeficiency, sensitivity to radiation, and increased rate of cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does Reverse Transcription PCR work and what is the end result? |
|
Definition
Synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template; end result is a double stranded DNA copy of the mRNA called cDNA |
|
|
Term
What type of mutations are the disease alleles that cause MCSZ? |
|
Definition
4 mutations: 2 missense, 1 duplication (frameshift), 1 splicing defect
Loss-of-function mutations |
|
|
Term
How does a Western blot work? |
|
Definition
1) Run protein extract on an SDS-polyacrylamide gel
2) Transfer the proteins to a nylon membrane
3) Use an antibody against PNKP - protein that very specially recognizes PNKP, but not other proteins
4) Use x-ray film to visualize results |
|
|
Term
What repair pathways is PNKP involved in? |
|
Definition
BER, NHEJ, and SSB repair |
|
|
Term
What is the aim of a comet assay? |
|
Definition
To determine the level of DNA repair in affected vs. unaffected individuals |
|
|
Term
How does in situ hybridization work? |
|
Definition
Collect tissue. Fix with formaldehyde.
Section tissue into thin sections (15 microns).
Attach sections to glass microscope slides.
mRNA on the slide is detected via hybridization.
Labeled single-stranded probe - often called antisense strand.
Label allows visualization of where probe hybridizes to mRNA. |
|
|
Term
How many unique diploid genotypes are possible if one considers 2 loci each with two alleles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or false?
Mutation is a deterministic force at the level of individuals within a population |
|
Definition
False; mutation is a deterministic force at the level of an entire population |
|
|
Term
What are the features of the HTRA protein, implicated in AMD |
|
Definition
Signal peptide - directs the protein to the secretory pathway (for proteins that will be transported outside the cell)
IGFB domain - insulin growth factor binding domain - characterized by 12 Cys residues
Serine protease domain |
|
|
Term
In disease alleles, where are mutations located in the HTRA protein? |
|
Definition
Mutation does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein - not located in the coding region
Located in the control region - thus affects transcription - high level of transcription - SRF repressor unable to bind |
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|