Term
DISCLAIMER:
This study tool is to be used at your own risk! In no way has the Commander authorized this as official. Please feel free to keep your comments about the material to yourself, unless it is related to incorrect information.
Thank you, your local flashcard editor
PACK updated 2May13 by Mr Castelli |
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Definition
DISCLAIMER:
This study tool is to be used at your own risk! In no way has the Commander authorized this as official. Please feel free to keep your comments about the material to yourself, unless it is related to incorrect information.
Thank you, your local flashcard editor |
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Term
| Flight operations will publish the flight schedule NLT _____ of the preceeding week. |
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Definition
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Term
| What form number is the mission brief sheet? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many parts are there to the mission approval process and what are they? |
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Definition
3 Parts
Part one: Initial Mission Approval
Part Two: Mission Planning and Briefing
Part Three: Final Mission Approval |
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Term
| What happens during the Initial mission approval stage? |
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Definition
Commander approves the flight schedule. Commander considers the impacts of training, flight hours, crew mix and other unit activities (TAB R-10)
[Mission is verified to be in]alignment with the unit’s
mission essential task list, aircraft required and available, availability of required special mission equipment, trained aircrew availability, other training and mission impacts, tactical and threat considerations
[It is an] assessment of the unit’s capability to accomplish the mission (AR 95-23 2-12) |
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Term
| What happens during Mission planning and Briefing stage? |
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Definition
| Detailed planning and risk mitigation with the Briefing officer/NCO and MC (TAB R-10) |
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Term
| What happens during the final mission approval stage? |
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Definition
| Final Risk approval authority authorizes the mission (TAB R-10) |
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Term
| How long will the risk assessment worksheet be retained? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the Risk Management Process according to the battalion SOP |
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Definition
Risk identification
Risk analysis
Risk countermeasures
Risk reduction implementation
Risk controls
(BN. SOP R-11) |
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Term
| Who has the overall responsibility for the Briefing Officer program? |
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Definition
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Term
| Briefing Officers/NCO's and risk approval authorities will be designatged by whom? |
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Definition
In writing by the Battalion Commander
(Per BN Stands SOP)
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Term
| Is self briefing authorized? |
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Definition
| No, unless approved by the Battalion Commander |
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Term
| How often will CM's complete ACT-E training? |
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Definition
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Term
| A No-notice may consist of what? |
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Definition
| Hands-On, Oral, Written Exam, or any combination of the three |
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Term
| How often will a CM receive a "No- Notice" eval? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is responsible for the development and implementation of the no notice program? |
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Definition
ATP commander
(BN SOP R-28) |
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Term
| Who has the overall responsibility for the No Notice Program? |
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Definition
BN commander
(BN SOP R-28) |
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Term
| Monthly read files will be read by the ____ day of each month? |
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Definition
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Term
| AIRF cards will turn red when: |
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Definition
A) 1st of the month for IA/SL and monthly read
B) Quarterly read
C) New TFN/ASAM/AMAM
D) New Items added to AIRF
(B CO Stans. sop) |
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Term
| What will the quarterly read file consist of? |
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Definition
1) Flight operations policy memos
2) Standardization/Safety Minutes
3) SOP's
4) Publications |
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Term
| Who will ensure all scheduled crewmembers for the mission are in compliance with the AIRF Flip card System prior to flight ops? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who does Fighter management apply to? |
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Definition
| All personnel required to perform duties that are essential to the flight operations of the UAS (operators, crew chiefs) As well as all personnel that perform duties on the UAS that are essential to specific phases of the maintenance mission (mechs, techs) (TAB R-37) |
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Term
| The off-duty personal time, which precedes or follows a duty period is considered what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the allowable interruption during a rest period? |
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Definition
| One or two temporary interruptions in a rest period not exceeding 10 minutes are permitted. |
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Term
| Who may authorize a 12 - 14 HR duty period during Garrison flight trainnig? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who may authorize a 14-16 HR duty period during Garrison flight training? |
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Definition
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Term
| who may authorize greater than a 16 hr day during garrison flight training? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who may authorize a 12 HR duty day? |
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Definition
None needed, Normal duty day
(TAB R-39) |
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Term
| For changes in duty cycle greater than six hours earlier or later than time duty starts on the current day, individuals will be given a ___ hour rest period. |
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Definition
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Term
| For changes in duty cycle requiring crew members to be present for duty less than six hours later than duty time starts individuals will be given __ hour rest period |
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Definition
0 hrs. No adjustment period unless adverse effects of adjustment then a 12 hr rest period will be provided.
(TAB R-40) |
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Term
| For Changes in duty cycle requiring crewmembers to be present for duty greater than four hours earlier than the time duty starts on the current day, individuals will be given __ hour rest period. |
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Definition
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Term
| According to the SOP, CM will be restricted for __ hour(s) after unprotected exposure to riot control agents and until there are no residual systemic effects. |
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Definition
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Term
| Who can waive reverse cycle restrictions? |
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Definition
First O-5 aviation commander or above in the individuals chain of command (with flight surgeon recommendation)
(BN SOP R-41) |
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Term
| A 14 day limit is reset with __ hour rest period. A 30 day limit is reset with a __ hour rest period. |
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Definition
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Term
| Personnel performing 24-hour duty that does not provide a rest period minimum of 8 consecutive hours will receive a minimum ___ hour rest period prior to performing aviation related duties. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum flight time allowed in:
A) 24 hour period
B) 14 day period
C) 30 day garrison/tactical period |
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Definition
A) 8 hrs
B) 74 hrs
C) 90 hrs / 140 hrs tactical
(TAB R-40) |
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Term
| Aircrew members should be restricted from flight duties when they have taken part in strenuous activities ___ hr(s) prior to performing flight duties. |
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Definition
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Term
| CM's must demonstrate proficiency in each base task ____ _____ in order to progress to RL 2 |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the four 2000 series task for B Co ATP? |
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Definition
2000- Cold Weather
2005- Desert and Hot Weather
2010- Turbulence and Thunderstorm Ops
2015- Mountain Ops |
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Term
| MOI training and evaluation will not exceed how long? |
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Definition
| 30 Calendar days unless authorized by the ATP Commander/GFR |
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Term
| What are the sim MOI minimums? |
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Definition
| At minimum crewmembers must observe and instruct three solo flights and three crew flights under the guidance of an SO. |
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Term
| What are the simulation refresher MOI minimums? |
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Definition
| Instruct 2 flights, any combination |
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Term
| Total simulation MOI flight will not exceed how many iterations? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the flight line MOI minimums? |
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Definition
| Observe and instruct one AO, PO and L&R |
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Term
| What are the flightline MOI maximums? |
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Definition
| 5 AO iterations, 5 PO iterations and 5 L/R. |
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Term
| Per Company SOP, Instructors will check the students _______ prior to flight to ensure currency. |
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Definition
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Term
| All newly assigned, attached or visiting UAC's will complete local area orientation requirements prior to being progressed to ___? |
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Definition
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Term
| Per the B co Standardization SOP, What are the prerequisites for RL 1? |
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Definition
1) completion of mission training or placed in RL 1 based on commander's evaluation
2) Completion of all elements of APART within past 12 months
3)completed LAO
4) ACT/ACT-E qualified |
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Term
| What are the criteria for AC selection? |
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Definition
Aviation experience, maturity, judgement, mission situational awareness, and ability to effectively mitigate risk
(Standardization SOP pg 9) |
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Term
| What are the requirements of AC training? |
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Definition
Observe one flight
pass oral evaluation by IO
pass open book test with a minimum of 80%
Flight evaluation by IO or SO
(BN. SOP R 13) |
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Term
| Personnel must be qualified in the platform in which MC duties will be performed and should have at least ___ experience in B Co ops. |
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Definition
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Term
| The MC selection committee will consist of whom as a minimum? |
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Definition
| Available MCs, SOs, Flight operations officer/NCO and Company commander |
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Term
| MC training will not exceed how many days? |
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Definition
| 30 unless authorized by the company Commander (TAB R-22) |
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Term
| How often must an MC receive a written exam? |
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Definition
| Semi-annual and receive an 80% |
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Term
| What are the spotter requirements during hunter operations. |
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Definition
A spotter will be present at the shadow launch site anytime there are personnel working on the north side of the runway.
(TAB R-10) |
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Term
| What is the minimum safe altitude for stryker ops? |
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Definition
| 500 ft unless directed otherwise by the MC |
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Term
| Stryker UA's will depart/enter A&E at minimum of ____? |
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Definition
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Term
| Shadow local is defined as: |
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Definition
Operations in ares A and E up to 8,000 ft msl
(B CO SOP R-12) |
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Term
| what is the minimum altitude for flights into east range? |
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Definition
10,000 FT MSL as required for transition from West to East Range
B Co SOP |
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Term
| What is the minimum altitude for flights into west range? |
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Definition
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Term
| Flights between ____ and ___ should maintain an altitude of at least 10,000 FT MSL in East or West Range. |
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Definition
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Term
| Transition between East and West Range will be done at 10,000 FT MLS utilizing the ___ ____ or as directed by ATC. |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is responsible for monitoring the AV during a changeover? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is responsible for ensuring mission overlays are loaded and displayed in (p)gcs during flight operations? |
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Definition
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Term
| Prior to commanding UA to A&E, the AO MUST ensure points nav radius default of ____ is loaded. |
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Definition
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Term
| How is a planned tals abort requested from ATC. |
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Definition
TALS ___ approach with option
B Co SOP |
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Term
| How are Fire points marked in accordance with the SOP? |
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Definition
| Red runway lights or chem-lights.
B Co SOP |
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Term
| At a minimum, how many modes of communication must a CM have with ATC. |
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Definition
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Term
| Staff journal logs will be kept for ___? |
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Definition
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Term
| What DD form can be used in lieu of the weather flimsy? |
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Definition
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Term
| When performing weekly inspections on the gear, slack will be pulled out every ____? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the requirements for the MC to launch an aircraft without the gear being fully emplaced while Hunter is in the hold position? |
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Definition
the energy absorbers must be torqued, 13-1 completed and a minimum of two gear personnel in position
B Co SOP |
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Term
| Who will verify that all backup stations are properly configured prior to launch/recovery operations? |
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Definition
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Term
| Per the SOP, the AV PMD will expire on the seventh day at midnight from completion, providing the aircraft has not been flown or ______. |
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Definition
Disassembled
(B. CO SOP R-8) |
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Term
| Per the B Co. SOP, what does the placement of the a PID onto the AV logbook 2408-12 signify? |
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Definition
The AV logbook has been reviewed and the AV is ready for flight
(B. CO SOP R-8) |
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Term
| Who maintains an updated list of known HIRTA sites for the local flying area? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are some examples of suspected HIRTA/EMI? |
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Definition
Un-commanded control movements
Unexplained departure from normal controlled flight
Unexplained illumination of caution, warning, or advisory lights with or without degradation or loss of the system
(HIRTA/EMI AAAR's are classified confidential)
(TAB R-52) |
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Term
| What are VFR weather requirements for both Hunter and Shadow? |
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Definition
Class E VFR weather minimums will be maintained for flights within the R-2303 restricted airspace based on mission altitudes.
(BAT SOP R-53) |
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Term
| Flight ops will end as soon as possible when any weather ___ has been issues from LAAF. |
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Definition
Warning (not advisory)
B Co SOP |
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Term
| All UAS flight ops will be suspended ASAP when lightning activity is within ____ of ops. |
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Definition
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Term
| All outdoor training ops will begin preparations for suspending ops when lighting is within ___ of L&R site. |
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Definition
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Term
| All ground ops will cease when lighting is within ___ of the L&R site. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the proceedure if the AC cannot get a shadow out of IMC conditions. |
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Definition
Command to N or S hold at mission altitude with approval and descend to 6000' MSL.
Proceed with TALS recovery |
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Term
| What wind speeds constitute normal wind conditions? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the procedures when winds are in high conditions?(>/= 35kts but <40 kts) |
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Definition
1) ground ops to include emp/disp will be terminated as soon as feasible
2) Ensure aircraft are secured in hanger
3) shadow dishes and antennas secured if safety permits
4) MC will notify EMP/DISP and continue to evaluate the threat.
(B CO SOP) |
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Term
| What are the procedures when winds are severe? (Winds >/= 40kts) |
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Definition
1) All ground ops will cease and all equipment wil be secured
2) GCS sim flt training will terminate
3) evaluate threat, once severe conditions have passed the govt lead will inspect areas for damage
(B CO SOP) |
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Term
| What is the procedure in the event of shore power loss on Rugge with the 10KW generator backup ? |
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Definition
| Perform GCS electrical power fail emergency procedure. 10K TQG PMCS will be verified. All shelters will verify RH coords before putting their UA into RH (primary off, secondary recv only). ACs will verify AV is following RH logic. Shelter with power will land avs in order. |
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Term
| When will a TAB A be initiated? |
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Definition
initiated by the MC as soon as possible after a safety or maintenance related issue that causes a change to the scheduled mission aircraft, a delay or cancellation of a mission, an anomaly, or an in-flight emergency.
(B co. SOP TAB R-20) |
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Term
| In accordance with the Bravo Company PAP, during the accident phase, what are the responsibilities of the operator? |
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Definition
Imm notify MC
Notify ATC
Monitor ACFT position and last known heading
Report final position/heading to MC
Prepare statement of events |
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Term
| Who is delegated with the assembly of the DART? |
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Definition
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Term
| What class of accident will personnel report to the Medical Center for urine and blood testing and who will provide transportation? |
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Definition
| MADATORY FOR ALL Class A-C, D and E at the discretion of the commander.
Company 1SG or escort |
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Term
| Only designated mission essential personnel will approach within ____ of an AV that has been inspected for flight ops? |
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Definition
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Term
| How often will Crash Drills be conducted? |
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Definition
| Monthly, both on day and night shifts |
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Term
| What consequences will result from the use of equipment identified as unserviceable or unready? |
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Definition
Military/DAC cms will be designated RL3. Contractor personnel will be referred to the GFR for retraining.
(B. CO SOP) |
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Term
| Unsecured headgear is not authorized within ____ feet of Hubbard, Rugge and Pioneer runways? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the primary purpose of the debriefing? |
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Definition
to discuss and identify problem areas or situations encountered during the mission.
(B co. SOP TAB R-15) |
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Term
| What is the definition of a map? |
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Definition
| Graphic representation of a portion of the earth's surface drawn to scale, as seen from above |
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Term
| What does MGRS stand for? |
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Definition
Military Grid Refference system
(FM 3-25.26 4-12) |
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Term
| MGRS grids consist of three parts, what are they? |
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Definition
Grid zone designation, 100,000 meter square, and grid coordinants
(FM 3-25.26 4-12) |
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Term
| Identify the components of the following MGRS grid: 12RWV5200099450 |
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Definition
12R is the Grid zone designation
WV is the 100,000m grid
5200099450 is the grid coords.
(FM 3-25.26 4-12) |
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Term
| How many grid zones is the world divided into? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the average height and width of the grid zone designators? |
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Definition
6 degrees wide, 8 degrees high.
(FM 3-25.26 4-13) |
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Term
| What are the major terrain features? |
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Definition
| Hill, Valley, Saddle, Ridge, Depression |
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Term
| What are the minor terrain features? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the supplementary features? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 7 colors used on a military map? |
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Definition
Black, Red-Brown, Blue, Green, Brown, Red and Other
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color "Black" indicate on a map? |
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Definition
Black indicates cultural (man-made) features such as buildings and roads,
surveyed spot elevations, and all labels
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color " Red-Brown" indicate on a map? |
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Definition
The colors red and brown are combined to identify cultural features, all
relief features, nonsurveyed spot elevations, and elevation such as contour lines on red-light
readable maps.
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color 'Brown' indicate on maps? |
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Definition
Brown identifies all relief features and elevation such as contours on older
edition maps and cultivated land on red-light readable maps.
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color "Blue" indicate on a map? |
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Definition
Identifies hydrography or water features
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color " Green" indicate on a map? |
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Definition
Vegetation with military significance
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| What does the color "Red" indicate on map? |
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Definition
Cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries on older maps
(FM 3-25.26 3-6) |
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Term
| How accurate does a 4-6-8 digit grid give you? |
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Definition
4- w/in 1,000 meters
6- w/in 100 meters
8- w/in 10 meters
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Term
| What level of accuracy does a 10 digit MGRS grid give you? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is a 'base line' on a map? |
|
Definition
a starting point or 'zero' and a point of refference
(FM 3-25.26 6-1) |
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Term
| What are the 3 types of 'base lines' |
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Definition
| True north, Magnetic north and Grid north |
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Term
| What are the three types of contour lines? |
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Definition
Index
Intermediate
Supplementary |
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Term
|
Definition
A line from any point on the earth's surface to the north pole. All lines of longitude are true north lines.
(FM 3-25.26 6-1) |
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Term
|
Definition
The direction to the north magnetic pole, as indicated by the north-seeking needle of a magnetic instrument.
(FM 3-25.26 6-2) |
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Term
|
Definition
The north that is established by using the vertical grid lines on the map.
(FM 3-25.26 6-2) |
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|
Term
| What are the three types of deserts? |
|
Definition
Mountain
Rocky Plateau
Sandy or Dune Deserts |
|
|
Term
| What are the five different types of terrain? |
|
Definition
Desert
Mountain
Jungle
Arctic
Urban Areas |
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|
Term
| What series of forms will be used for weight and balance for determining proper UA weight? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What weight class is Shadow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often must the weight and balance records be checked for accuracy? |
|
Definition
at lease every 90 days
95-23, 7-6 |
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|
Term
| All weight and balance records shall, as a minimum, be reviewed every _____? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Each class 1b UA shall be weighed when? |
|
Definition
(1) Overhaul or major airframe repairs have been accomplished.
(2) Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UA’s basic weight have been applied.
(3) Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed.
(4) Weight and center-of-gravity data records are suspected to be in error.
(5) The period since the previous weighing reaches 36 months for a Class 1b UA and 24 months for a Class 2 UA.
95-23, 7-7 |
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|
Term
| What is the maximum allowable gross takeoff weight (GTOW) of a shadow at or below 9000 FT DA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the max allowable gross takeoff weight (GTOW) of a shadow between 9,000 - 10,500 ft DA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the max av weight of the IE shadow up to 10,500 ft DA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form provides a record of flight operations and some maintenance/service info? |
|
Definition
| DA Form 2408-12, Army Aviators Flight Record |
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|
Term
| What form provides a records of aircraft and aviation associated equipment condition status and other acft maintenance info? |
|
Definition
| DA Form 2408-13, Aircraft Satus Info Record |
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|
Term
| A flight or series of flights, that take off before 2400 hours and lands after 2400 hours is credited to which day, takeoff or landing date? |
|
Definition
| The hours are credited to the date of takeoff |
|
|
Term
| Which form provides a place to record aircraft and aviation associated equipment for operational remarks, checks, faults, manhours, condition status symbols? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form provides a ready reference list of all periodic/recurring inspections, services, checks, and replacements? |
|
Definition
| DA Form 2408-18, Equipment Inspection List |
|
|
Term
| What are the four principles of Crew Coordination? |
|
Definition
Communicate effectively and timely
Sustain a climate of ready and prompt assistance
Effectively manage, coordinate, priortize planned actions, unexpected events, and workload distribution
Provide situational aircraft control, obstacle avoidance, and mission advisories |
|
|
Term
| What are the four objectives in Crew Coordination? |
|
Definition
Establish and maintain team relationships
Establish and maintain efficient workloads
Exchange mission information
Cross-monitor performance |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic qualities of Crew Coordination? |
|
Definition
-Announce and Acknowledge Decisions and Actions
-Ensure that statements and directives are clear, timely, relevant, complete, and verified
-Be explicit
-Direct Assistance
-Prioritize Actions & Equitably Distribute Workload
-Situational Awareness
-Mission Changes and Updates
-Offer Assistance |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above,
500 ft below
2,000ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class E below 10,000 MSL VFR minimums |
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class E above 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimums |
|
Definition
5 SM
1,000 ft above
1,000 ft below
1 SM horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class G 1,200 ft or less VFR minimum |
|
Definition
Day: 1SM, clear clouds
Night: 3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class G more than 1,200 ft but less than 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimum |
|
Definition
Day: 1 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal
Night: 3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class G more than 1,200 above surface and above 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimum |
|
Definition
5 SM
1,000 ft above
1,000 ft below
1 SM horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Contains high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity.
(AIM 3-4-6) |
|
|
Term
| Define Controlled Firing Area |
|
Definition
CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature
of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout positions
indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area.
(AIM 3-4-7) |
|
|
Term
| Define Military Operations Area (MOA) |
|
Definition
MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
(AIM 3-4-5) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Area on the surface of the
earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.
(AIM 3-4-2) |
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Term
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Definition
area on the surface of the earth within which the
flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible,
hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted
areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.
(AIM 3-4-3) |
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Term
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Definition
| Extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast |
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Term
| When operating in noise sensitive area (Wildlife Refuges), all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of ____ feet about the surface. |
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Definition
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Term
| According to AR 95-23, at takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserver of _____ (fixed wing) |
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Definition
VFR (day) - 30 mins at cruise
VFR (night) - 45 mins at cruise |
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Term
| Destination weather must be forcast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival through______estimated time of arrival |
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Definition
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