Term
What is used in order to prenylate small, GTP-binding proteins for anchoring into the cell membrane? |
|
Definition
Geranylpyrophosphate and Farnesylpyrophosphate |
|
|
Term
What is Farneylpyrophosphate a precursor for? |
|
Definition
Ubiquinone synthesis like CoQ
Dolichol |
|
|
Term
What are farneylpyrophosphates important for? |
|
Definition
CoQ: ETC in the mitochondria
Dolichol: N-glycosylated proteins in ER |
|
|
Term
What is the precursor for Vit D3 synthesis in the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the uses of cholesterol? |
|
Definition
Bile salt synthesis
Steroid Hormone synthesis
Cell membrane maintenance
Modification of hedgehog |
|
|
Term
Where will an insufficient synthesis of farnesylpyrophosphate and geranylpyrophosphate affect cells? |
|
Definition
Inner plasma membrane of cells |
|
|
Term
How will CoQ synthesis impairment affect cells? |
|
Definition
ETC cannot make ATP and free radicals increase. |
|
|
Term
What role do N-glycosylated proteins play in the cell? |
|
Definition
Cell membrane adhesion, reception, and cell-matrix adhesion molecules. |
|
|
Term
Where does the synthesis of Bile Salts occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes gallstone formation (cholelithiasis)? |
|
Definition
Aggregation of cholesterol or bilirubin in the absence of bile salts. |
|
|
Term
What catalyzes the first step of bile salt synthesis (formation of cholic acid production)? |
|
Definition
Cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase |
|
|
Term
A loss of function of CYP7A1 gene will result in what? |
|
Definition
High liver cholesterol and high plasma LDL-cholesterol levels with marked low levels of bile salt in the stools. |
|
|
Term
What are the primary results of conversion of bile salts in the liver? |
|
Definition
Greatly reduced levels of plasma LDL-cholesterol in the plasma
Increased effects of Statin |
|
|
Term
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of Bile Salt synthesization? |
|
Definition
CYP7A1 in ER
CYP27A1 in mitochondria |
|
|
Term
What causes feedback inhibition of 7 alpha-hydroxylase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does the intermediate reaction for Bile Synthesis occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the secondary bile salts? |
|
Definition
Deoxycholic acid from cholic acid
Lithocholic acid from chenodeoxycholic acid |
|
|
Term
How are bile salts presented at neutral pHs? |
|
Definition
depronated as sodium salts |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of gallstones? |
|
Definition
Lack of adequate bile salts in the gall bladder to emulsify cholesterol and or bilirubin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bile salt accumulation inside hepatocytes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Generalized itch of the whole body |
|
|
Term
Why does liver disease cause pruritus? |
|
Definition
Toxins and irritants build up and cause build up in the blood and deposit in the skin.
Also, neuro damage is suspected |
|
|
Term
What do steroid horomones use as a precursor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are steroids secreted? |
|
Definition
They are lipid soluble so they are freely permeable to membranes |
|
|
Term
What are the major types of steroid hormones? |
|
Definition
Progestogens: Progesterone
Glucocorticoids: Cortisol
Androgens: Testosterone
Mineralcorticoids: Aldosterone
Estrogen: Estradiol and Estrone |
|
|
Term
What's the role of Progesterone? |
|
Definition
Prepares uterus lining for implantation of ovum? |
|
|
Term
What's the role of Glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
Gluconeogenesis and fat/protein mobilization.
Anti-inflammation |
|
|
Term
What is the role of Androgens? |
|
Definition
Development of male secondary sex characteristics and prevention of bone resorption |
|
|
Term
What is the role of Estrogen? |
|
Definition
Development of secondary female sex characteristics and prevention of bone resorption |
|
|
Term
What are the transporters for Bile Salts from the liver into the gallbladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the rate-limiting step of Steroid synthesis? |
|
Definition
Transport of free cholesterol from the cytoplasm to the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
What does the transport of free cholesterol from the cytoplasm to the mitochondria depend on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)? |
|
Definition
Inadequate cortisol production with an increased risk of fasting hypocglycemia development |
|
|
Term
What will 21-alpha-hydroxylase cause? |
|
Definition
Aldosterone synthesis deficiency |
|
|
Term
What will 17-alpha-hydroxylase defect cause? |
|
Definition
Cortisol, Testosterone, and Estrogen synthesis deficiency |
|
|
Term
What will 11-beta-hydroxylase defect cause? |
|
Definition
Cortisol synthesis deficiency |
|
|
Term
What does chronically deficient production of cortisol cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does CAH cause adrenal hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
High levels of ACTH are released in response to chronically low levels of cortisol |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of CAH caused by 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency? |
|
Definition
High DOC (low renin hypertension=>low aldosterone)
High Testosterone (Virilization)
|
|
|
Term
What are the effects of CAH caused by 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency? |
|
Definition
High Aldosterone => hypertension
Low sex steroids => feminization by default |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of CAH caused by 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency? |
|
Definition
Low aldosterone => hypertension
High Testosterone => Virilization |
|
|
Term
What does DOC or aldosterone accumulation cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does androgen accumulation cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes Cushing's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Prolonged exposure to either endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids |
|
|
Term
What are the three types of endogenous Cushing Syndrome causes? |
|
Definition
Pituitary
Adrenal
Ectopic |
|
|
Term
How do you evaluate the etiology of Cushing's? |
|
Definition
ACTH test and high dose Dex supression test |
|
|
Term
Which Cushing syndrome is affected by high-dose Dex suppresion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Cushing's has lowered levels of Serum ACTH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is required for Vitamin D3 synthesis in the Skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What factors govern the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in the skin? |
|
Definition
Quantity of UVB, Quality of UVB, and amount of 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin |
|
|
Term
Where does Vitamin D3 synthesis occur? |
|
Definition
Stratum spinosum and stratum basale |
|
|
Term
What are the two locations of Vitamin D3 metabolism? |
|
Definition
Liver (cholecalciferol 25-hydroxylase)
Kidney (25-hydroxycalciferol 1-alpha-hydroxylase) |
|
|
Term
What is the biologically active form of Vitamin D3? |
|
Definition
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitrol) |
|
|
Term
How does Vitamin D3 get to target tissues? |
|
Definition
It binds to vitamin D-binding proteins (VDBP) |
|
|
Term
How is vitamin D able to act as a transcription factor to modulate the expression of Vitamin D-responsive genes? |
|
Definition
Calcitrol binds to Vitamin D receptors (VDR) inside the nuclei of target cells |
|
|
Term
What plasma concentration levels regulate 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will decreased phosphate plasma levels cause? |
|
Definition
Direct activation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol-1-alpha-hydroxylase
Increased synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 |
|
|
Term
What does PTH in the kidneys cause? |
|
Definition
25-hydroxycholecalciferol-1-alpha-hydroxylase expression to make 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 |
|
|
Term
What effect does 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 have on 25-hydroxycholecalciferol-1-alpha-hydroxylase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of CYP24A1? |
|
Definition
Metabolizes 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 into 24,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 and 1,24,25-trihydroxyvitamin D3 |
|
|
Term
What is the plasma ratio of [25-hydroxyvitamin D3]/[24,25-dihydroxyvitaminD3] useful for? |
|
Definition
Marker for Vitamin D metabolism dysregulation in relationship to plasma calcium levels |
|
|
Term
How does CYP24A1 regulate the amount of biologically active vitamin D3 in the body? |
|
Definition
Its products are excreted in the urine and feces |
|
|
Term
How is Vitamin D2 different from D3? |
|
Definition
The binding affinity for D3 for the VDR is much higher than for D2.
Vitamin D2 is not the preferred substrate of 25 |
|
|
Term
Where are all the actions of Vitamin D mediated through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 binding to VDR cause? |
|
Definition
cascade of molecular interactions |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of TRPV6? |
|
Definition
It functions as a Ca2+ channel that is expressed in the brush border membrane. Mediates the first step of trans-epithelial Ca2+ absorption |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of Calbindin? |
|
Definition
Functions as a cytosolic Ca2+ transporter that facilitates the transport of intracellular Ca2+ to the basolateral membrane via Ca2+ATPase and Na/Ca Exchanger |
|
|
Term
Why are obese people more likely to have Vitamin D deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is 25-hydroxy Vit D3 used to trace Vitamin D levels in the blood? |
|
Definition
1,25 dihydroxy Vitamin D3 has a very short half life (3 hours) |
|
|
Term
How does PTH affect the Kidney, Bone, and Small Intestines? |
|
Definition
Kidney: 1-alpha-hydroxylase causes increased 1,25 dihydroxy D3 , Ca2+ reabsorption, and phosphate excretion
Bone: Osteoclasts stimulation and Ca2+/P release
Small Intestines: Ca2+ absorption/transport protein promotion and Ca2+/Phosphorus absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vitamin D3 deficiency causing decreased ability of small intestines to absorb Ca2+ |
|
|
Term
What causes osteomalacia? |
|
Definition
Vitamin D3 deficiency in adults that leads to demineralization of bones and reduced bone strength. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Water-soluble particles that serve to transport lipids in the blood circulation.
|
|
|
Term
What are lipoproteins composed of? |
|
Definition
Monolayer of phospholipids
Apolipoproteins (Apos) anchored in monolayer
Hydrophobic interior space |
|
|
Term
What are the types of lipoprotein? |
|
Definition
HDL, IDL, LDL, VLDL, Chylomicron, Chylomicron Remnant |
|
|
Term
What lipoprotein has the highest percent of cholesterol content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lipoprotein collects unwanted cholesterol molecules from peripheral tissues and brings them to the liver for disposal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Chylomicrons and VLDL dependent on? |
|
Definition
Chylomicron: ApoB48
VLDL: ApoB100 |
|
|
Term
What transports lipids to the rest of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are lipoproteins that contain ApoB or ApoA called? |
|
Definition
ApoB: Beta-apolipoproteins
ApoA: Alpha-apolipoproteins |
|
|
Term
What is Hyper-beta-lipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
Higher than normal plasma LDL levels |
|
|
Term
What is Dysbetalipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
High levels of plasma chylomicron remnant (chylomicron remnant removal disease) |
|
|
Term
What is Abetalipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
Caused by abnormally low plasma levels of ApoB-containing chylomicron and VLDL due to synthesis and or secretion defects. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A molecule of glycerol esterfied with three fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
What is the bulk of fat in a fatty meal composed of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is needed to be secreted in order to digest dietary triglycerides? |
|
Definition
Gallbladder: Bile Salts
Pancreas: Bicarbonate, colipase, and lipases |
|
|
Term
What does Cholecystokinin stimulate? |
|
Definition
Secretion of pancreatic colipase, lipases, and bile salts |
|
|
Term
What does secretin stimulate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of bicarbonate? |
|
Definition
To keep the pH near neutral so that lipase can be active |
|
|
Term
How does pancreatic lipase affect fat digestion? |
|
Definition
It removes fatty acyl groups from carbons-1 and 3 and produces a mixture of 2-monoacylglycerol and free fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
How does cholesteryl esterase affect cholesteryl esters? |
|
Definition
It hydrolyzes them to produce cholesterol and free fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
How are cholesterol molecules absorbed by enterocytes in the small intestine? |
|
Definition
They bind to the NPC1L1 protein |
|
|
Term
How can NPC1L1 affect cholesterol blood levels? |
|
Definition
Blocking NPC1L1 can prevent cholesterol absorption, thus leading to overall lower cholesterol levels. |
|
|
Term
How are bile salts absorbed by the Small Intestine and the Liver? |
|
Definition
Small intestine: Binds to ASBT
Liver: Binds to OSTalpha-OSTbeta |
|
|
Term
What causes lipid malabsorption? |
|
Definition
Cystic Fibrosis, Bile Salt deficiency, pancreatic cancer, pancreatic lipase/colipase deficiency, and shortened bowel. |
|
|
Term
What are the results of lipid malabsorption? |
|
Definition
Increased lipid excretion in the stool and reduced absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and deficiency of dietary essential long-chain fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
Which layer of the lipoprotein makes it water soluble? |
|
Definition
The monolayer of phospholipids. |
|
|
Term
What is the cholesterol ratio? |
|
Definition
Total cholesterol: HDL cholesterol ratio.
(4:1 ratio or less is optimal) |
|
|
Term
What type of apolipoprotein is HDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of apolipoprotein is LDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the locations of Chylomicron and VLDL synthesis? |
|
Definition
Chylomicrons: Entrerocyte
VLDL: Hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
What Apoprotein does Chylomicron and VLDL require? |
|
Definition
Chylomicron: ApoB48
VLDL: ApoB100 |
|
|
Term
What do chylomicrons and VLDL carry? |
|
Definition
Chylomicrons: Dietary Fat and fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K)
VLDL: cholesterol, triglyceride, and fat-soluble molecules from the liver |
|
|
Term
Why does ApoB48 contain only 48% of the MW of ApoB100? |
|
Definition
At 2153 CAA change to UAA, a stop codon. |
|
|
Term
What happens if SAR1B is defective in Small Intestine Enterocytes? |
|
Definition
Chylomicron Retention Disease due to accumulation of chylomicrons in the cells. |
|
|
Term
How does ApoB48 synthesize chylomicron particles in the ER of small intestine enterocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are chylomicrons secreted from small intestine enterocyte Golgi? |
|
Definition
SAR1B dependent mechanism into the lymphatic system |
|
|
Term
How does ApoB100 synthesize nascent VLDL particles in the ER of hepatocytes? |
|
Definition
MTP-dependent mechanism using |
|
|
Term
What causes Abetalipopoteinemia (Bassen-Kornzweig Syndrome)? |
|
Definition
Loss-of-function mutations in the MTP gene causing improper packaging and secretion of apolipoprotein B-containing lipoproteins (chylomicrons and VLDL loss) |
|
|
Term
What results from Abetalipopoteinemia? |
|
Definition
Fatmalabsorption, and fatty, foul-smelling stool (steatorrhea).
Hypocholesterolemia.
Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins.
Star-shaped RBCs (acanthocytosis) |
|
|
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of Chylomicron Retention Disease (Anderson's Disease)? |
|
Definition
Failure to thrive, diarrhea, steatorrhea, and white duodenal mucosa. |
|
|
Term
What are dietary essential long-chain fatty acids essential for the synthesis of? |
|
Definition
Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of ApoCII in chylomicrons and VLDL? |
|
Definition
ApoCII recognizes and binds to LPL to cause a conformational change that activates it. |
|
|
Term
Where does the maturation of the chylomicron and VLDL occur? |
|
Definition
Bloood of the circulatory system |
|
|
Term
Where is LDL found and what is it dependent on? |
|
Definition
Capillaries of peripheral tissues.
Dependent on Insulin |
|
|
Term
How are absorbed fatty acids used in muscle and adipocytes? |
|
Definition
Muscle: Metabolized for E production
Adipocytes: used to synthesize triglyceride to store E |
|
|
Term
After LPL is activated, what happens to the chylomicrons and VLDL? |
|
Definition
Free fatty acids are absorbed by cells surrounding and glycerol is transported to the liver for gluconeogenesis, E production, or resynthesis of triglyceride. |
|
|
Term
What happens to to Chylomicrons and VLDL after they are metabolized in the blood? |
|
Definition
Chylomicron: Chylomicron remnant
VLDL: LDL
Both are enriched in cholesterol. |
|
|
Term
What cells express a high level of VLDL receptor? |
|
Definition
Cells that metabolize a large amount of fatty acids (Cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, adipocytes) |
|
|
Term
What does VLDLR bind to in order to internalize it? |
|
Definition
ApoE found on VLDL and IDL |
|
|
Term
What does LDLR bind to in order to internalize it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why can LDL not be reabsorbed by VLDLR? |
|
Definition
Metabolism of IDL to LDL removes the ApoE |
|
|
Term
Do chylomicrons contain ApoE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do chylomicrons not interact with VLDLR? |
|
Definition
Steric Hindrance (they have ApoE!) |
|
|
Term
What causes Type III Hyperlipoproteinemia (Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia)? |
|
Definition
Inability of the liver to internalize chylomicron remnants due to mutations in ApoE |
|
|
Term
What does failure to internalize chylomicron remants due to ApoE mutation cause? |
|
Definition
Increased cholesterol level in the plasma |
|
|
Term
What receptors can Chylomicron remnants utilize to internalize into the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is VLDL vs Chylomicrons released into the blood? |
|
Definition
Chylomicrons go into the lymphatics first via SAR1B, then into the blood.
VLDL is exocytosed straight into the blood.xd |
|
|
Term
What are the supernatant and particulate fractions? |
|
Definition
Supernatant: Liquid Phase
Particulate: Packed Phase |
|
|
Term
What is the formula for Hct? |
|
Definition
Hct = (Volume- packed cells)/ (Volume - Total Blood) x 100 |
|
|
Term
What is the normal range of Hct? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is high levels of hematocrit and low levels of hematocrit? |
|
Definition
High: Polycythemia
Low: Anemia |
|
|
Term
What do you get in the supernatant when you centrifuge blood without anitcoagulant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you get in the supernatant when you centrifuge blood with anitcoagulant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main difference between serum and plasma? |
|
Definition
Plasma has clotting factors, serum does not. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The WBCs and platelets sitting on top of the RBCs in the particulate fraction. |
|
|
Term
What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? |
|
Definition
The amount of volume an RBC can hold (87 microns) |
|
|
Term
Why is the biconcave shape of the RBC important? |
|
Definition
The shape gives it about 50% more surface area than the same volume as a sphere. |
|
|
Term
What is the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)? |
|
Definition
The percentage of hemoglobin per RBC |
|
|
Term
What is the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)? |
|
Definition
The dry weight of hemoglobin per RBC |
|
|
Term
What enzyme catalyzes the dissociation of Carbonic acid into CO2 and H2O? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is normacytic normachromic anemia? |
|
Definition
RBCs are normal size and contain normal amounts of hemoglobin, but there are fewer cells. |
|
|
Term
What is microcytic hypochromic anemia? |
|
Definition
Fewer RBCs, that are paler, and smaller. |
|
|
Term
What is macrocytic normachromic anemia? |
|
Definition
Fewer RBCs, that are larger cells. |
|
|
Term
What state must the Fe in the Hemoglobin maintain in order to stay active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when the Oxygen in Hemoglobin is reduced to superoxide anion? |
|
Definition
1. Met-Hgb cannot bind to O2
2. Superoxide ion is extremely reactive |
|
|
Term
How is Met-Hgb reversed to Hgb? |
|
Definition
Met-Hgb reductase using cyt b5 (Fe2+) |
|
|
Term
How is cyt b5 (Fe3+) converted back to cyt b5 (Fe2+)? |
|
Definition
Using Cyt B5 reductase with NADH as the reducing agent. |
|
|
Term
How is the superoxide anion removed from the system? |
|
Definition
Two are converted - one reduced and one is oxidized with dismutase.
2O2-=> O2+H2O2
H2O2 is broken down with catalase to 2H2O+2O2 |
|
|
Term
What happens when membranes are oxidized? |
|
Definition
The double bonds of the FAs are attacked, forming peroxides, which form free radicals. |
|
|
Term
What are the ways to prevent membranes from oxidation? |
|
Definition
Vitamin E and Glutathione |
|
|
Term
What are the types of Vitamin E in the body? |
|
Definition
Tocopherols and tocotrinols (alpha-tocopherol is most common) |
|
|
Term
What reduces the oxidized forms of Vitamin E? |
|
Definition
ascorbate and glutathione |
|
|
Term
What is glutathione peroxidase? |
|
Definition
Selenoenzyme which catalyzes the reduction of various peroxides to their alcohol with glutathione as the reducing agent. |
|
|
Term
What is glutathione reductase? |
|
Definition
Flavoprotein that catalyzes the reduction of oxidized glutathione to reduced form using NADH |
|
|
Term
What is the method of energy production for RBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens if NADH is not needed in the RBC? |
|
Definition
It is converted to NAD+ by LDH |
|
|
Term
Where is the NADPH for glutathione reductase supplied from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What controls the synthesis and breakdown of 2,3 BPG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does 2,3 BPG affect hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
It's an allosteric modulator so it regulates the transport of Oxygen by decreasing hemoglobin's affinity for it and promoting the release of O2 from oxy-hemoglobin. |
|
|
Term
Why is hemolytic anemia damaging to the kidney? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin is at the upper limit of the kidney's filtering ability, which causes damage. |
|
|
Term
What does Haptoglobin do? |
|
Definition
It binds to free hemoglobin in the blood to form a large comlpex that cannot be filtered by the kidney, which is cleared by the reticuloendothelial system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It binds to free heme in circulation that prevents the loss of heme (and iron) via the kidney. Heme is catabolized into bilirubin and iron. |
|
|
Term
What will a defect in G6PDH cause? |
|
Definition
If an oxidant is introduced, then your cells won't be able to reduce it and they will lyse. |
|
|
Term
What will a defect in PK cause in your RBCs? |
|
Definition
You won't be able to produce ATP from Pyruvate, so Na/K translocase won't have any activity. |
|
|
Term
When does hemoglobin synthesis begin and end? |
|
Definition
Begins: Early Normoblast Stage
Ends: Reticulocyte Stage |
|
|
Term
How long does erythropoiesis require? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What major events must occur during erythropoiesis? |
|
Definition
DNA synthesis and protein biosynthesis (especially hemoglobin) |
|
|
Term
What is the starting compound of the biosynthesis of ribonucleotides and how does it occur? |
|
Definition
PRPP from R5P via PRPP Synthetase |
|
|
Term
What is the major control point for purine and pyrimidine synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the end point of the PRPP pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What donates the Nitrogen and the Carbons of the IMP ring? |
|
Definition
N: glycine, aspartate, 2 glutamine
C: 2 glycine, CO2, 2 folate |
|
|
Term
What converts GMP and AMP into dinucleotides (GTP, ATP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does GDP and ADP get converted to GTP and ATP? |
|
Definition
GDP: Dinucleotide kinase
ADP: OxPhos |
|
|
Term
What products are needed for Pyrimidine Nucleotide Synthesis? |
|
Definition
Carbamoyl phosphate (CP) and aspartate |
|
|
Term
What converts UMP to UDP and UTP? |
|
Definition
UMP kinase and dinucleotide kinase |
|
|
Term
What converts UTP to CTP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reducing agent for deoxynucleotide synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are the C1 pieces needed for purine and pyrimidine synthesis donated from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three parts of Folic Acid? |
|
Definition
Pteridine Ring, Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA), and glutamic acid |
|
|
Term
How is FH4 formed from Folate? |
|
Definition
Reduction of 5-6 and 7-8 double bonds |
|
|
Term
What enzyme catalyzes the reduction of folate to FH4? |
|
Definition
FH2 reductase in two steps. |
|
|
Term
Where can formic acid, formaldehyde, and methanol be bound to on FH4? |
|
Definition
N5, N10, or both positions |
|
|
Term
What are the adducts at the oxidation state for formic acid? |
|
Definition
N10 formyl-FH4
N5,10 methenyl-FH4
N5 formimino-FH4 |
|
|
Term
What are the adducts at the oxidation state for formaldehyde? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the adducts at the oxidation state for methanol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What makes up the folate pool? |
|
Definition
five C1-FH4 compounds, plus FH4 |
|
|
Term
What is the major donor of one carbons to the folate pool? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the one carbon donated from serine to glycine? |
|
Definition
Hydroxymethyl transferase with PLP converts serine to glycine |
|
|
Term
How does Histidine donate N5 forminino FH4? |
|
Definition
It is converted from N-forminino glutamate (FIGLU) to glutamate via Transferase |
|
|
Term
What is the major methylating agent in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is homocysteine generated? |
|
Definition
The methyl group of S-AM is donated to an acceptor molecule creating homocysteine |
|
|
Term
How is methionine regenerated? |
|
Definition
Homocysteine is converted via B12dependent methyltransferase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The hydroxymethyl group of N5,10 methylene FH4 is transferred to dUMP via TMP synthase |
|
|
Term
What are the vitamin and coenzyme forms of B12? |
|
Definition
Vitamin: Vitamin B12 (CN) and B12a (OH)
Coenzyme: methyl B12 (CH3) and Ad-B12 (5-deoxyadenosyl) |
|
|
Term
What are the two B12-dependent reactions that occur in the body (there's a third we don't care about)? |
|
Definition
Homocysteine N5-methyl-FH4 methyl transferase
Methyl-malonyl-CoA mutase |
|
|
Term
How will B12 deficiency affect the folate pool? |
|
Definition
Methyltransferase activity will be reduced, causing a secondary folate deficiency. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of cobalophilin (CP) and where is it found? |
|
Definition
Binds free B12. Found in the saliva. |
|
|
Term
What secretes Intrinsic Factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the release of B12 and where does it occur? |
|
Definition
Trypsin digesting CP in the upper GI. |
|
|
Term
After trypsin digests CP, where does B12 bind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In the Ileum via IF-B12 receptors. |
|
|
Term
What does B12 bind to after it is absorbed in the Ileum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is B12 uptaken by the cells? |
|
Definition
The cells contain TCII-B12 receptors |
|
|
Term
What happens if DNA synthesis replication machinery or substrates are impaired or defective? |
|
Definition
Cell replication is impaired. |
|
|
Term
What phase will the cell be stuck in if synthesis is impaired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How will macrocytic anemia affect total Hmg, Hct, MCV, and MCHC? |
|
Definition
Hmg Concentration, Hct: Decreased
MCV: increased
MCHC: normal range |
|
|
Term
How do you get hemoglobin formation? |
|
Definition
Heme combination with alpha beta chains |
|
|
Term
What is used to form heme? |
|
Definition
protoporphyrin IX and Fe2+ using ferrochelatase |
|
|
Term
How is Uroporphyrinogen III formed? |
|
Definition
Succinyl-CoA+glycine->5 ALAx2 -> Porphobilogen x4 -> uroporphyrinogen III |
|
|
Term
What happens in Uroporphyrinogen III if cosynthase is absent? |
|
Definition
URO-I is formed (Dead end) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Large protein where ferric ions are stored as iron oxide. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Glycoprotein with two high affinity binding sites for ferric ions that transports iron in the blood to various tissues in the body. |
|
|
Term
What is brush border ferrireductase? |
|
Definition
Brush border enzyme that reduces dietary ferric ions to ferrous ions. |
|
|
Term
How are ferric ion reduced to ferrous ions non-enzymatically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the divalent metal ion transporter 1 (DMT1)? |
|
Definition
A transporter for divalent cations (Fe, Mn, Co, Zc, Cu) that is found on the apical side of enterocytes of the proximal duodenal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ferrous ion transporter in the basolateral membrane that transfers ferrous ions across into the blood. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Basolateral membrane enzyme that contains copper and is similar to cerruloplasmin in that is has ferroxidase activity. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A peptide that helps regulate iron uptake in the intestine and release of iron from macrophages. |
|
|
Term
What occurs if plasma level of iron is increased? |
|
Definition
Synthesis of hepcidin increases (decreases absorption of dietary iron) |
|
|
Term
How does hepcidin affect ferroportin? |
|
Definition
It is a negative regulator (binds to it to internalize and degrade it) |
|
|
Term
How are intracellular iron levels controlled? |
|
Definition
At the level of Tf Receptor and ferritin |
|
|
Term
What happens when there are high cellular levels of Iron? |
|
Definition
Synthesis of Tf-Receptor is down regulated and Ferritin is upregulated. |
|
|
Term
What occurs when there is interference with protein or heme biosynthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiencies associated with? |
|
Definition
Grossly elevated serum triglyceride levels. |
|
|
Term
Why is Chylomicron levels elevated in LPL deficiency, yet VLDL levels are not? |
|
Definition
VLDL can be uptaken by VLDLR, but Chylomicrons cannot. |
|
|
Term
Chylomicronemia is a result of what type of deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Type 1a and type 1b hyperlipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
1a: LPL deficiency
1b: ApoCII deficiency |
|
|
Term
What is the theory as to why pancreatitis is causes by LPL deficiency? |
|
Definition
Large chylomicrons aggregate and impair blood flow, causing systemic inflammation to develop. |
|
|
Term
What symptoms are used to diagnose LPL deficiency? |
|
Definition
Severy hypertriglyceridemia
Episodic Abdominal pain
Recurrent acute pancreatitis
Xanthomata
Hepatosplenomegaly |
|
|
Term
What causes the lactescent appearance of blood in LPLD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the absence of LPL enzyme activity in post-heparin plasma diagnostic of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Type IV and Type V VLDL Metabolism Disease? |
|
Definition
Type IV: Overproduction of VLDL and impaired VLDL metabolism.
Type V: Increased production or decreased clearance of VLDL and chylomicron |
|
|
Term
What is the function of LDL? |
|
Definition
It provides cholesterol to any cell types that have a need for it and contain LDLR. |
|
|
Term
Who is resposible for the clearance of excessive LDL from the blood? |
|
Definition
Hepatocytes using LDLR-mediated internalization |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
1. Loss of function of LDLR
2. Loss of function of ApoB (mutant ApoB100)
3. Gain of function of PCSK9 gene that increases degradation of LDLR. |
|
|
Term
What is reverse cholesterol transport? |
|
Definition
The process by which HDL acts to move cholesterol from the peripheral tissues back to the liver |
|
|
Term
How are excessive cholesterol molecules pumped out of the non-hepatic peripheral cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The enzyme that esterfies cholesterol molecules into cholesterol esters. |
|
|
Term
What does HDL use to extract phospholipid from VLDL, LDL, chylomicron to increase the surface area of the phospholipid shell? |
|
Definition
PLTP (Phospholipid Transfer Protein) |
|
|
Term
What is CETP (Cholesterol Ester Transfer Protein)? |
|
Definition
Protein used by HDL to transfer some of its cholesteryl ester to ApoB lipoproteins and acquire some TG and phospholipids |
|
|
Term
What is SR-B1 (scavenger receptor class B type 1)? |
|
Definition
Receptor in the plasma membrane of cells that is used to siphon cholesteryl ester from HDL |
|
|
Term
What causes the problems associated with LCAT deficiencies? |
|
Definition
accumulation of free cholesterol in the cornea and kidney |
|
|
Term
What causes Tangier's Disease, and what are the characteristics? |
|
Definition
ABCA1 deficiency - low plasma HDL levels and accumulation of cholesterol inside cells in many tissues |
|
|
Term
What transfer system is affected in Tangier's Disease? |
|
Definition
The transfer of unwanted cholesterol in peripheral cells to HDL |
|
|
Term
How does too much PCSK9 activation affect cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
Hypercholesterolemia due to high LDL levels |
|
|
Term
What are the fat-soluble vitamins? |
|
Definition
Vitamin A1 (retinol), D2, E, K |
|
|
Term
What are the water soluble vitamins? |
|
Definition
Thiamine, Riboflavin, Niacin, patothetnic acid, B6, biotin, folic acid, B12, Vitamin C |
|
|
Term
How are water soluble vitamins absorbed? |
|
Definition
Specific transporters in the apical membrane of intestinal cells and exported to basolateral side. |
|
|
Term
How are fat soluble vitamins absorbed? |
|
Definition
Packaged into micelles and used to synthesize chylomicrons (into lymphoid, then into the blood). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Biotin with a lysine residue. Acts as a coezyme. |
|
|
Term
Where does biotin acts as a coenzyme? |
|
Definition
Pyruvate carboxylase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Propionyl-CoA carboxylase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A protein that binds to biotin and reduces its bioavailability. |
|
|
Term
What is the most abundant form of pantothenic acid in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of Coenzyme A allows it to be used in acyl transfer reaction or by fatty acid synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What complexes are lipoic acid useful for? |
|
Definition
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex.
Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex.
Glycine Cleavage Enzyme complex. |
|
|
Term
How does heavy metal toxicity affect lipoic acid? |
|
Definition
Heavy metals have a high affinity for the thiol groups in reduced form, so there is a reduced activity of mitochondrial lipoic acid-dependent enzymes causing less ATP production. |
|
|
Term
Why do the signs of thiamin deficiency appear so quickly? |
|
Definition
There are no sources of storage in the human body. |
|
|
Term
Where is Thiamin Pyrophosphate (TPP) used as a coenzyme? |
|
Definition
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Transketolase
Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Phosphate donor for phosphorylation. |
|
|
Term
What energy production system is affected by Thiamin deficiency? |
|
Definition
Aeorbic energy production |
|
|
Term
What will a deficiency of PDH and alpha-KGDH cause? |
|
Definition
Reduced ATP production from glycolysis and TCA |
|
|
Term
How does PDH deficinecy affect neurotransmitter functioning? |
|
Definition
acetylcholine and myelin production are PDH driven. |
|
|
Term
How does alpha-KGDH deficiency affect the neurosystem? |
|
Definition
Alpha-KGDH help maintain glutamate levels, which is used for GABA and aspartate synthesis., |
|
|
Term
What products is Transketolase responsible for? |
|
Definition
NADPH and Ribose-5-phosphate |
|
|
Term
What enzyme is most sensitive to thiamin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the only thiamin dependent enzyme that RBCs contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What deficiency causes Beri beri? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Functional deficits of the Nervous System due to thiamin deficiency without edema of CV failure. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Funcitonal deficit of the CV system due to thiamin deficiency marked by edema due to renin-angiotensin hyperactivity. |
|
|
Term
What is Shoshin beriberi? |
|
Definition
More rapid form of wet beriberi with predominant damage to the heart in the absence of edema. Infants can develop if breastfeeding from thiamin deficient mothers. |
|
|
Term
What thiamin deficiency disease will chronic alcoholism lead to? |
|
Definition
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS) |
|
|
Term
What are the two components of WKS? |
|
Definition
Wernicke's encephalopathy (acute) and Korsakoff's psychosis (long-lasting) |
|
|
Term
How does alcoholism affect thiamin levels? |
|
Definition
Decreased absorption due to GI damage.
Increased loss due to diarrhea.
Inhibition of thiamine pyrophosphokinase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Enzymes that utilize flavocoenzyme |
|
|
Term
What are the two flavocoenzymes that are synthesized using riboflavin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the role of FAD as a coenzyme? |
|
Definition
Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase and beta-oxidation of fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
What reactions are FAD and FMN involved in and how do they function? |
|
Definition
They function as electron acceptors and donors and they are involved in oxidation-reduction reactions. |
|
|
Term
Where are flavoproteins functioning in the ETC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will riboflavin deficiency cause? |
|
Definition
Impaired E production from fatty acids.
Decreased Glutathione reductase => increased oxidative activities
Decreased Xanthine Oxidase => reduced blood uric acid levels, increased oxidative activities
|
|
|
Term
What causes congenital riboflavin deficiency? |
|
Definition
Riboflavin transporter gene mutation. |
|
|
Term
What would be symptoms of mild riboflavin deficiency? |
|
Definition
Lesions of the skin, especially in the corners of the mouth, with a rare, swollen tongue.
|
|
|
Term
What would be symptoms of severe riboflavin deficiency? |
|
Definition
Hypotonia, ataxia, dysphagia, muscle weakness and progressive muscle paralysis, and bilateral sensoineural hearing loss. |
|
|
Term
What will mutations in RFVT cause? |
|
Definition
Riboflavin deficiency and BVVL/FL syndrome. |
|
|
Term
What is Bron-Vialetto-Van-Laere (BVVL) and Fazio-Londe (FL) Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Neurological disorder caused by riboflavin deficiency leading to paralysis of the diaphragm, deterioration with hypotonia, respiratory insufficiency, progressive pontobulbar palsy, etc. |
|
|
Term
Elevation and accumulation of what acts as a diagnostic marker for ACADs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tests can be done to assess riboflavin deficiency? |
|
Definition
RBC riboflavin and glutathione reductase. |
|
|
Term
What proteins are made using Niacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are sirtuins (SIRT1, SIRT17)? |
|
Definition
NAD+-dependent protein deacetylases and/or ADP-ribosyltransferases. They are key metabolic sensors. |
|
|
Term
What areas of DNA Damage repair is NAD+ needed? |
|
Definition
PARP-mediated DNA damage repair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An enzyme that detects and signals DNA damage to repair mechanisms in response to single strand DNA breaks. |
|
|
Term
What is used for de novo synthesis of niacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do isoniazid drugs cause niacin deficiency? |
|
Definition
They inhibit Kinurenin aminotransferase, a key enzyme for de novo synthesis of niacin from tryptophan |
|
|
Term
What is the most common disorder caused by niacin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Pellegra? |
|
Definition
Three Ds: Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia |
|
|
Term
Why does symptoms of pellegra develop from Hartnup's disease? |
|
Definition
Renal reabsorption of neutral amino acids (namely tryptophan and histidine) is inhibitied. |
|
|
Term
What will high intakes of nicotonic acid cause? |
|
Definition
Hot flushing syndromes due to cutaneous vasodilation of the face, neck, and torso. |
|
|
Term
What are Type A and Type B Lactic Acidosis? |
|
Definition
Type A: Acidosis due to inadequate tissue oxygen delivery
Type B: Acidosis with no connection to clinical reduction in oxygen delivery. |
|
|
Term
What are Type B1, B2, and B3 lactic acidosis? |
|
Definition
B1: associated with underlying disease
B2: associated with drugs and toxins
B3: associated with inborn errors in metabolism
|
|
|
Term
How does vitamin C protect proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids from damage? |
|
Definition
It has antioxidant properties. |
|
|
Term
What effects does vitamin A have on vitamin E? |
|
Definition
It restores its antioxidant properties by turning it from its oxidized form to its reduced form. |
|
|
Term
How does vitamin facilitate Fe absorption? |
|
Definition
It reduces it from ferric form (Fe3+) to ferrous form (Fe2+), so it can be absorbed by DMT1 |
|
|
Term
Why is vitamin C required for development and maintenance of scar tissue, blood vessels, and cartilage? |
|
Definition
It is required for prolyl hydroxase and lysyl hydroxylase |
|
|
Term
Why is vitamin C needed for collagen maintenace? |
|
Definition
Prolyl hydroxylase uses Vitamin C to keep iron in the ferrous state |
|
|
Term
How is Vitamin C needed for norepinephrine/epinephrine synthesis? |
|
Definition
Dopamine beta-hydroxylase uses Cu as a prosthetic factor, and vitamin C is needed to keep Cu in the reduced Cu+ state. |
|
|
Term
How is vitamin C needed for carnitine biosynthesis? |
|
Definition
Two of the steps require Vitamin C |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of scurvy? |
|
Definition
Furst malaise and lethargy, then muscle pain (myalgia), easy brusing, loss of teeth, pale skin, etc. |
|
|
Term
How does Carcinoid syndrome affect Niacin levels? |
|
Definition
Increased production of serotonin from tryptophan leads to niacin deficiency. |
|
|
Term
What are the forms of vitamin A? |
|
Definition
Retinol
Retinal
Retinoic acid |
|
|
Term
What structure is necessary for the activity of vitamin A? |
|
Definition
Beta-ionone ring with an isoprenoid chain attached |
|
|
Term
Why is retinol, but not retonoic acid, used to treat vitamin A deficiency? |
|
Definition
Retinol and Retinal are interconvertible.
Retinal can be converted to retonoic acid, but retinoic acid cannot be converted back to retinal. |
|
|
Term
The synthesis of retinol-binding protein in the liver is dependent on what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How will deficiency of retinal affect vision? |
|
Definition
It will cause night blindness due to loss of 11 cis-retinal |
|
|
Term
How does retinoic acid affect gene expression? |
|
Definition
It binds to RAR, forming a RA-RAR complex, which activates retinoid acid-specific genes. |
|
|
Term
How does retinoic acid deficiency affect the epithelium? |
|
Definition
Epithelial cells require retinoic acid for differentiation primarily by the ability to activate RA-RAR dependent genes. |
|
|
Term
Why does Vitamin A deficiency affect mucous secretion? |
|
Definition
1. Reduced sulphotransferases synthesis needed for GAG synthesis.
2. Mucous-secreting epithelium replaced by keratin-producing epithelium |
|
|
Term
How is STRA6 involved in vitamin A uptake? |
|
Definition
STRA6 is involved in Retinol uptake from RBP in the circulation. |
|
|
Term
What will deficient SRA6 cause? |
|
Definition
Anopthalmia (no eyes), microphthalmia, pulmonary agenesis, duodenal stenosis, pancreatic malformations, intrauterine growth retardation. |
|
|
Term
What is Xerothalmia, and what causes it? |
|
Definition
Dryness of the cornea with progessive deterioration.
Caused by lack of retinoic acid. |
|
|
Term
What is rhodoposin and what will a deficiency cause? |
|
Definition
Area of the membrane disc in rods and cones that contain 11-cis-retinal and opsin.
Deficiency of 11-cis-retinal causes night blindness. |
|
|
Term
How does treatment of all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) help treat APL (Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia)? |
|
Definition
ATRA binds to PML-RARalpha so it can dissociate from transcription repressors and bind to RA-responsive genes. |
|
|
Term
How does Vitamin A affect Measles? |
|
Definition
Vitamin A deficiency makes measles more severe and increases fatality. |
|
|
Term
How does vitamin A overdose affect pregnancies? |
|
Definition
Over-regulation of RA-gene expression causes birth defects |
|
|
Term
What are the forms of Vitamin E in the body? |
|
Definition
4 tocopherols and 4 tocotrienols |
|
|
Term
What is the major vitamin E content of the diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does Vitamin E have antioxidant properties? |
|
Definition
It can donate its Hydrogen from the OH group of the chromanol ring. |
|
|
Term
What is alpha-tocopherol transfer protein (alphaTTP)? |
|
Definition
Critical regulator of Vitamin E by transporting hydrophobic vitamin E molecules to VLDL. |
|
|
Term
What causes Ataxia with Vitamin E deficiency (AVED), and what characterizes it? |
|
Definition
Mutations in alphaTTP.
Low vitamin E levels with progressive neurodegeneration. |
|
|
Term
Why does chronic vitamin E deficiency cause neurological degeneration? |
|
Definition
There is an increase in oxidative stress that damages neurons in the brain. |
|
|
Term
What can be used to treat the neurological symptoms associated with vitamin E deficiency? |
|
Definition
alpha-tocopherol treatment |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of Abetalupiproteinemia (ABL)? |
|
Definition
Loss of function of MTP gene so beta-lipoproteins do not assemble. |
|
|
Term
What are the main forms of Vitamin K in the body? |
|
Definition
K1: phylloquinone
K2: menaquinone |
|
|
Term
What is vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR)? |
|
Definition
It regenerates Vitamin K to its reduced form, KH2, from KO. |
|
|
Term
Why is vitamin K an antidote to warfarin (a coumadin) overdose? |
|
Definition
It acts as a competitive inhibitor to VKOR |
|
|
Term
What will vitamin K in its fully reduced state act as a cofactor for? |
|
Definition
The gamma-carboxylation of Glu into gamma-carboxyglutamic acid (Gla) |
|
|
Term
Why does vitamin K deficiency cause impaired blood clotting? |
|
Definition
Coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X need to be gamma carboxylated by the vitamin K dependent g-carboxylase |
|
|
Term
What will Vitamin K deficiency in newborns causes? |
|
Definition
Vitamin K deficiency Bleeding (VKBD) |
|
|
Term
What are the first signs of vitamin K deficiency? |
|
Definition
Under-carboxylation of extrahepatic Gla proteins |
|
|
Term
What is Matrix Gla Protein (MGP)? |
|
Definition
It acts as a Ca2+ sponge to soak up Ca2+ and prevent crystallization in the tissues |
|
|
Term
What will MGP deficiency cause? |
|
Definition
Calcium crystallization that causes cell damage and death |
|
|
Term
What is the cholesterol ratio? |
|
Definition
Total cholesterol to HDL-cholesterol ratio |
|
|
Term
What is the recommended normal cholesterol ratio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes abetalipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
Deficiencies in ApoB48 and ApoB100 causing low plasma chylomicron and VLDL levels. |
|
|
Term
What is the first sign of the development of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does LDL have atherogenic effects? |
|
Definition
It gets easily trapped and oxidized inside the intima of the arteries, and it causes atherosclerotic plaques. |
|
|
Term
What are the normal levels for HDL, LDL, Total Cholesterol, and Triglyceride? |
|
Definition
HDL: ≥ 60 mg/dL
LDL: < 100 mg/dL
Total: < 200 mg/dL
TG: <150 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
What are the dietary essential fatty acids? |
|
Definition
linolenic acid and linoleic acid |
|
|
Term
How does Ezetimibe affect cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
It blocks the internalization of NPC1L1/cholesterol complex, thus reducing the small intestine ability to absorb dietary cholesterol |
|
|
Term
What effect does colestipole and cholestyramine have on cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
It prevents the absorption of ASBT of bile salt in the ileum so the liver requires more cholesterol to synthesize bile salts, thus more LDLR are expressed and more LDL is taken from circulation. |
|
|
Term
How do Statin drugs affect cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
They have a structure moiety that resembles HMG-CoA, so they act as potent inhibitors of human HMG-CoA reductase.
De Novo cholesterol synthesis is inhibited. |
|
|
Term
What are Fibrates and Glitazones? |
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Definition
Activators of PPAR (peroxisome proliferation activation receptor), which act as ligand-dependent transcription factors to regulate gene expression.
Used as anti-hypertriglyceridemia drugs.
Mildly increase ApoA1 (HDL) synthesis |
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Term
What PPAR does Fibrate and Glitazone activate? |
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Definition
Fibrate: PPARalpha
Glitazone: PPARgamma |
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Term
How does inhibition of PCSK9 affect plasma LDL levels? |
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Definition
It increases the number of LDLR receptors to increase clearance rate from the plasma.
LDL plasma levels are lowered. |
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Term
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Definition
An antibody to human PCSK9 |
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Term
How will CETP inhibitors affect cholesterol levels? |
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Definition
Marked increases in HDL levels and moderate decreases in LDL levels without toxicity. |
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Term
What is the role of CETP? |
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Definition
It transfers the CE generated by LCAT to VLDL and LDL |
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Term
Where does the brain derive most of its cholesterol? |
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Definition
De novo synthesis since the BBB prevents uptake of lipoproteins. |
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Term
What are the major cholesterol pools of the CNS? |
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Definition
Myelin sheaths of oligodendroglia.
Plasma membranes of astrocytes and neurons. |
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Term
What are the major lipid constituents of myelin? |
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Definition
Cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycosphingolipids. |
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Term
When is the highest rate of cholesterol synthesis in humans? |
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Definition
The first postnatal weeks. |
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Term
When does the peak of the myelination process occur? |
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Definition
In correlation with the highest rate of cholesterol synthesis |
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Term
What happens of cholesterol biosynthesis is deficient during development? |
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Definition
The myelination process is delayed. |
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Term
What is the major source of apoE in the CNS? |
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Definition
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Term
What roles does ABCA1 have with ApoE? |
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Definition
It loads lipids onto ApoE |
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Term
What is the major apolipoprotein in HDL in the CNS? |
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Definition
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Term
What transports cholesterol synthesized by astrocytes in the CNS? |
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Definition
ApoE via endocytosis by LDLR family members |
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Term
What is the cholesterol from ApoE-containing lipoprotein particles used for? |
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Definition
Synaptogenesis and maintenance of synaptic connections |
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Term
What is Niemann-Pick Type C (NPC)? |
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Definition
"Childhood Alzheimer's"
Neurogenerative disease that causes deterioration in memory and balance, lung and liver failure, delayed motor development, and seizures. |
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Term
What are the two mechanismsto take care of excess amounts of cholesterol inside neurons? |
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Definition
1. ABCA1-dependent export.
2. ACAT-dependent conversion of cholesterol into CE and storage in lysosome-like storage organelles (LSO). |
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Term
How is cholesterol esters released from LSOs when needed? |
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Definition
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Term
What deficiency causes NPC? |
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Definition
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