Which of the following is NOT an example of a biopolymer?

a. DNA

b. myoglobin

c. phosphatidyl serine

d. starch

Which of the following statements is generally TRUE?

a. Eukaryotic cells are larger and less compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

b. Eukaryoric cells are smaller and more compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

c. Eukaryotic cells are smaller and less compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

d. Eukaryotic cells are larger and more compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

Which of the following statements is generally TRUE?

a. Eukaryotic cells are larger and less compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

b. Eukaryoric cells are smaller and more compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

c. Eukaryotic cells are smaller and less compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

d. Eukaryotic cells are larger and more compartmentalized than prokaryotic cells

Which of the following organelles is NOT present in animal cells?

a. lysosome

b. mitochondrion

c. chloroplast

d. nucleus

Which of the following is always TRUE about a reaction that happens spontaneously?

a. G is negative

b. H is negative

c. S is positive

d. H is negative and S is positive

As ice melts into water, how does the entropy and enthalpy change?

a. entropy decreases, enthalpy decreases

b. entropy increases, enthalpy decreases

c. entropy decreases, enthalpy increases

d. entropy increases, enthalpy increases

Which of the following statements is TRUE about open systems?

a. Reaction with a negative S may be spontaneous

b. A reaction with G = -20 kJ/mol will always proceed faster than one with G = -10 kJ/mol

c. A reaction that occurs spontaneously at T = 273 K will occur spontaneously at T = 300 K

d. Only reactions with positive S are spontaneous 

Which of the following do you expect to have highest entropy?

a. solid ammonia

b. ammonia (NH3) gas

c. all of the above have the same entropy

d. liquid ammonia

In which of the following are the types of interactions sorted from STRONGEST to WEAKEST?

a. dipole-dipole, covalent interactions, van der Waals

b. dipole-dipole, van der Waals, covalent interactions

c. covalent interactions, dipole-dipole, van der Waals

d. van der Waals, dipole-dipole, covalent interactions

Given what you know about nonbonded interactions, which of the following do you expect to have the LOWEST boiling point?

a. methane (CH4)

b. methanol (CH3OH)

c. methylamine (CH3NH2)

d. formaldehyde (CH2O)

Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonding in water is TRUE?

a. An average water molecule makes <4 H bonds as ice and <4 as a liquid

b. An average water molecule makes <4 H bonds as ice and 4 as liquid

c. An average water molecule makes 4 H bonds as ice and 4 as liquid

d. An average water molecule makes 4 H bonds as ice and <4 as a liquid

Which of the following molecules have BOTH a hydrogen bond donor and acceptor?

a. formaldehyde (CH2o)

b. mehtanol (CH3OH)

c. acetonitrile (CH3CN)

d. ethane (C2H6)

Hydrophobic molecules (like oil) tend to self-associate in water rather than dissolve.  What is the MAJOR energetic contribution to this property?

a. The self-association maximizes the entropy of the oil molecules

b. The self association minimizes the enthalpy of the oil molecules

c. The self-association minimizes the enthalpy of oil/water interactions

d. The self association maximizes the entropy of the water molecules

The pKa of acetic acid (CH3COOH) is 4.76. What is the ratio of [CH3COO-] to [CH3COOH] at a pH of 6.76?

a. 100:1

b. 2:1

c. 1:2

d. 1:100

Sort the pH of the following mixtures from LOWEST (most acidic) to HIGHEST (most basic):

• (I) 0.001 mol of HCl added to 1 L water
• (II) 0.001 mol HCl added to a buffer solution of 0.1 M HCOOH and 0.1 M NaHCOO (pKa=3.75)
• (III) 0.001 mol HCl added to a buffer solution of 0.1 M NH4Cl and NH3 (pKa=9.25)

a. I, II, III

b. II, I, III

c. II, III, I

d. III, II, I

Which of the following statements is TRUE about a protein with an isoelectric point (pI) of 5.5?

a. it has a net negative charge at pH 4 and net negative charge at pH 9

b. it is neutral at pH 4 and has a net negative charge at pH 9

c. it has a net negative charge at pH 4 and net positive charge at pH 9

d. it has a net positive charge at pH 4 and net negative charge at pH 9

There are only three naturally occurring amino acids that do not have EXACTLY one chiral center. Which are they?

a. GLY, ILE, THR

b. ALA, ILE, TYR

c. ASP, GLU, GLY

d. PHE, TYR, TRP

What is the charge of the peptide EHK at pH=3, pH=5, and pH=7, respectively? (Note: only consider the most populated protonation state)

a. +1, +1, 0

b. +1, 0, -1

c. +2, +1, -1

d. +3, +1, 0

Which of the following sequences is cleaved by BOTH trypsin and chymotrypsin?

a. MSFESTVL

b. AKSDYGRD

c. DFGSRPGG

d. EGHVVIKL

What is the sequence of the illustrated peptide?

[image]

a. QGDF

b. EGNF

c. QADW

d. EANW

Which of the following peptides sequences has NO spectroscopic signal at 280 nm wavelength?

a. NHYLK

b. FEFDL

c. WVIAS

d. PYWGG

Which amino acid is chemically modified to form a key component of the connective tissue protein collagen?

a. lysine

b. serine

c. proline

d. cysteine

Which amino acid substitution is MOST likely to disrupt the function of a protein (that is, which mutation is least conservative)?

a. R to K

b. W to S

c. D to E

d. I to L

Which post-translational modification is encoded genetically?

a. Phosphorylation to a serine residue

b. Formation of a disulfide bridge from two cysteine residues

c. Acetyllation of a lysine residue

d. None of the above

What is the ΔG of FORMATION of a peptide bond?

a. >0

b. 0

c. <0

Which of the following BEST describes the geometry of an alpha helix?

a. A left-handed helix with ~3.6 residues per turn

b. A right-handed helix with ~3.6 residues per turn

c. A left-handed helix with ~3.0 residues per turn

d. A right-handed helix with ~3.0 residues per turn

In which secondary structure arrangement does a single residue make TWO hydrogen bonds with the SAME residue?

a. Alpha helix

b. 3.10 helix

c. Parallel beta strands

d. Antiparallel beta strands

Ramachandran maps are similar for all amino acids with two exceptions: glycine and proline. How do the Ramachandran maps of these two compare to the general case?

a. Glycine has more allowed conformations; proline as fewer

b. Glycine has fewer allowed conformations; proline has more

c. Both have more allowed conformations

d. Both have fewer allowed conformations

Which of the following are NOT an example of fibrous protein?

a. alpha keratin

b. collagen

c. myoglobin

d. all of the above are fibrous proteins

Which of the following proteins do NOT contain alpha helices?

a. myoglobin

b. collagen

c. alpha keratin

d. trioesphosphate isomerase

Which of the following sequences would you expect to find in the CORE of a globular protein?

a. DERST

b. GQERR

c. KYSKT

d. VLFAI

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the energetics of globular protein folding?

a. Folded proteins bury hydrophobic residues in the protein core to maximize the entropy of solvent (water)

b. In going from a random coil to a folded protein, the entropy of the polypeptide chain decreases

c. The enthalpy changes that occur in protein folding are mostly due to noncovalent interactions

d. All of the above are true

Which of the following methods is NOT a method for denaturing a folded protein?

a. Addition of urea

b. Decreasing the protein concentration

c. Changing the pH

d. Increasing the temperature

Which of the following experimental methods can NOT be used for protein purification:

a. affinity chromotography

b. tandem mass spectrometry

c. ion exchange chromotography

d. gel filtration

You have a solution containing a mixture of three proteins:

(i) 100 Kda protein with pI = 3
(ii) 100 Kda protein with pI = 7 
(iii) 100 Kda protein with pI = 11

How would you purify protein (iii)?

a. run a gel filtration column, and take the first band

b. run an ion exchange column at pH=9 and take the earliest elution

c. run a gel filtration column and take the last band

d. run a cation exchange column at pH=9 and take the earliest elution

In size exclusion chromatography, smaller proteins elute through the column:

a. slower than larger proteins

b. faster than larger proteins

c. at the same speed as larger proteins

d. there is not enough information to answer this question

A protein of interest is bound to the matrix of a cation exchange column.  Which of the following techniques would successfully elute this protein from the column?

(i) increase pH above the protein's pI
(ii) decrease pH below the protein's pI
(iii) addition of an ionic salt to the elution buffer

a. (i) only

b. (ii) only

c. (iii) only

d. both (i) and (iii)

e. both (ii) and (iii)

Which of the following methods is commonly used for determining the sequence of a purified protein?

a. affinity chromotography

b. ion exchange chromotography

c. gel filtration

d. tandem mass spectrometry

A (His)6-tagged protein is bound to the matrix of a nickel column. Which of the following methods can be used to elute the protein from the column?

(i) run a high pH buffer through the column
(ii) run a low pH buffer through the column
(iii) run an imidizole-containing buffer through the column
(iv) run a urea-containing buffer through the column

a. (i) only

b. (ii) only

c. (i) or (iii)

d. (ii) or (iii)

e. (ii), (iii), or (iv)

Chaperones like GroEL/GroES facilitate protein folding by which of the following?

a. Preventing aggregation of proteins trapped in deep local minima of the free energy landscape

b. Modifying the energy landscape of a folded protein so that otherwise high-energy states are stabilized

c. Catalyzing the breaking of incorrectly paired disulfide bonds in proteins

d. Catalyzing the formation of trans peptide bonds in proteins

Which enzyme or enzyme family is responsible for correcting incorrectly formed disulfides in misfolded proteins?

a. prolyl isomerase

b. GroEL/GroES

c. heat-shock proteins

d. protein disulfide isomerase

Which of the following symmetries is NOT an example of point symmetry?

a. C symmetry

b. helical symmetry

c. Cubic symmetry

d. Icosahedral symmetry 

A symmetric assembly is known to contain exactly FOUR identical subunits. Which of the following symmetry groups could the protein adopt?
(i) C2
(ii) C4
(iii) D2
(iv) D4

a. (i) only

b. (i) or (ii)

c. (iii) only

d. (ii) or (iii)

e. (iv) only

Which of the following statements about the "energy landscape model" of protein folding is NOT correct?

a. It provides a resolution to Leventhal's paradox

b. There may be several pathways of intermediate structures in going from an unfolded to a natively folded protein

c. A folding protein explores the majority of all possible conformations before reaching the native state

d. There are stable intermediates corresponding to local minima in the energy landscape

What is the most common symmetry seen in nature?

a. C2

b. C3

c. D2

d. helical

Which of the following statements about amyloid fibrils is NOT true?

a. They primarily consist of beta strands

b. They adopt a helical symmetric arragement

c. They form rapidly following an initial nucleation event

d. They occur when a natively folded protein aggregates in the cell

Which of the following statements about the differences between myoglobin and hemoglobin is FALSE?

a. hemoglobin consists of four subunits, while myoglobin has one

b. at PO2 = 30 mm Hg, myoglobin binds oxygen at higher affinity than does hemoglobin

c. myoglobin has a sigmoidial oxygen binding curve, while hemoglobin has a hyperbolic binding curve

d. myoglobin binds one heme molecule, while hemoglobin binds four

Which of the following statements about the heme binding sites of hemoglobin is TRUE?

a. upon binding to oxygen, the heme group becomes more planar

b. each heme iron is coordinated by two histidine sidechains

c. upon binding to oxygen, two histidine sidechains coordinate the O2 molecule

d. ALL of the above are true

Which of the following statements about the allostery of hemoglobin is TRUE?

a. The cooperativity of oxygen binding is largely due to heme-heme interactions between subunits

b. Conformational changes between the R and T state are not believed to contribute to the cooperativity of oxygen binding

c. Cooperativity in oxygen binding gives rise to the sigmoidal oxygen binding curve

d. ALL of the above are true

Which of the following statements about the interaction of BPG and hemoglobin is TRUE?

a. Oxygen delivery is enhanced at high altitudes by strengthening hemoglobin's affinity to oxygen

b. Oxygen delivery is enhanced at high altitudes by weakening hemoglobin's affinity to oxygen

c. BPG does not weaken or strengthen hemoglobin's affinity to oxygen, but modulates the cooperativity of binding

d. BPG does not weaken or strengthen hemoglobin's affinity to oxygen, but competes with hemoglobin for O2

Which of the following mutations would you expect to be MOST detrimental to hemoglobin's ability to bind oxygen?

a. (alpha) F8 His -> Leu

b. (beta) A3 Glu -> Val

c. (alpha) HC3 Arg -> His

d. ALL of the above would likely have the same effect on hemoglobin binding to O2

Which of the following statements about the Bohr effect is FALSE?

a. The pH responsiveness of hemoglobin is due to protonation of a histidine residue

b. The Bohr effect increases hemoglobin's ability to deliver oxygen in hypoxic conditions

c. At high pH, hemoglobin has a hyperbolic binding curve

d. ALL of the above are TRUE

Which of the following statements about sickle-cell hemoglobin is TRUE?

a. It dramatically weakens the binding of hemoglobin to oxygen

b. It leads to oxydation of heme to Fe(3+)

c. It reduces the pH-induced affinity changes of hemoglobin to oxygen

d. It involves a mutation far from the site of oxygen binding

Which of the following statements about the symmetry model of allosteric change in hemoglobin is TRUE?

a. Binding of oxygen at one subunit increases oxygen affinity at neighboring subunits

b. Under this model, it is not possible to have a tertramer contain both R and T subunits

c. The model describes cooperativity of hemoglobin binding as largely a change in dynamics rather than in conformation

d. ALL of the above are true

Catalysts primarily work by:

a. providing additional kinetic energy for a substrate to overcome free energy barriers

b. increasing the free energy of the substrate

c. stabilizing the transition state of a reaction

d. decreasing the free energy of the product

Given the reaction S→P, which is catalyzed by an enzyme E, which is the following is TRUE?

a. E increases the rate of the reverse reaction P -> S

b. E reduces G0+ to 0

c. The reaction rate is only increased if G0+cat > G+non

d. The change in reaction rate depends on G0

In a Lineweaver-Burk plot of a reaction without inhibition, if the x-intercept is -0.02 L/μmol and the y intercept is 0.01 L·min/μmol, what is Km?

a. 2 umol/L

b. 50 umol/L

c. 100 umol/L

d. 0.5 umol/L

In a Lineweaver-Burk plot of a reaction without inhibition, if the x-intercept is -0.02 L/μmol and the y intercept is 0.01 L·min/μmol, what is Vmax?

a. 0.5 umol/(Lmin)

b. 2 umol/(Lmin)

c. 50 umol/(Lmin)

d. 100 umol/(Lmin)

In the case of competitive inhibition, which of the following statements about the Lineweaver-Burk plot is TRUE?

a. The slope does not change as inhibitor is added

b. The intersection point as inhibitor is added is given by [-1/alpha, 1/alpha]

c. The y intercept does not change as inhibitor is added

d. The x intercept does not change as inihbitor is added

In the case of uncompetitive inhibition, which of the following statements about the Lineweaver-Burk plot is TRUE?

a. The slopde does not change as inhibitor is added

b. The x intercept does not change as inhibitor is added

c. The y intercept does not change as inhibitor is added

d. The intersection point as inhibitor is added is given by [-1/alpha', 1/alpha']

If a Lineweaver-Burk plot of a reaction is not linear, which of the following is TRUE?

a. The reaction is performed with a competative inhibito

b. The reaction is performed with an uncompetative inhibitor

c. The reaction is performed with a mixed inhibitor

d. The reaction does not obey Michaelis-Menton kinetics

Which of the following is NOT a method that an enzyme would use to achieve rate enhancement in a reaction S→P?

a. Introduce favorable hydrogen bonds to the substrate S

b. Introducing favorable hydrogen bonds to the transition state of the reaction

c. Providing a residue to serve as a general base for the reaction

d. Coordinating a metal ion that acts as a general acid for the reaction

When chymotrypsin cleaves a peptide bond, which of the following best describes the role of Ser 195?

a. Acting as general base to deprotinate a watedr molecule

b. Acting as a nucleophile to attack the amide carbonyl of the peptide

c. Stabilizing an intermediate state by forming a covalent bond to the peptide residue C-terminal to the scissile bond

d. Stabilizing the deprotonated His 57

When chymotrypsin cleaves a peptide bond, which of the following best describes the role of His 57?

a. Acting as a nucleophile to attack the amide carbonyl of the peptide

b. Stabilizing Asp 102

c. Contributing a backbone amide proton to form the oxyanion hole stabilizing the transition state

d. Acting as a general base to deprotinate a water molecule

When chymotrypsin cleaves a peptide bond, which of the following best describes the role of Asp 102?

a. Acting as a general base to deprotinate a water molecule

b. Stabilizing the protonated His 57

c. Acting as a nucleophile to attack the amide cabonyl of the peptide

d. Contributing a backbone amide proton to form the oxianion hole stabilizing the transition state

Which of the following is NOT a role metal may play in enzyme catalysis?

a. binding a substrate

b. oxidation and reduction

c. binding water molecules

d. coordination of nonpolar sidechains

Given the series of reactions:
A→B→C→D→E
with enzyme 1 catalyzing A→B, enzyme 2 catalyzing B→C, enzyme 3 catalyzing C→D, and enzyme 4 catalyzing D→E.
Which of the following statements about feedback control in this series of reactions is CORRECT?

a. If the product D inhibits enzyme 1, that is an example of product inhibition

b. If the product B inhibits enzyme 4, that is an example of feedback inhibition 

c. If the product B inhibits enzyme 4, that is an example of product inhibition

d. If the product D inhibits enzyme 1, that is an example of feedback inhibition

Given the reaction network:

[image]

For a heteroallosteric inhibitor, what shape is the v versus [S] curve under the effect of an activator?  Under an inhibitor?

a. hyperbolic under an activator, sigmoidal under an inhibitor

b. sigmoidal under an activator, hyperbolic under an inhibitor

c. sigmoidal under an activator, sigmoidal under an inhibitor

d. hyperbolic under an activator, hyperbolic under an inhibitor

Which of the following statements about the enzyme aspartate carbamoyl transferase (ACTase) is CORRECT?

a. It contains 6 subunits and is D3 symmetric

b. It contains 12 subunits and is D3 symmetric

c. It contains 24 subunits and is C3 symmetric

d. It contains 6 subunits and is C3 symmetric

Proteases are first produced as in inactive "zymogen", and are only activated following cleavage by an activated protease.  What biological reason for this is most CORRECT?

a. Cleavage by an active protease in this way allows for very rapid turning on and off of protease activity in response to environmental stimuli

b. It allows for their activation to only occur in very specific tissues where protease activity is desired

c. It is not possible for a single protein chain to confer protease activity, thus, the most efficient way for the cell to make proteases is to cleage a single chain into multiple chains

d. Single peptide bond cleavage is energetically favorable, they can be used to deliver energy from one tissue type to another 

Which of the following mechanisms are NOT used to reversibly control enzyme activity?

a. substrate-level control through product inhibition 

b. feedback control through heteroallosteric effectors

c. covalent modification by kinases/phosphatases

d. protein backbone cleavage by proteases

What is the nomenclature for the fatty acid shown below?

[image]

a. 20:4 (delta 5,8,11, 14)

b. 20:8 (delta 6, 7, 9, 10, 12, 13, 15, 16)

c. 20:8 (delta 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, 12, 14, 15)

d. 20:4 (delta 6, 9, 12, 15)

Lipid molecules are said to be amphipathic, meaning that:

a. they are capable of moving rapidly from one side of a lipid bilayer to the other

b. they have a dual nature with part of the molecule being hydrophobic and the other part hydrophilic

c. they have asymmetric carbons and can exist in left- and right-handed forms

Unsaturated fatty acids generally have double bonds that are in the cis, rather than the trans, configuration. One of the consequences of this is:

a. a 45 degree bend in the molecule

b. a 30 degree bend in the molecule

c. a change in the overall charge of the molecule

d. enhanced ability to pack with saturated fatty acids increasing the Tm of the lipid mixture

Which of the following lipids is used for energy storage? 

a. sphinogolipids

b. triacylglycerols

c. cardiolipins

d. glycerophospholipids

Compared to olive oil, you would expect beef fat to have a higher proportion of:

a. short-chain branched fatty acids

b. long-chain saturated fatty acids

c. short-chain unsaturated fatty acids

d. long-chain unsaturated fatty acids

The basic building blocks that make up glycosphingolipids include all of the following except:

a. a mono- or oligo-saccharide

b. sphingosine

c. a fatty acid

d. glycerol

After the removal of all sugar units from a ganglioside, what molecule remains? 

a. a ceramide

b. phosphate

c. L-serine

d. sphingosine

e. palmitate

f. glycerol

What is the structure of the steroid nucleus common to all sterols? 

a. it consists of five fused rings, four with six carbons and one with five

b. It consists of four fused rings, three with six carbons and one with five

c. It consists of five fused rings, three with six carbons and two with five

d. It consists of three fused rings, two with six carbons and one with five

Which of the answers below best completes the following sentence:

Although free fatty acids form micelles, phospholipids and glycolipids form bimolecular sheets because...

 a. the association of phospholipids is entropically driven

b. of the presence of two fatty acyl chains

c. water forms clathrate structures around fatty acid micelles

The most common way in which integral membrane proteins span the membrane is by using:

a. single strands with no secondary structure

b. alpha-helical segments

c. beta-sheet structures

Which of the following would be expected to lower the Tm for a phospholipid bilayer the most?

a. replacing a phospholipid containing unsaturated fatty acids with one containing saturated fatty acids of the same length

b. replacing a mono-unsaturated 16-Carbon fatty acids in phospholipids with mono-unsaturated 18-Carbon fatty acids

c. In a membrane composed of phospholipids made from saturated 18-carbon fatty acyl chains, replacing them with saturated 16-carbon fatty acyl chains

Which of the following is true about motion of membrane lipids?

a. They can move most rapidly when in the gel phase

b. To increase the fluidity of membranes at low temperatures, cells synthesize phospholipids with longer, more saturated fatty acids and fewer unsaturated fatty acids

c. Transbilayer diffusion involves the transfer of lipids from one face of the bilayer to another

d. Lateral diffusion is catalyzed by flippase proteins

You add a membrane impermeable reagent to a solution of intact erythrocytes. If a protein in the erythrocyte reacts with the reagent, what can you conclude about the membrane protein? 

a. It is a peripheral membrane protein

b. It is not a plasma membrane protein

c. At least part of the protein is located on the outer face of the membrane

Peripheral membrane proteins...

a. completely span the membrane

b. only associate with a membrane after modification with a lipid

c. can only be removed from the membrane using detergents

d. are extracted from the membrane with high salt, change in pH, or using chelating agents

Which of the following is true?

a. Proteins can be anchored to cellular membranes by post-translational modifications with fatty acids

b. In cellular membranes, the composition of both sheets that make up a lipid bilayer are at equilibrium

c. Within a eukaryotic cell, the composition of all cellular membranes are essentially the same

d. In cellular membranes, lipid rafts are primarily composed of cholesterol and peripheral membrane proteins

In passive transport, the energy driving the net movement of materials across a membrane is provided by

a. ATP

b. nothing, no energy is required for passive transport

c. the concentration gradient across the membrane

For charged species, the free energy content of a concentration gradient is determined by

a. both the concentration difference and electrochemical potential across the membrane

b. only the concentration difference across the membrane

c. only the electrochemical potential or voltage difference across the membrane

In active transport systems, what is the difference between symporters and antiporters?

a. Symporters use the energy from one molecule moving down its concentration gradient to drive the movement of a second molecule in the same direction against its concentration gradient while antiporters drive the movement in the opposite direction

b. Symporters allow the same molecule to be moved in both directions while antiporters allow it to move in only one direction

c. Symporters use the energy from one molecule moving down its concentration gradient to drive the movement of a second molecule in the opposite direction against its concentration gradient while antiporters driver the movement in the same direction

Which of the following is NOT true of ion channels?

a. Ion channels are continually open while pumps or secondary transporters depend on an energy source to open and allow the flow of ions

b. Ion channels are gated, only being opened in response to specific signals

c. Movement of ions through ion channels is more rapid than through pumps or secondary transporters

The three-dimensional structure of the potassium channel provided a rationale for the selectivity of potassium ions and the rejection of sodium ions. Which of the following is the basis for the ability of the potassium channel to discriminate between these two ions?

a. A restriction in the channel allows for potassium ions to be re-solvated by protein backbone carbonyl groups but is too large to effectively resolvate sodium ions

b. The the sodium ions is too small to pass through the channel

c. The opening of the channel is structurally arranged such that potassium ions can bind, but is too small for sodium ions

The GTPase activity of G-proteins is important because

a. the G-proteins are active only when GDP is bound to them

b. it provides a method whereby the initial signal can be terminated

c. the phosphate released in an important secondary messenger

Stimulation of phospholipase C activity by G[image]α-proteins generates what second messengers?

a. free fatty acids and a molecule in which inositol 4,5 diphosphate is linked via phosphate to glycerol

b. diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate

c. diacylglycerol phosphate and inositol 4,5-diphosphate

d. cAMP

After a period of time, Gα ceases to stimulate adenylyl cyclase. Why?

a. G alpha is phosphorylated which enables it to reassociate with the beta gamma subunits

b. GTP displaced GDP and enables the G-protien to re-associate with the beta gamma subunits

c. The G-protein's GTPase activity removes a phosphate; G alpha bound to GDP then reassociates with the beta gamma subunits

Although the insulin receptor is already a dimer, ligand binding to Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) induces dimer formation in other members of the RTK family. The result of this is that

a. the intracellular domains are changed from a conformation having little organized structure into a highly organized structure that is active

b. intracellular domains acting as second messengers are proteolytically cleaved and free to move through the cytoplasm

c. intracellular protein kinase domains are brought together and activate one another by auto-phosphorylation

Which of the following is NOT a role of carbohydrates?

a. Oxidation to make ATP

b. Storing genetic information

c. Modifying proteins

d. Providing physical cell support & structure

e. Cell-cell signaling

Which one is a carbohydrate?

a. C3H5N2

b. C2H6O2N

c. C16H34O2

d. C2H5OH

e. C3H6O3

A monosaccharide is to a              what a(n)              is to a protein.

a. Disaccharide, domain

b. Polysaccharide, peptide

c. Polysaccharide, domain

d. Polysaccharide, amino acid

e. Disaccharide, amino acid

You assay cell surface oligosaccharides from a blood sample. After determining the composition of the oligosaccharides relative to a reference monosaccharide, fucose, you conclude the donor is blood type B. What brought you to this conclusion?

a. High levels of HbA1c

b. An abundane of unmodified glucose

c. Both galactose of unmodified galactose

d. An abundance of unmodified galactose

e. An abundance of N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc)

[image]

What is the name of this molecule?

a. beta-D-ribofuranose

b. alpha-D-ribofuranose

c. alpha-D-ribopyranose

d. beta-D-fructopyranose

e. alpha-D-fructopyranose

An enzymatic weight-gain supplement claims to help users digest all carbohydrates in fruits and vegetables. What key enzyme would you hope to see on the label?

a. Lipase

b. Lactase

c. Cellulase

d. Amylase

e. Oligosaccharidase

Your friend is training as a pastry chef and was excited to make a “healthy” cookie with oligosaccharides as a substitute for sugar. However, the cookies were dry and pale-looking. Why?

a. Fewer aldehydes on nonreducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reactoin during baking

b. More alcohol on nonreducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

c. Oligosaccharides don't caramelize

d. Fewer aldehydes on reducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

e. More alcohol on reducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

Your friend is training as a pastry chef and was excited to make a “healthy” cookie with oligosaccharides as a substitute for sugar. However, the cookies were dry and pale-looking. Why?

a. Fewer aldehydes on nonreducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reactoin during baking

b. More alcohol on nonreducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

c. Oligosaccharides don't caramelize

d. Fewer aldehydes on reducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

e. More alcohol on reducing sugars were available to undergo the Maillard reaction during baking

[image] 

Which contains only one chiral center?

a. III

b. I

c. V

d. IV

e. II

[image] 

Which would be found if lactose were degraded enzymatically?

a. III and V

b. III

c. II and V

d. II

e. V

[image] 

An isomerase could interconvert which 2 molecules?

a. I and III

b. II and V

c. III and V

d. II and III

e. None of these

[image]

Which is a component of ATP?

a. III

b. V

c. IV

d. I

e. II

[image]

What best describes carbohydrate IV?

a. L-enantimoer, ketose

b. D-enantiomer, aldose

c. None of these

d. L-enantiomer, aldose

e. D-enantiomer, ketose

[image]

What best describes the relationship between carbohydrates II and V?

a. Baes

b. Epimers

c. Enantiomers

d. Tautomers

e. Anomers

[image]

Cyclization of which 2 molecules would yield [image]and [image]?

a. II and I

b. V and I

c. V and III

d. III and I

e. II and III

[image]

When this carbohydrate cyclizes, which carbon becomes the anomeric carbon?

a. D

b. A

c. C

d. B

e. E

[image]

When this carbohydrate cyclizes, which oxygen becomes part of the ring?

a. B

b. C

c. D

d. A

e. E

[image]

Which of the following could this molecule become following cyclization?

a. alpha-D-galactopyranose

b. beta-D-galactopyranose

c. Both alpha-D-glucopyranose and beta-D-glucopyranose

d. alpha-D-glucopyranose

e. beta-D-glucopyranose

d. Both alpha-D-galactopyranose and beta-D-galactopyranose

[image]

Which of them would yield an orange precipitate in a Benedict’s test?

a. I

b. III

c. II

d. IV

e. Two of these

[image]

Which contains a 1,1- glycosidic linkage?

a. I

b. III

c. None of these

d. IV
e. II

[image]

Which contain β-D-glucose as a subunit?

a. III

b. IV

c. I

d. None of these

e. II

[image]

Which molecule is sucrose?

a. IV

b. III

c. II

d. I

e. None of these

[image]

What is the oxidation state of the carbon indicated with the arrow?

a. 0

b. -1

c. +1

d. -2

e. +2

Complete oxidation of all carbons in one mole of which compound would yield the most energy? (Ignore possible energetic contributions of nitrogen.)

a. glutamine

b. sucrose

c. palmitate

d. glucose

e. ribose

One mole each of glucose, ribose, glyceraldehyde, and sucrose are oxidized completely to CO2. Rank the molecules by the amount of energy released from highest to lowest (i.e. most kJ released > … > least kJ released).

a. glyceraldehyde > glucose > ribose > sucrose

b. glyceraldehyde > ribose > glucose > sucrose

c. sucrose > glucose > ribose > glyceraldehyde

d. sucrose > ribose > glucose > glyceraldehyde

e. glucose > sucrose > ribose > glyceraldehyde

Which ONE of the following structures is ATP?

[image]

a. None of these

b. IV

c. III

d. I

e. II

For an anabolic reaction to benefit from energetic coupling, its half reactions taken altogether MUST                                 .

a. have an overall negative delta G

b. have an overall positive delta G

c. be redox reactions

d. include hydrolysis of ATP

e. have an overall zero delta G

Which ONE of the following is DEPLETED from muscle during exercise?

a. Creatine

b. ATP

c. Creatine kinase

d. Pi

e. Creatine phosphate

Which of the following statements about GLUTs is CORRECT?

a. GLUT4 detects insulin at the plasma membrane

b. Cells rely primarily on GLUT3 for glucose uptake

c. GLUTs can transport monosaccharides other than glucose

d. Liver and muscle cells use bidirectional GLUT

e. GLUTs consume ATP to transport glucose across the plasma membrane

c. GLUTs can transport monosaccharides other than glucose

d. Liver and muscle cells use bidirectional GLUT

Type II diabetes can arise from problems with insulin sensitivity. Which ONE of the following could explain why type II diabetic cells take up less glucose from the blood?

a. Impaired kinase activity of the insuln receptor

b. All of these

c. Reduced affinity of insulin receptors for insulin

d. Fewer insulin receptors on the plasma membrane

e. Mutations affecting tyrosine residues on the insulin receptor 

Which ONE of the following is the net reaction of glycolysis?

a. glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + 2 NADH -> 2 pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NAD+ + 2 H+ + 2 H2O

b. glucose + 2 ATP + 2 NAD+ + 2H+ + 2 H2O -> 2 pyruvate + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + NADH

c. glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + 2 NAD+ + 2H+ + 2 H2O -> 2 pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH

d. glucose + 2 ATP + 2 NAD+ -> 2 pyruvate + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 H2O

e. glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + 2 NAD+ -> 2 pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 H2O

The 3 irreversible steps of glycolysis have which of the following features in common? 

I.    They have a large negative ΔG

II.   They have a large positive ΔG

III.  They consume ATP

IV.  They are catalyzed by kinases

a. I, III, and IV only

b. I and IV only

c. II, III, IV only

d. II and IV only 

e. I only

To prepare for a long bike race down the Washington coast (sea level), your friend is training intensely around Mount Rainier at high altitude in the days and weeks leading up to race day. Biochemically speaking, what is the advantage of this training regimen?

a. Increase [1,3-BPG] in red blood cells, raising hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

b. Increase [F-2,6-BP] in red blood cells, raising hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

c. Increase [2,3-BPG] in red blood cells, raising hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

d. Increase [F-2,6-BP] in red blood cells, reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

e. Increase [1,2-BPG] in red blood cells, reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

f. Increase [2,3-BPG] in red blood cells, reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

The glycolytic product of the                           reaction allosterically activates                            .

a. pyruvate kinase, hexokinase

b. phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase

c. hexokinase, pyruvate kinase

d. GAPDH, phosphoglycerate kinase

e. pyruvate kinase, phosphofructokinase

Fructose-1-phosphate is cleaved between carbons 3 and 4 to make two 3-carbon intermediates. Before they can proceed on to glycolysis, one intermediate must be                and the other must be                .

a. reduced, phosphorylated 

b. oxidized, phosphorylated 

c. oxidized, isomerized

d. reduced, isomerized

e. isomerized, phosphorylated 

Both liver and pancreatic beta cells express a pair of proteins whose cooperation helps the cell perform unique functions with regard to glucose.  Which ONE of the following lists that pair of proteins?

a. GLUT2, glucokinase

b. GLUT3, PFK-2/FBPase-2

c. GLUT2, PFK-2/FBPase-2

d. GLUT3, glucokinase

e. glucokinase, PFK-2/FBPase-2

Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY states why liver and pancreatic beta cells use the pair of proteins named in question 5?

a. They allow the cell to bring in glucose in response to insulin signaling

b. They bring in a steady stream of glucose and trap it there to fuel glycolysis

c. They bring in large amounts of glucose when blood glucose is high and trap it there to fuel glycolysis

d. They allow the cell to sense and/or release phosphorylated glucose without committing it to glycolysis

e. They allow the cell to sense and/or release glucose without committing it to glycolysis 

When oxygen is low, HIF-1 is                   and leads to                   of genes encoding many glycolytic enzymes.

a. stabilized, replication

b. degraded, transcription

c. stabilized, silencing

d. stabilized, transcription

e. degraded, replication

f. degraded, silencing

Which ONE of the following statements about phosphofructokinase and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is TRUE?

a. Binding of F-2,6-BP to PFK shifts the enzyme toward the R state

b. Binding of F-2,6-BP to PFK shifts the enzyme toward the T state

c. F-2,6-BP competes with ATP and ADP for binding at an allosteric site

d. F-2,6-BP competes with substrate at the active site of PFK

e. F-2,6-BP is elevated during insulin signaling, lowering activity of PFK

Blood glucose is high and insulin binds to a receptor on an adipose cell. Which ONE of the following things could occur in this cell because of phosphorylation that resulted ultimately from insulin signaling?

a. Activation of enzymes for fatty acid degradation

b. Activation of pyruvate kinase by dephosphorylation

c. Activation of hexokinase by phosphorylation

d. Recruitment and fusion of GLUT1 containing vesicles with the plasma membrane

e. A rise in [R-2,,6-BP]

The liver uses several specialized enzymes. Which of the following enzymes is used ONLY by the liver?

a. Phosphofructokinase-2/fructose bisphosphatase-2

b. GAPDH

c. Phosphofructokinase-1

d. GLUT2

e. Hexokinase

When glucose is converted to ethanol by yeast (as in the production of beer) how much of the chemical energy that was originally stored in glucose still remains in the end product, ethanol, that is produced?

a. 100%

b. 0%

c. 8%

d. 50%

e. 92%

Which one of the following molecules has the highest molecular weight?

a. alpha-ketoglutarate

b. isocitrate

c. acetyl CoA

d. oxaloacetate

e. citrate

When Acetyl CoA reacts with oxaloacetate in the Citrate Synthase reaction how many carbons are in the product, citrate that is formed?

a. 20

b. 6

c. 4

d. 5

Which ONE of the following is not a coenzyme or substrate involved in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex reaction?

a. Lipoamide

b. NAD+

c. Coenzyme A

d. Flavin adenine dinucleotide

e. Thiamine Pyrophosphate

f. ATP

Which ONE of the following provides a long arm that can swing a substrate from one site to another in the PDH complex?

a. Thiamine Pyrophosphate 

b. Flavin adenine dinucleotide

c. Lipoamide

d. Coenzyme A

e. ATP

f. NAD+

To get you to look carefully at these structures – answer this - which ONE has the highest molecular weight?

a. FAD

b. FMN

c. NMN

d. NAD+

Which one of the following is the part of the citrate synthase that is most exergonic and provides the driving force for the reaction?

a. Thioester hydrolysis

b. Formatin of a new C-C bond

c. Rearrangement of the pro-chiral center from pro-R to pro-S

d. Proton transfers

Which one of the following enzymes is most similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase?

a. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

b. malate dehydrogenase

c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

d. succinate dehyrogenase

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. Neither of the two carbons that enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl CoA are removed as CO2 in the first round of citric acid cycle

b. Both of the carbons that enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl CoA are removed as CO2 in the first round of the citric acid cycle

c. Only one of the two carbons that enter the citric acid cycle as cetyl CoA is removed as CO2 in the first round of the citric acid cycle

Which one of the following reactions in the citric acid cycle produces ATP in heart muscle by substrate level phosphorylation?

a. Succinyl-CoA synthetase

b. Citrate synthase

c. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

d. Malate deydrogenase

e. Succinate dehyrdogenase

Which one of the following enzymes of the citric acid cycle is an integral membrane protein?

a. Succinate dehydrogenase

b. Succinyl-CoA synthetase

c. Citrate synthase

d. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

e. Malate dehydrogenase

Which one of the following intermediates of the citric acid cycle is least abundant in mitochondria?

a. Oxaloacetate

b. Citrate

c. Alpha-ketoglutarate

d. Succinate

e. Malate

Which one of the following inhibits many steps in the citric acid cycle?

a. NADH

b. Ca2+

c. ADP

d. Insulin

In the respiratory cascade there are two steps where electrons must be carried from one respiratory complex to another respiratory complex. Which ONE of the following choices lists 1) a lipid soluble electron carrier and 2) a water soluble electron carrier that each carry electrons from one respiratory complex to another?

a. 1) Coenzyme Q, 2) Cytochrome C

b. 1) Cytochrome C, 2) Iron Sulfur protein

c. 1)NADH, 2) Cytochrome C

d. 1) NADH, 2)FADH2

e. 1) Iron Sulfur protein, 2) Coenzyme Q

About half of the inner membrane proteins in mitochondria are involved in oxidative phosphorylation. Most of the other inner membrane proteins are involved in which ONE of the following?

a. Synthesis of citrate

b. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetly CoA

c. Glycolysis

d. Transport of molecules into and out of the mitochondria

What are the units of the Faraday Constant?

a. Amps per volt

b. Ohms per square centimeter per volt

c. Coulombs per mole per volt

d. Joules per mole per volt

e. Joules per meter

Based on the values in Table 14-1 which ONE of the following is the [image]ΔGo’ for the reaction:

Pyruvate + NADH + H+ [image]⟷ Lactate + NAD+  

a. -8 kJ per mole

b. + 8 kJ per mole

c. +25 kJ per mole

d. -25 kJ per mole

e. 0 kJ per mole

How many carbons are there in the hydrophobic tail of the form of Coenzyme Q known as “Q10”?

a. 100

b. 5

c. 10

d. 1

e. 50

Which ONE best describes the sequence of events that occur in Complex I?

a. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+; Reduction of Cyt box to Cytbred; Reduction of O2 to H2O

b. Oxidation of Succinate to Fumarate; Reduction of Cytbox to Cytbred; Reduction of O2 to H2O

c. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+; Reduction of Cyt cox to Cyt cred; Reduction of CoQ to CoQH2; Reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+

d. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+; Reduction of FMN to FMNH2; Reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+; Reduction of CoQ to CoQH2

Which ONE of the following best describes how complex I pumps protons?

a. Protons are carried across the membrane by NADH
b. Conformational changes caused by electron transfer cause the pKa of several amino acid side chains to change

c. Protons released by oxidation of NADH are released at the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane

d. Phospholipid side chains bind and release the protons that move from one side of the membrane to the other

e. Protons are co-translocated as electrons are transferred across the membrane

Which ONE of the following does not transfer electrons to CoQ to make CoQH2?

a. Complex II

b. Complex I

c. Complex IV

d. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

Which ONE of the following respiratory complexes does not pump protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane when it is actively transferring electrons from its substrate to its product?

a. Complex II

b. Complex I

c. Complex III

d. Complex IV

Which ONE of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The electrical potential in this matrix is 150-200 mV more positive than outside the mitochondrion

b. The pH outside an actively respiring mitochondrion is about 0.75 pH units lower than the pH in the mitochondrial matrix

c. The electrical potential gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane is as steep as the electrical potential gradient that generates a lighting bolt

d. About 10 protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane for each pair of electrons transferred from NADH to O2

Which ONE would make the most ATP per O2reduced (highest P/O ratio)?

a. Mitochondria incubated with pyruvate

b. Mitochondria incubated with pyruvate and dinotrophenol

c. Mitochondria incubated with succinate

d. Mitochondria incubated with succinate and dinotrophenol

The ______ subunit of the ATP synthase can bind ADP and catalyze synthesis of ATP

and the _______ subunit induces conformational changes in that subunit as the F0 portion rotates relative to the F1 subumit.

a. beta, gamma

b. c, beta

c. alpha, beta

d. gamma, delta

e. gamma, beta

a. beta, gamma

Which one of the following substrates can limit the rate of oxidative phosphorylation?

a. Any of these substances can limit the rate of oxidative phosphorylation depending on metabolic conditions

b. Pi

c. O2

d. Pyruvate

e. Succinate

f. ADP

a. Any of these substances can limit the rate of oxidative phosphorylation depending on metabolic conditions

Which one of the following will produce the LEAST amount of ATP per O2 consumed?

a. Mitochondria isolated from brown fat

b. Mitochondria isolated from heart

c. Mitochondria isolated from brain

d. Mitochondria isolated from skeletal muscle

e. Mitochondria isolated from liver

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Photosynthesis in plants occurs in two stages. The first uses water to reduce CO2 to carbohydrates. The second uses NADPH to convert ADP into ATP.

b. Some organisms use hydrogen gas instead of water as a reducing agent

c. The so-called "dark-reactions" are accelerated by light

d. Both atoms of oxygen in the O2 produced by photosynthesis come from water

Which ONE is the part of a chloroplast that absorbs the light used to power photosynthesis?

a. Thylakoid membrane

b. Chloroplast outer membrane

c. Chloroplast inner membrane

d. Stroma

Which ONE of the following describes how energy is transferred from antenna molecules to chlorphyll in the reaction center?

a. resonance transfer

b. electron transfer

c. breaking a chemical bond and forming new ones

d. emission of fluorescence that is absorbed by the chlorophyll in the reaction center

Which ONE has the lowest need for an electron?

a. P700+ in its excited state

b. P680+ in its ground state

c. P680+ in its excited state

d. P700+ in its ground state

Which ONE of the following is NOT a pair of molecules that have analogous functions in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a. Q cycle and light

b. Cytochrome c and plastocyanin

c. CF1 and F1

d. Plastoquinone and ubiquinone

Which ONE of the following is NOT a pair of molecules that have analogous functions in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a. Q cycle and light

b. Cytochrome c and plastocyanin

c. CF1 and F1

d. Plastoquinone and ubiquinone

Which one of the choices includes two enzymatic activities that are needed for both photosynthesis and glycolysis?

a. Transketolase and transaldolase

b. Phosphoglycerate kinase and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

c. Aldolase and hexokinase

d. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase and enolase

What are the two essential goals of the reactions in the Calvin cycle?

a. To make 6 carbons sugars and to regenerate Ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate

b. To make Ribose 5 phosphate and NADPH

c. To make ATP and NADPH

d. To produce CO2 and H2O from glucose

Which one lists the form of carbohydrate that is used for storage and the form of carbohydrate that is exported to other parts of the plant?

a. Glucagon, fructose

b. Amylose, fructose

c. Amylose, sucrose

d. Glycogen, glucose

Which one of the following does NOT describe a way that photosynthesis is regulated?

a. Light stimulates phosphofructokinase and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

b. Light stimulates reduction of thioredoxin which reduces and activates several enzymes in the Calvin Cycle

c. Light raises the pH in the stroma, which stimulates Rubisco activity

d. Light causes the concentration of Mg2+ to increase in the stroma, which stimulates Rubisco activity

Which one of the following lists the two primary functions of the pentose phosphate pathway?

a. To produce NADPH to support biosynthetic reactions, to produce ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide and nucleic acid biosynthesis

b. To use NADPH and ATP to convert CO2 into sugars, to produce O2

c. To produce ATP, to regenerate NAD+

d. To use NADPH and ATP to convert CO2 into sugars, to produce O2

e. To generate ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis, to regenerate NAD+

Which version of the pentose phosphate pathway will generate the most NADPH?

a. The one in which GAP and F6P are used to regenerate Glucose-6-phosphate

b. The one in which ribose-5-phosphate is used to make nucleotides

c. The one in which ribose-5-phosphate is made into ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate

d. The one in which GAP is used to make pyruvate

You make dilute 1 nM solutions each of glycogen, amylose and amylopectin in water, fully solubilizing the polysaccharide molecules in a test tube. You then add a reagent to each tube that is nonfluorescent when free in solution, but reacts irreversibly with polysaccharide non-reducing ends to introduce a covalently-bound fluorescent tag. After the reagent is allowed to react completely with the polysaccharide in each tube, rank the resulting polysaccharide solutions based on fluorescence:

less fluorescent < … < more fluorescent

a. amylose < amylopectin < glycogen

b. amylopectin < amylose < glycogen

c. glycogen < amylose < amylopectin

d. glycogen < amylopectin < amlyose

e. all solutions would have the same fluorescence

Why does a vitamin B6 deficiency impair glycogenolysis?

a. The PLP derived from vitamin B6 is covalently attached to glycogen phosphorylase and transfers a phosphate to the substrate

b. The PLP derived from vitamin B6 is an electron donor for the glycogen phosphorylase reaction

c. The PLP derived from vitamin B6 keeps inhibitors from entering the active site of glycogen phosphorylase

d. The PLP derived from vitamin B6 is needed for glycogen phosphorylase to stabilize ATP during phosphate transfer

e. The PLP derived from vitamin B6 helps glycogen phosphorylase from a Schiff base linkage with the substrate

Which of the following enzymes catalyze reactions which use inorganic phosphate? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

b. glycogen phosphorylase

c. ATP synthase

d. creatine kinase

e. pyruvate dehydrogenase

f. pyruvate carboxylase

g. glycogen synthase

a. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

b. glycogen phosphorylase

c. ATP synthase

Which of the following fill-in-the-blank statements is FALSE? (Choose ONE.)

In the fed state, there is more glycogen in             than in             by wet weight.

a. all of the body's brain tissue, all of the body's liver tissue

b. 1g liver tissue, 1g skeletal muscle tissue

c. 1g liver tissue, 1g brain tissue

d. 1g skeletal muscle tissue, 1g adipose tissue

e. all of the body's skeletal muscle tissue, all of the body's liver tissue

How many ATP and how many NADH molecules are invested to add one molecule of glucose to a glycogen chain?

a. 2 ATP, 0 NADH

b. 1 ATP, 1 NADH

c. 1 ATP, 0 NADH

d. 2 ATP, 1 NADH

e. 0 ATP, 0 NADH

Which ONE of the following enzymes, when activated, would indirectly affect the reaction direction of phosphoglucomutase?

a. all of these

b. hexokinase

c. glucokinase

d. glucose-6-phosphatase

e. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Which ONE of the following statements about glucagon signaling is NOT correct?

a. It employs a receptor tyrosine kinase that stimulates adenylate cyclase

b. It triggers a phosphorylation cascade that activates glycogen phosphorylase

c. It triggers a phosphorylation cascade that inhibits glycogen synthase

d. It uses cyclic AMP as a second messenger

e. It occurs using a receptor with 7 transmembrane domains

Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY describes why glycogenesis requires energy?

a. Regenerating UTP from UDP with nucleoside diphosphate kinase requires ATP

b. ATP is consumed during isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate

c. Glycogen synthase uses energy from ATP to add UDP-glucose to the growing glycogen chain

d. Forming (alpha-1,6) glycosidic linkages from (alpha-1,4) linkages is not energetically favorable, so ATP hydrolysis provides energy for branching 

e. The reaction of UDP-glucose-pyrophosphorylase is energetically coupled to ATP hydrolysis

Imagine you are a glucose-6-phosphate molecule in a skeletal muscle cell. Which ONE of the following CANNOT happen to you?

a. Be dephosphorylated to make glucose

b. All of these things could happen

c. Be oxidized and enter the pentose phosphate pathway

d. Enter glycolysis and become 2 pyruvates that are converted to acetyl CoA

e. Be converted to glucose-1-phosphate and incorporated into glycogen

f. Enter glycolysis and become 2 pyruvates that are converted to lactate