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1. Over the past several decades, natural selection has caused populations of Staphylococcus aureus (an infectious wound bacterium) to evolve resistance to most antibiotics. If antibiotic use were stopped, what would you predict would happen to these S. aureus populations? |
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The frequency of non-resistant forms will increase in these populations |
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What would enable you to detect aneuploidy? |
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What is an example of monosomy? |
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In 1985 Hassold and Chiu found that the likelihood of miscarriage increased with maternal age. What is the most likely explanation for the relationship between age and miscarriage? |
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Ova are arrested in meiosis until ovulation. As a result, completion of meiosis in the older woman is more likely to result in aneuploidy or other chromosomal abnormalities. |
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What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g., triploidy)? |
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The offsprings are often sterile |
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5. Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds? |
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Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs. What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair? |
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7. A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that this couple's first son will be color blind? |
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man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to _____. |
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9. Regarding an allelic pair for flower color in snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas the two homozygotes have red flowers or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring is expected to have pink flowers? |
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10. Gill pouches in chick, human, and house-cat embryos are an example of _____. |
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b. developmental homology |
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11. What causes Down syndrome? |
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b. an extra chromosome 21 |
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d. due to lack of an enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, and damage can therefore be controlled by a diet low in this amino acid. |
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13. In Phenylketonuria, what is the term used to describe this pattern of inheritance? |
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14. In humans, ABO blood types refer to glyocproteins in the membranes of red blood cells. There are three alleles for this autosomal gene: IA, IB, and i. The IA allele codes for the A glycoprotein, The IB allele codes for the B glycoprotein, and the i allele doesn't code for any membrane glycoprotein. IA and IB are codominant, and i is recessive to both IA and IB. People with A type blood have the genotypes IAIA or IAi, people with type B blood are IBIB or IBi, people with type AB blood are IAIB, and people with O type blood are ii. If a woman with type AB blood marries a man with type O blood, which of the following blood types could their children possibly have? |
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15. Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection remarkable? |
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c. It dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations. |
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16. Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection? Condition 1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable. Condition 2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success. Condition 3: Individuals pass on all traits they acquire during their lifetime. |
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17. A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best describes this observation? |
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d. Only triazine-resistant weeds survived and reproduced, so each year more pigweed was triazine-resistant. |
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18. A human male has ____ chromosomes with ____ sex chromosomes. |
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19. Which of these terms would be equivalent to a 3n cell? |
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20. If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype, what would be the logical genotype of the parents? |
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21. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype, |
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22. Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution? |
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b. change in allele frequencies in a population over time |
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23. After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on Daphne Major in the Galapagos Islands, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks did because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is true, what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where Tribulus cistoides is the primary available food in all years? Assume that (1) even the survivors of the 1977 drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough T. cistoides fruits and would eat other seeds when offered a choice; and (2) food availability is the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island. |
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a. evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time |
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24. If a plant heterozygous for a particular allele self-fertilizes, what percentage of the offspring would you expect to be heterozygous for that allele? |
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25. What is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring produced by the cross Aa x Aa? Assume complete dominance for the trait. |
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c. 75% dominant 25% recessive |
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26. An organism heterozygous for two pairs of genes produces how many genetically distinct kinds of gametes? |
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27. Two pea plants, hybrid for a single trait, produce 60 pea plants. Approximately how many of the pea plants are expected to exhibit the recessive trait? |
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28. The symbol “F” in the results of a testcross stands for |
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29. (T/F) The phenotype is usually the physical appearance of an individual |
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30. (T/F) Mendel used statistical methods in the interpretation of his results. |
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31. (T/F) Mendel's work was widely accepted and praised when he reported his results. |
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32. (T/F) The F1 offspring of a monohybrid cross will be intermediate in phenotype between the phenotypes of the parents. |
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T/F) The ratio Mendel obtained from his monohybrid cross was approximately 9:3:3:1. |
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34. (T/F) Mendel developed a blended theory of inheritance. |
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35. A test cross is used to determine |
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b. The genotype of a plant that displays the dominant phenotype. |
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b. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes |
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37. In males, the Y chromosome |
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b. Has no homologous loci on the X chromosome |
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38. What percentage of the human population has an “X” chromosome? |
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39. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed |
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One of the unifying theories of biology is the theory of evolution. |
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41. In a pedigree chart, which is correct? |
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b. A line between a circle and a square represents a mating. |
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42. When yarrow cuttings were planted at different elevations, the plants showed different forms. This illustrates; |
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c. In yarrow, phenotype is influenced by environment. |
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43. The organisms examined by Darwin on the Galápagos Islands that were most important in his development of the theory of natural selection were |
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compliment of alleles (genes) within an individual that control what the organism |
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usually the detectable physical and physiological traits of an individual - external view of the organism – what you look like |
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What is the specific name of the ocean that can be seen from Tybee Island? |
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Most of Darwin's observations about changes in species over time and in different environments took place in and near |
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Genetic divergence of two populations can be countered by |
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Horses and donkeys remain separate species because of |
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The evolution of many species of Hawaiian silversords is an example of |
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a. Allopatric speciation on an archipelago |
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All the members of a single species that occupy a particular area at the same time are known as a |
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What is the most inclusive of the major taxonomic categories? |
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7. If early Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and become the main ancestors of early North American settlers, rather than the mixture of immigrants from across Europe and other continents, today there would be a much higher incidence of Nordic traits in the U.S. population. Such a scenario would demonstrate |
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8. Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees. What keeps the two populations separate? |
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spatial reproductive isolation |
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9. What organisms are most numerous on Earth? |
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10. For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet? |
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11. For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is easiest to meet? |
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12. Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks. Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation, although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If predators (e.g., cats) that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to _____ in the absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under _____ selection. |
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13. The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including those in their original homeland. Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population? |
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e. founder effect and genetic drift |
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(T/F) Three basic types of natural selection include directional, stabilizing and disruptive. |
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15. Structures that have similar functions and superficially similar appearance but very different anatomy, such as the wings of insects and birds are called _______. The similarities are due to similar environmental pressures rather than to common ancestry. |
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16. The ostrich is a large, flightless bird. Its wings, therefore, represent _______. |
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17. (T/F) The gene pool is described in terms of allele frequencies in the population. |
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18. The peppered moth provides a well-known example of natural selection. The light-colored form of the moth was predominant in England before the industrial revolution. In the mid-nineteenth century, a dark-colored form appeared. The difference is produced by a dominant allele of one gene. By about 1900, approximately 90% of the moths around industrial areas were dark colored, whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere. Apparently, birds could readily find the light moths against the soot-darkened background in industrial areas and therefore were eating more light moths. Recently, use of cleaner fuels has greatly reduced soot in the landscape, and the dark-colored moths have been disappearing. Should the two forms of moths be considered separate species? |
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(T/F) Industrial melanism in peppered moths in England is an example of stabilizing selection. |
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21. Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon? |
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-morphological data from fossil species -genetic sequences from living species -behavioral data from living species all of the above!! |
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22. Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?
a. fur in bears and seals b. cell walls in plants and fungi c. chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae d. scales in snakes and lizards |
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Definition
Cell walls in plants and fungi |
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23. Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. He gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily? |
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Definition
a. to serve as an outgroup |
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24. Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize? a. a rare worm b. a common worm c. a rare squirrel d. a common squirrel |
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25. Which of the following likely has the most Hox genes? a. jellyfish b. slugs c. dolphins d. bees |
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26. (T/F) A reproductive isolation mechanism includes any structural, functional, or behavioral characteristic that blocks reproductive ability. |
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27. (T/F) Microevolution is evolution that occurs within a population. |
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An allele becomes the most common allele in a population by becoming the dominant allele. |
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29. (T/F) The Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is usually met in most populations in changing environments. |
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30. (T/F) Genetic drift produces changes in allele frequencies within a gene pool due to chance. |
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31. Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations? a. lower average fitness in both populations b. higher average fitness in both populations c. increased genetic difference between the two populations d. decreased genetic difference between the two populations e. increased genetic drift |
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Definition
d. decreased genetic difference between the two populations |
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33. When people die from HIV infections, it is usually because _____. |
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Definition
b. they have too few T cells to adequately fight infection |
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34. Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving? |
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Definition
b. They are not cellular. |
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Definition
a. The microbe must be present in individuals suffering from the disease and absent in healthy individuals. b. The organism must be isolated and grown in a pure culture away from the host organism. c. If organisms from the pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental animal, the disease symptoms should appear. d. The organism should be isolated from the diseased experimental animal, again grown in pure culture and demonstrated by its size, shape and color to be the same state as the original organism. |
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1. Which of these are structures in a gametophyte generation?
a. leaves, stems, roots, flowers, cones b. spores, egg, sperm, pollen, archaegonium c. antheridium, embryo, seed, spores, flower d. egg, sperm, zygote, embryo, seedling |
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2. Fungi that absorb nutrients from decaying plant matter are called _____. a. saprobes b. mycorrhizae c. mushrooms d. yeasts e. molds |
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3. Plants are the primary providers of oxygen, which is obtained by the reduction of carbon dioxide. What chemical donates the electrons needed for CO2 reduction? a. sunlight b. glucose c. water d. carbon monoxide e. oxygen |
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4. What evidence do paleobotanists look for that indicates the movement of plants from water to land? a. waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves b. loss of structures that produce spores c. sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves d. remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells |
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5. You observe the gametes of a fungal species under the microscope and realize that they resemble animal sperm. To which of the following group does the fungus belong? |
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6. Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil? a. Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times larger than plant roots. b. Hyphae have a smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root. c. Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food. d. Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules. |
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Definition
d. Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules. |
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7. Long, branching fungal filaments are called _____. a. roots b. ascus c. septa d. mycelia e. hyphae |
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8. A cell has two haploid nuclei. This means it is _____. a. A yeast b. a zygote c. haploid d. diploid e. dikaryotic |
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9. Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle? a. Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize. b. One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues. c. Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis. d. Fungi reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide. |
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10. Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution? a. the trend toward smaller size b. the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle c. the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle d. the trend toward larger gametophytes |
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11. When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human _____. a. the Plasmodium gametes fuse, forming an oocyst b. the Plasmodium cells infect the human liver cells c. the Plasmodium cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells d. the Plasmodium oocyst undergoes meiosis |
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12. In an area with a high abundance of algal blooms, the introduction of _____ might alleviate the severity of the blooms. a. dinoflagellates b. plankton c. primary producers d. copepods |
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13. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming. Why? a. because photosynthetic protists form the base of many marine food chains b. because photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric CO2 levels c. because the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will promote land plants to speed up photosynthesis, thus removing CO2 from the atmosphere d. because photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere |
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14. Plankton is comprised of photosynthetic protists and bacteria. What is the primary importance of plankton to humans? a. They are food for many marine organisms that humans eat. b. They release a lot of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. c. They contribute to the formation of anaerobic dead zones in the oceans. d. They form the basic building blocks in the formation of petroleum (oil). |
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15. Which of the following is most likely to lead to PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning)? a. Dinoflagellates b. Giardia c. Plasmodium d. Toxoplasma e. diatoms |
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16. It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because fungi provide critical nitrogen for the plants' use. How do we know this happens? a. Plants acquire more radioactive nitrogen when they are associated with fungi. b. Radioactively labeled nitrogen shows up in fungi when they are symbiotic with plants. c. When plants are associated with fungi, they can fix atmospheric nitrogen that has been tagged with a radioactive label. d. Radioactively labeled sugars in plants eventually find their way to their symbiotic fungi. |
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Definition
a. Plants acquire more radioactive nitrogen when they are associated with fungi. |
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17. Predict what you would see if you were looking at a new species of Zygomycetes. a. a zygote enclosed in a tough outer coat b. flagellated spores c. susceptibility to fungicide d. multicellularity e. its ability to form an association with plant roots |
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18. According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food? a. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP. b. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide. c. The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose. d. The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive. e. The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell. |
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Definition
a. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP. |
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19. Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists? a. They contain a nucleus b. They are smaller than animal cells c. They are unicellular d. They have a cell wall e. They are photosynthetic |
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20. Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool. Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually, and some of them can reproduce only asexually. The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria. Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment? a. the sexually reproducing species b. the asexually reproducing species c. Sexually and asexually reproducing species are equally likely to thrive. d. cannot tell from this information - survival will depend on a variety of other factors |
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21. Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile, photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish. They gain the ability to live in the fish gut, absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food. Over time, which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists? a. loss of motility b. loss of chloroplasts c. gain of a rigid cell wall d. gain of meiosis e. no changes would be expected |
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22. What is necessary in order for symbiosis to occur? a. one organism must benefit from associating with another organism b. two organisms must live in regular physical contact with each other c. one organism must ingest another organism d. two organisms must be competing for the same resources |
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23. Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants? a. Fungi are able to change their body shape continuously throughout their life. b. Zygomycetes have flagellated gametes. c. Fungi store polysaccharides as starch. d. The cell walls of fungi are made of chitin. |
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24. This group of fungi has the ability to penetrate its host's cell wall, thus increasing the efficiency with which materials are passed from fungus to host. a. ectomycorrhizal fungi b. arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi c. endophytes d. lichens |
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25. Conifers and pines both have needlelike leaves. Why might their leaves be of this type? a. to increase surface area for photosynthesis b. to increase surface area for gas exchange c. to decrease surface area for gas exchange d. to decrease surface area for water loss |
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26. The presence of which of the following would allow you to place a plant definitively in the Angiosperms rather than the Gymnosperms? a. seeds b. pollen c. cones d. microsporangia e. anthers |
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27. Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination, and flowers of grasses are inconspicuously colored. What does this indicate about their pollination? a. They self-fertilize and do not need pollen carried from one plant to another. b. Their pollinating insects are color blind. c. They are wind pollinated. d. They probably attract pollinators using strong fragrances. |
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28. As you stroll through a moist forest, you are most likely to see a _____. a. zygote of a green alga b. gametophyte of a moss c. sporophyte of a liverwort d. gametophyte of a fern |
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29. The vast number and variety of flower species is probably related to various kinds of _____. a. seed dispersal agents b. pollinators c. herbivores d. climatic conditions |
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30. (T/F) All plants have an alternation of generations, with one generation larger and more long lasting than the other. |
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31. All of the following are plant female reproductive structures but one. Which one is not a female structure but a male reproductive structure? a. archegonia b. megaspore c. pollen cone d. pistil |
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32. Which plant structure is mismatched? a. strobilus – produces seeds b. rhizome – underground stem c. sepals – protect the budding flower d. cuticle – prevent water loss |
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33. Which kingdom is comprised of eukaryotic organisms that are typically unicellular? a. Animalia b. Fungi c. Archaea d. Plantae e. Protista |
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34. Trypanosoma is a unicellular, eukaryotic blood parasite that causes African sleeping sickness. It belongs to which kingdom? a. Animalia b. Fungi c. Monera d. Plantae e. Protista |
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