1)     A chain of round bacteria would be called __, whereas a group of rod-shaped bacteria would be called ___:

a)     spirilla, cocci

b)    diplococci, haplococci

c)     bacilli, streptococci

d)    streptococci, bacilli

e)     streptobacilli, extremophiles

1)     Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:

a)     efficient use of their flagella.

b)    cloaking themselves with host proteins.

c)     a watery capsule.

d)    changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host.

e)     eliminating the use of a membrane.

1)     Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:

a)     the nuclear membranes.

b)    the endoplasmic reticulum.

c)     infoldings of the plasma membrane.

d)    ribosomes.

e)     the cell wall.

1)     Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ________ often carry genes involved in ___________:

a)     capsids, bacterial reproduction

b)    capsids, antibiotic resistance.

c)     plasmids, viral resistance.

d)    plasmids, antibiotic resistance.

1)     Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant, hard-walled, resistant structure called a(n)

a)     capsule

b)    endospore

c)     endotoxin

d)    sporangium

e)     capsid

1)     Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of oxygen gas.

a)     Gm (+) eubacteria

b)    archaebacteria

c)     cyanobacteria

d)    eukaryotes

e)     Gm (-) rickettsias

1)     Bacteria that use light for their energy source and CO₂ for their carbon source are called

a)     photoautotrophs

b)    photoheterotrophs

c)     chemoautotrophs

d)    chemoheterotrophs

e)     photochemoheterotrophs

1)     What is the role of large cells called heterocysts in a cyanobacterial filament?

a)     They carry out both cellular respiration.

b)    They carry out nitrogen fixation.

c)     They carry out photosynthesis.

d)    They oxidize inorganic substances to obtain energy.

e)     They store endospores.

1)     Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____.

a)     cyanobacteria

b)    extreme halophiles

c)     extremophiles

d)    methanogens

e)     extreme thermophiles

1)     Bacteria that _____ tend to have abundant internal membranes

a)     are phototosynthetic

b)    are gram-negative

c)     have flagella

d)    are pathogenic

e)     all of the above

1)     Plasmids

a)     replicate independently of the main chromosome

b)    often contain antibiotic resistance genes

c)     are transferred from one bacterium to another by conjugation

d)    allow bacteria to survive adverse conditions

e)     all of the above

1)     The most common mode of asexual reproduction and ‘sexual’ reproduction in bacteria are, respectively:

a)     binary fission and conjugation.

b)    transformation and transduction

c)     mitosis and transformation

d)    conjugation and binary fission

e)     mitosis and meiosis

1)     Organisms most closely related at the DNA level to eukaryotic mitochondria are ______________, and most closely related to eukaryotic chloroplasts are _________________:

a)     Proteobacteria, cyanobacteria.

b)    Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria.

c)     Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria.

d)    Eubacteria, cyanobacteria.

e)     E. coli, green sulfur bacteria

1)     What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good ‘evolutionary chronometer’?

a)     It is universally distributed across group chosen – all organisms have rRNA.

b)    It is functionaly similar between organisms – rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis.

c)     Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of time

d)    The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms.

All of the above

1)     The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:

a)     the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.

b)    the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.

c)     the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.

d)    the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence.

e)     All of the above.

1)     The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from:

a)     the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.

b)    Ribosome size.

c)     16 S rRNA sequence.

d)    nuclei.

e)     response to antibiotics.

1)     _____________ Archaebacteria are typically found in abnormally hot environments, whereas ______________ Archaebacteria are typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen.

a)     Extreme halophile, methanogens

b)    Extreme thermophile, methanogens

c)     Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophile

d)    Methanogens, Extreme thermophile

e)     Gram positive, Gram negative.

1)     Cyanobacteria

a)     Are photosynthetic prokaryotes

b)    Are classified in the Domain Eubacteria

c)     Are closely related to eukaryotic chloroplasts based on similarities in size and biochemical characteristics

d)    b & c only

e)     All of the above 

1)     Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by

a)     an efficient water pump.

b)    a tough cell membrane.

c)     pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.

d)    a rigid cell wall.

e)     a stiff capsule.

1)     Gram-positive bacteria stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls

a)     green; peptidoglycan

b)    purple; peptidoglycan

c)     green; cellulose

d)    purple; polysaccharides

e)     red; polysaccharides

1)     Domain Archaea consists of organisms

a)     that cause numerous human diseases such as tuberculosis (TB) and food poisoning

b)    that prefer extreme environments such as  very salty, very hot, or lacking oxygen

c)     that are closely related to single-celled eukaryotes like amoebas

d)    that are eukaryotic

e)     all of the above 

[image]Spirochetes

b)    Cyanobacteria

c)     Methanogens

d)    Gram Positive Eubacteria

e)     Proteobacteria

1)     Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for the human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in humans?

a)     Thermophiles

b)    Cyanobacteria

c)     Methanogens

d)    Gram Positive Eubacteria

e)     Proteobacteria

1)     Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the Dead Sea, but NOT necessarily in the ocean?

a)     Cyanobacteria

b)    Methanogens

c)     Gram Positive Eubacteria

d)    Proteobacteria.

e)     Extreme Halophiles

1)     What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover?

a)     Diatoms

b)    Dinoflagellates

c)     Ciliates

d)    Foraminifera

e)     Euglenas

1)     Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for:

a)     reproduction.

b)    excretion.

c)     digestion.

d)    movement.

e)     avoiding predation.

1)     Which of the following is true about Radiolarans?

a)     They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfish

b)    They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods

c)     They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk)

d)    B and c

e)     All of the above

1)     Trypanosoma brucei, a parasitic member of the Clade Euglenozoa,

a)     causes backpackers' diarrhea.

b)    is found in the small intestine of the organism it parasitizes.

c)     Has an unusual network of circular DNA pieces called a Kinetoplast.

d)    produces a neurotoxin in the bloodstream of its victim, causing African sleeping sickness.

e)     c and d 

1)     Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its victims via pseudopod formation.  Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the clade

a)     Euglenozoa

b)    Amoebozoa

c)     Alveolata

d)    Stramenopila

1)     A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various industrial processes are the:

a)     dinoflagellates.

b)    euglenoids.

c)     apicomplexans.

d)    zooflagellates.

e)     diatoms.

[image]Alveolata, since trypanosomes have sac-like alveoli underneath their plasma membrane

1)     Protists like ____________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred.

a)     Plasmodium

b)    Amoeba

c)     Euglena

d)    Giardia

e)     Paramecium

1)     Backpackers’ diarrhea (also known as “Beaver Fever” or “The Colorado River Diet”), a common infection among campers and hikers, is caused by the Excavate/Diplomonad ____.

a)     Plasmodium

b)    Amoeba

c)     Euglena

d)    Trypanosoma

e)     Giardia 

1)     The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle?

a)     rats

b)    sand flies

c)     mosquitos

d)    leeches

e)     tse-tse flies

1)     You are examining cells from a dinoflagellate, a Plasmodium, and a stentor under the microscope. You note that the cells have a nucleus and that there are prominent membrane-bound sacs just under the plasma membrane . Based upon this information these organisms most likely are.

a)     Gram (+) bacterial cells

b)    diatoms

c)     dinoflagellates

d)    amoebas

e)     alveolate

1)     Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans?

a)     dinoflagellates

b)    chrysophytes (diatoms)

c)     sporozoans

d)    euglenids

e)     red algae

1)     Which of the following groups of algae is (are) most closely related to land plants?

a)     brown algae

b)    green algae

c)     red algae

d)    blue-green algae

e)     all of the above

1)     The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic cell and a

a)     Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria).

b)    Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia.

c)     Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillus

d)    Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli

e)     Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes

1)     Which example below is a characteristic shared by all excavates (diplomonads and parabasalids):

a)     Both lack nuclei.

b)    Both are adapted to anaerobic environments.

c)     Both lack, or have highly reduced, mitochondria.

d)    Both have a single flagellum.

e)     Both have two nuclei and 4 flagella

1)     In freshwater ciliates, special organelles called_______________________ control water regulation.

a)     flagella

b)    contractile vacuole

c)     food vacuole

d)    lysosome

e)     peroxisome

1)     Among the protists below, which typically moves with one “tinsel” flagella and one “smooth” flagella?

a)     Stentor

b)    Euglena

c)     Trypanosoma

d)    Plasmodium

e)     Diatoms

1)     Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intact mitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals?

a)     Chara

b)    Giaridia

c)     Amoeba

d)    Stentor

e)     Volvox

1)     Scientific evidence indicates one of the following photosynthetic organisms is likely to be the direct ancestors of plants.

a)     Volvox

b)    Cyanobacteria

c)     Giant kelps

d)    Chara

e)     Ulva, the sea lettuce

1)     In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike __________:

a)     pili

b)    pseudopods

c)     flagella

d)    cilia

e)     trichomes

1)     Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in that

a)     they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts

b)    they have two lipid bilayers around their mitochondria

c)     they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functional

d)    they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts

e)     they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts.

1)     Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includes

a)     similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplasts

b)    the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

c)     reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

d)    70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

e)     All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory.

1)     Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includes

a)     the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plants

b)    the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plants

c)     the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara  and all land plants

d)    the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plants

e)     A and C only.

1)      An mRNA codon specifying leucine is
5´-CUA-3´.  Its corresponding anticodon is:

a)     5´-GAT-3´.

b)    3´-AUC-5´.

c)     3´-GAU-5´.

d)    3´-GAT-5´.

e)     5´-GAU-3´.

1)     Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?

a)     a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic

b)    a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein

c)     a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide

d)    a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product

e)     a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids

1)     Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

a)     Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated.

b)    Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.

c)     Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles.

d)    Translation requires antibiotic activity.

e)     Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors.

1)     Which of the following are polysaccharides?

a)     glycogen

b)    starch

c)     chitin

d)    A and B only

e)     A, B, and C 

1)     A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be comprised of , respectively,

a)     120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.

b)    120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.

c)     120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.

d)    120 adenine and 120 thymine molecules. 

1)     Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):

a)     are made in the smooth ER and packaged in transport vesicles

b)    have carbohydrates covalently added when the proteins are in transport vesicles

c)     are made in the cytosol and transported across the ER membrane

d)    are moved to the outside of a cell by threading the protein through special pores in the plasma membrane

e)     are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles

1)     Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?

a)     CO2 and O2

b)    Glutamic acid, an amino acid

c)     Glucose

d)    NaCl and H2O

e)     Starch

1)     Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?

a)     Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.

b)    NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion.

c)     The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst.

d)    NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells.

e)     The blood cells will expend ATP for active transport of NaCl into the cytoplasm.

1)     A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes within

a)     peroxisomes.

b)    lysosomes.

c)     Golgi vesicles.

d)    vacuoles.

secretory vesicles.

1)     Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity?

a)     a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids

b)    a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids

c)     a lower temperature

d)    a relatively high protein content in the membrane

e)     a greater proportion of relatively large glycolipids compared with lipids having smaller molecular masses

1)     In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?

a)     on the outside of vesicles

b)    on the inside surface of the cell membrane

c)     on the inside surface of the vesicle

d)    on the outer surface of the nucleus

on the ER

1)     Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

a)     Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.

b)    It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.

c)     Its terminal phosphate group coan unusually strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy.

d)    A and B only

e)     A, B and C 

1)     The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate (ATP + H₂O à ADP + P_i )

a)     has a G of  about -7 kcal/mol under standard conditions.

b)    involves hydrolysis of a terminal phosphate bond of ATP.

c)     can occur spontaneously under appropriate conditions.

d)    Only A and B are correct.

e)     A, B, and C are correct.

1)     The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is

a)     phosphorylase.

b)    phosphatase.

c)     protein kinase.

d)    ATPase.

e)     protease. 

1)     Which of the following correctly describes the energy payoffs in cellular respiration (before oxidative phosphorylation)?

a)     Glycolysis:  2 ATPs net, 2 NADH

b)    Transition reaction 2 NADH

c)     Kreb’s cycle 4 NADH, 2 FADH2

d)    All of the above

e)     A and b only

1)     Muscle tissues make lactatic acid from pyruvate in order to do which of the following?

a)     speed up the rate of glycolysis

b)    get rid of pyruvate produced by glycolysis

c)     utilize the energy in pyruvate

d)    produce additional CO2

e)     regenerate NAD+

1)     Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?

a)     0%

b)    2%

c)     10%

d)    38%

e)     100% 

1)     If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO₂synthesized with radioactive oxygen (¹⁸O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the ¹⁸O label. That one exception is

a)     PGA.

b)    G3P

c)     glucose.

d)    RuBP.

e)     O₂. 

1)     Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

a)     C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

b)    O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.

c)     CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.

d)    C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

e)     O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

1)     The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

a)     glycolysis

b)    accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

c)     the citric acid cycle

d)    the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

e)     the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

1)     Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco?

a)     It is a carboxylase

b)    It is an oxygenase

c)     It is a kinase

d)    It is the most abundant protein in the world

e)     It fixes carbon dioxide into an organic form

1)     A cell in G₂:

a)     has twice the amount of DNA present in a telophase nucleus.

b)    has visibly distinct chromosomes.

c)     lacks a visible nuclear membrane.

d)    is in mitosis.

e)     is in cytokinesis.

1)     Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____

a)     have altered plasma membranes and cytoskeletal proteins

b)    have mutations or deletions in tumor suppressors like p53

c)     have the ability to stimulate new blood vessel formation

d)    do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition of growth

e)     all of the above

1)     One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that

a)     the cancer cell is unable to replicate its DNA.

b)    the cell cycle of the cancer cell is arrested at the S phase.

c)     cancer cells continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.

d)    cancer cells cannot function properly because they suffer from density-dependent inhibition.

e)     cancer cells are always in the M phase of the cell cycle. 

1)     In an plant with a diploid chromosome number of  2n = 46, how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered Meiosis II?  (Note from Dr. Marrs:  we want everyone correct!)

a)     0

b)    1

c)     2

d)    23

e)     46

1)     Homologous chromosomes synapse or pair during:

a)     anaphase I.

b)    prophase I.

c)     anaphase II.

d)    telophase II.

e)     prophase II.

1)     In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the recessive allele is 0.6.  What percent of the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)     16%

b)    36%

c)     40%

d)    48%

e)     64%

1)     What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

a)     sugar-phosphate backbone

b)    complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases

c)     disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes

d)    twisting of the molecule to form an α helix

three-component structure of the nucleotides

1)     An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements?

a)     primase, polymerase, ligase

b)    3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'

c)     5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'

d)    DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III

e)     5' DNA to 3'

1)     In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?

a)     No proofreading will occur.

b)    No replication fork will be formed.

c)     The DNA will supercoil.

d)    Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.

e)     Replication will require a DNA template from another source.

1)     The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in

a)     a base-pair substitution.

b)    a nucleotide mismatch.

c)     a frameshift mutation.

d)    a polypeptide missing an amino acid.

a nonsense mutation.

1)     When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by

a)     a specific characteristic that identifies it as a “bound” ribosome itself.

b)    a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.

c)     moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.

d)    a chemical signal given off by the ER.

e)     a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.

1)     Which of the following are correctly matched with their description

a)     Enhancers (Distal Control Elements) = increase the rate of eukaryotic gene transcription; may be located upstream or downstream from the genes they regulate

b)    Promoter TATA box = binding and attachment site for RNA polymerase; located 25-35 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site

c)     Proximal Control Elements = required for accurate transcription initiation; bind numerous transcription initiation complex proteins

d)    only a and b are correctly matched

e)     all of the above are correctly matched 

1)     In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic development, forming a Barr Body.  Much of the DNA in this chromosome is then in the form of

a)     Introns

b)    Chromosome puffs

c)     Heterochromatin

d)    Euchromatin

e)     Tetrads

1)     Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?

a)     the small subunit of the ribosome

b)    the TATAAA box

c)     the enhancer

d)    the Upstream Promoter Elements

e)     the AUG codon

1)     In humans, the hormone testosterone enters cells and binds to specific receptor proteins, which in turn enter the nucleus and bind to specific sites on the cells' DNA. These proteins probably act to

a)     increase the rate of transcription of testosterone-regulated genes

b)    alter the pattern of DNA splicing

c)     inhibit translation of testosterone-regulated genes

d)    unwind the DNA so that its genes can be transcribed