B+, or supply voltages in electronics products, are considered to be:

A) +5 to +12 VDC 

B) 0 to 30 VDC      

C) +12 to 300 VDC

D) the anode or plate voltage supply

C) +12 to 300 VDC

Leakage current in an electronic product, between either of the AC power cord conductors and the chassis or any exposed meatal parts should not exceed_____.

A) 5 microamps

B) 500 microamps

C) 5 milliamps

D) 50 milliamps

B) 500 microamps

Shaded components on electronics schematics mean:

A) only factory service personnel may change the part.

B) only exact replacement parts may be used.

C) the shading marks for better readability.

D) high voltage is present on these parts. 

B) only exact replacement parts may be used. 

Ingested solder fumes or particles___.

A) are not harmful to the human body

B) are toxic

C) from lead-tin solder aren't harmful

D) from tin-alloys are most harmful

B) are toxic

Second Degree skin burns should____.

A) not be treated with ice and bandage pack.

B) be covered with thick bandages.

C) be treated with cold water of ice.

D) be treated by draining blisters

A) not be treated with ice and bandage pack.

Rules describing the fire or toxicity retardant types of cabling which may be installed in buildings is contained in_

A) NEC Article 770

B) UL 568B

C) TIA/EIA standard 578

D) NEMA code 1316

A) NEC Article 770

ESD and static discharge is most destructive to ___

A) CMOS semiconductors

B) TTL semiconductors

C) Germanium PN junctions

D) Silicon PN junctions

A) CMOS semiconductors

If you have never received formal training and practiced CPR on a person or dummy, in the event of finding a fellow worker not breathing, you ___

A) should use what knowledge you do have of the procedure and attempt it

B) should not attempt it, but call for help

C) should attempt it after calling for help

D) should, if handy, read the instructions and attempt it in order to save the life.

B) should not attempt it, but call for help

When working at heights above 6 feet, a ____ is required by OSHA rules.

A) lineman's belt

B) lineman's belt attached to a lanyard

C) full body harness attached to a lanyard which prevents more than a 6' drop

D) good insurance policy

C) full body harness attached to a lanyard which prevents more than a 6' drop

Residual voltage is associated with ___.

A) Northern Lights

B) corona arcing from electrical generators

C) charge retained by inductors

D) charge retained by capacitors

D) charge retained by capacitors

The atomic number of an element is the same as the element's atomic weight.

A) True

B) False

B) False

When did the CET certification program begin?

A) 1965

B) 1976

C) 1986

D) 1996

A) 1965

When did ETA initiate Certification Maintenance?

A) 1966

B) 1976

C) 1986

C) 1996

C) 1996

All ETA Certification categories require the passage of the Associate CET Examination.

A) True

B) False

B) False

To qualify for MASTER CET, the examinee must attain a score of 85% on each separate exam. 

A) True

B) False

B) False

An Associate CET cannot attempt one of the specialty examinations.

A) True

B) False

B) False

Master CET status is lifetime and does not require certification maintenance.

A) True

B) False 

A) True

The Journeyman level:

A) denotes competency in one specialized area

B) requires 75% passing

C) requires 2 years of work or school

D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Certification maintenance requires payment of a fee and retesting or proving at least 40 hours of upgrade retraining within a four year period.

A) True

B) False

A) True

A worker may become certified by ETA as a CST (computer service technician), without also becoming certified as a CET (certified electronics technician)

A) True

B) False

A) True

The Associate CET exam may be taken after the Journeyman exam.

A) True

B) False

B False

An increase in voltage with resistance held constant causes current to ___.

A) decrease

B) increase twice to value of voltage

C) increase

D) none the above

C) increase

The ampere, expresses___

A) volts/sec increase

B) a unit of charge movement per second past a given point

C) coulombs/charge

D) an increase in resistance

B) a unit of charge movement per second past a given point

The total resistance of a parallel circuit containing equal branch resistance is found by the following:

A) by adding all of the branch resistance values

B) by taking the product of all the branch resistance

C) by dividing the resistance value of a branch by the number of branches.

D) the value cannot be found

C) by dividing the resistance value of a branch by the number of branches.

An open is found in the series connected load of the transistor amplifier circuit as shown. If a volt meter were connected from the open, what will be the the reading?

A) 0 Volts B) -12 vdc C) Half of + Vcc D) None of the above

[image]

 B) -12 volts

What is the voltage drop across the 2000 ohm resistor as shown in the amplifier?

A) 3.3 vdc B) 8.0 vdc C) 9.0 vdc D) none of the above

[image]

B) 8.0 vdc

R1 + R2 = RT      4K + 2K = 6K

VD/RT=I   12v/6K = .002

I X R1 = voltage drop at R2  .002 X 4K = 8 vdc

If there is NO open in the circuit, what is the voltage across the 3000 ohm emitter resistor as shown below?

A) 5.1 vdc B) 6.0 vdc C) 8.0 Vdc D) none of the above

[image]

D) none of the above

A 12 vdc power supply has a 15 ohm internal resistance. What load resistance can be connected to transfer maximum power?

A) 15 ohms

B) 20 ohms

C) 10 ohms

D) 5 ohms

A) 15 ohms

Load resistance equals internal resistance. 

Maximum power transfer occurs when the load impedance is equal to the source impedance.

A) True

B) False

A) True

What is the current through the resistor in the schematic below?

12 V source and an 6 ohm resistor

A) .2 amps

B) 2 amps

C) 5 amps

D) 50 amps

B) 2 amps

V/R=I

12/6=2

What will happen to the current through a resistor if the resistor value increases?

A) Current increases

B) Current remains unchanged

C) Current decreases

D) Current and the voltage across the resistor increases

B) Current decreases

In the Circuit below, what is the power dissipated in the resistor?

12 V source and an 6 ohm resistor

A) 6 watts

B) 12 watts

C) 2 watts

D) 24 watts

D) 24 watts

V^2/R=W

24^2/6=24

Which type of circuit has the same voltage drop across each component?

A) Parallel

B) Series-Parallel

C) Series

D) Combination

A) Parallel

Total power in a series circuit is determined by the:

A) source voltage time the current

B) total voltage applied to the circuit

C) current flowing through the switch

D) average wattage rating of each resistor

A) source voltage time the current

W=V x I

Which is the equivalent to 100 microamps?

A) .1 milliamps

B) 1 milliamps

C) 10 milliamps

D) 10 nanoamps

A) .1 milliamps

If the current drain from the battery is 4 mA, what resistance is the rheostat in the drawing below? 

A) 1.0K ohm B) 2.5K ohm C) 5.0K ohm D) 10K ohm

[image]

B) 2.5K ohm

1/((1/R2) + (1/R3))=I total

Idrain/Itotalx100=percent

R1xpercent=R1 usage

1/((1/5K)+(1/5K))=1.6 A

4 mA/1.6A x 100 = .25

10Kx.25=2.5K

In the circuit below, how much current is flowing in R2?

A) 1 amp B) 2 amp C) 10 amp D) 100 amp

[image]

A) 1 amp

Vs/R1=I at R2

20/10=1

A resistor__

A) stores an electrical charge

B) is measured in coulombs

C) in a circuit causes a voltage drop from one end of the resistor to the other end

D)is dependent on lines of force

C) in a circuit causes a voltage drop from one end of the resistor to the other end

1K ohm is the same as ___

A) 1 thousand ohms

B) 1 thousandth of an ohm

C) 10^-2 ohms

D) 10000 ohms

A) 1 thousand ohms

A resistor has color bands orange, red, brown. It is ____.

A) 232 ohms

B) 3.2 mega ohms

C) 2.3 ohms

D) 320 ohms

D) 320 ohms

A circuit has one 500 ohm resistor in series with three 500 ohm resistors that are connected in parallel with each other. The total resistance would be ___.

A) 666 ohms

B) 167.7 ohms

C) 750 ohms

D) 1000 ohms

A) 666 ohms

R1 + (1/((1/R2)+(1/R3)+(1/R4)))=Rt

500 + (1/((1/500)+(1/500)+(1/500)))=666

The voltage rating of a capacitor ____.

A) must be factored into the reactance formula

B) relates to the maximum voltage that should be applied to it.

C) indicates the maximum current the capacitor can allow

D) is the same as the power factor

B) relates to the maximum voltage that should be applied to it.

Calculating the total capacitance of several capacitors connected in parallel___.

A) is not necessary as they are not used this way

B) causes a need to consider inductance factors.

C) is done by adding each of the capacitance values.

D) is the same as the power factor

C) is done by adding each of the capacitance values.

Ferrite ___

A) is a capacitor dielectric

B) is a common inductor core material

C) is the most common resistor coating

D) causes faulty saturation of inductors

B) is a common inductor core material

The term Henry refers to ____

A) the inductive property of a coil

B) the inventor of inductors

C) reactance of LR circuits 

D) resonant frequency of tank circuits

A) the inductive property of a coil

A certain transformer has 250 turns in the primary winding and 1250 turns in the secondary winding. The turns ratio is___

A) .2

B) 2.5

C) 5

D) .5

A) .2

Primary/Secondary=ratio

250/1250=.2

When the turns ratio of a transformer is 10 and the primary AC voltage is 8V, the secondary voltage is ___.

A) 80 volts

B) 0.8 volts

C) 8 volts

D) 64 volts

B) 0.8 volts

Primary/ratio=voltage

8/10=.8V

Which of these color code patterns is found on a 270 ohms 5% resistor?

A) Red, violet, brown, silver

B) Red, violet, brown, gold

C) Red, violet, black, silver

D) Red, brown, black, silver

B) Red, violet, brown, gold

One microfarad is equivalent to _____ picofarads.

A) 10

B) 1000

C) 100,000

D) 1,000,000

D) 1,000,000

The capacitance of a capacitor with 10 microC of electric charge and 100V across its plates is ___.

A) 0.1 microF

B) 10 microF

C) 1000 microF

D) 107 microF

A) 0.1 microF

Q/V=C

10 microF/100V=.1 microF

Total impedance in a series circuit is found by:

A) adding up all the series resistance and reactance values

B) subtracting all the inductive reactance from all the capacitive reactance and adding the resistor's values

C) finding the net reactance and the net resistance, square each separately, add them together and then find the square root of the sum.

D) divide the applied voltage by the addition of all the circuit components individual currents

C) finding the net reactance and the net resistance, square each separately, add them together and then find the square root of the sum.

Z=√R2 + (XL - XC)^2

In a series AC circuit with a resistor, inductor and capacitor, each with the same resistance or reactance, a voltmeter measuring each individual voltage drop would find:

A) the voltages equal to each other

B) the reactance voltage of the capacitor or the inductor would be greater than the resistance voltage measurement

C) the resistance voltage would be higher than the voltage across the inductor or the capacitor

D) the supply voltage would be across the capacitor and across the inductor would measure 0V

A) the voltages equal to each other

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a series circuit?

A) Circuit components have a division of the supply voltage.

B) All components share one current

C) Energy is shared by reactive devices

D) There is a different level of current in the reactive components than in the resistive components. 

D) There is a different level of current in the reactive components than in the resistive components.

In an AC circuit, as the applied voltage frequency changes upward, the inductive reactance in the circuit will:

A) decrease

B) increase

C) stay the same

D) either increase or decrease

B) increase

In an AC circuit, as the applied voltage frequency increases the capacitive reactance in the circuit will:

A) decrease

B) increase

C) stay the same

D) either increase or decrease

B) increase

A 50KHz AC voltage is applied to a 10mH inductor, its reactance at this frequency is:

A) 3140 ohms

B) 300 ohms

C) 3100 ohms

D) 500 ohms

A) 3140 ohms

X_L=2πFL

X_L=2 x π x 50KHz x 10mH

A .1μF capacitor in a circuit with a frequency of 100 KHz applied has a reactance of:

A) 1.59 ohms

B) 15.9 ohms

C) 159 ohms

D) 15.9K ohms

B) 15.9 ohms

XC=1/2πFC

XC=1/2 x π x 100KHz x .1μF

In a series circuit when the inductive reactance is equal to the capacitor reactance the circuit has ____ impedance. 

A) maximum

B) double the inductors

C) minimum

D) no

C) minimum

In a parallel circuit when the inductive reactance is equal the capacitor reactance the circuit has ____ impedance.

A) maximum

B) double the capacitor's

C) minimum

D) no

A) maximum

Resonance is when ____.

A) all resistances in an AC circuit are equal to each other

B) all reactance are equal on each reactive component

C) the total of the inductive reactance in the circuit equal the total of all capacitive reactance

D) no current is flowing through an AC circuit when a voltage is applied

C) the total of the inductive reactance in the circuit equal the total of all capacitive reactance

____ cells are prone to battery memory.

A) Zinc

B) NiCad

C) Alkaline

D) Lithium

B) NiCad

A conducting loop in motion through magnetic lines of flux has a current induced in it. The physical law that explains this is what?

A) Lenz's Law

B) The law of inertia

C) The Compton shift equation

D) Kirchoff's current law

A) Lenz's Law

An AC generator is also known as a ____.

A) regulator

B) alternator

C) phasor

D) slip ring

B) alternator

Three-phase power is obtained from an AC generator by wiring the armature windings in a ___ or ___ configuration.

A) alpha, beta

B) treble, tri-phase

C) polymorph, one-to-three

D) delta, wye

D) delta, wye

What element of a DC generator distinguishes it from an AC generator?

A) Slip rings

B) Commutator

C) Series wound field coil

D) Armature

B) Commutator

What type of motor will speed dangerously out of control if not physically loaded?

A) Induction motor

B) Shunt wound DC motor

C) Series wound DC motor

D) Series wound AC motor

C) Series wound DC motor

AC motor speed depends on ____.

A) the frequency of the voltage applied to it

B) the voltage level applied to it

C) the phase of the voltage applied to it

D) the power left in the dilithium crystals

A) the frequency of the voltage applied to it

Series wound AC motors have strong torque from a dead stop. This makes then ideally suited for use in small appliances.

A) True

B) False

A) True

What element of a synchronous AC motor provides startup torque for the motor?

A) Slip rings

B) Salient poles

C) Squirrel cage

D) Armature 

C) Squirrel cage

An AC induction motor requires what to operate?

A) Input power

B) Slip rings

C) Slip

D) Rotor battery

C) Slip

What happens to the value of a capacitor if the spacing between plates decreases?

A) Increases

B) Remains the same

C) Decreases

D) Varies

A) Increases

Which waveform below is a sine wave?

A) A , B) B,  C) C,  D) D

[image]

The peak to peak voltage of the below waveform is:

A) 7V B) 14V C) 4.95 D) .707

[image]

The circuit below will require how many RC time constants to charge the capacitor to 63% of the applied voltage?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 63 D) 100

[image]

A) 1

A variable capacitor's plates can open or close. As the plates open, capacitance:

A) remains the same

B) capacitors aren't made this way

C) decreases

D) increases

C) decreases

An inductor with the same length of wire but whose turns are spaced further apart will have:

A) less inductance

B) more inductance

C) equal inductance

D) more mutual inductance 

A) less inductance

What frequency will the parallel LC circuit below be resonant to?

A) 100 MHz, B) 159 Hz, C) 6.28 MHz, D) 1590 KHz

[image]

B) 159 Hz

f = 1 / (2π √L C)

Which formula is used to calculate reactance in the following schematic?

A) X_C=1/2πFC B) X_C=2πFC C) X_C=R²+L²+C² D) X_C=2πLFC

[image]

A) X_C=1/2πFC

An inductor with the same length of wire but whose turns are spaced further apart will have:

A) less inductance
B) more inductance
C) equal inductance
D) more mutual inductance

A) less inductance

The term for the combination of resistance and reactance that restricts the flow of alternating current is:

A) Volt-amperes
B) Impedance
C) Susceptance
D) Power factor

B) Impedance

Is the value of a 500 picofarad capacitor and a .5 nanofarad capacitor identical?

A) Yes
B) No

A) Yes

In a generator, a DC voltage applied to the field windings controls the output level.

A) True
B) False

A) True

Which of these is within tolerance for a resistor color coded red, black, red, gold.

A) 1850 ohms
B) 2150 ohms
C) 1950 ohms
D) 2250 ohms

C) 1950 ohms

Which one of the below is a common description of the filter shown below?

A) bandpass, B) low pass L, C) low pass T, D) high pass T

[image]

C) low pass T

What is the combined reactance of the two capacitors in series in the drawing below?

A) approx. 1,198 ohms, B) approx. 265 ohms

C) approx. 24 ohms, D) approx. .00377 ohms

[image]

A) approx. 1,198

CT=1/((1/C1)+(1/C2))

1.333μF=1/((1/2μF)+(1/4μF)

X_C=1/2πFC

X_C=1/ 2 x π x 100 x 1.333μF

X_C=1,194

Which one of the below will cause a generator to produce DC voltage rather than AC voltage?

A) brushes
B) armature
C) commutator
D) field windings

C) commutator

Total capacitance of capacitors connected in parallel is like:

A) resistors connected in series
B) capacitors connected in series
C) resistors connected in parallel
D) inductors connected in parallel

A) resistors connected in series

Which factor determines the value of a capacitor?

A) area of plates
B) temp coefficient of the dielectric
C) inductors of dielectric
D) insulation covering

A) area of plates

a 3/8 - inch diameter by 3/16 - inch ceramic disk capacitor marked ' 47 ' is most likely what value:

A) 47 nf
B) 47 uf
C) 47 pf
D) 47 mf

C) 47 pf

What happens to current flow in a capacitor when the DC voltage across it has increased to the applied voltage?

A) current flow is max in capacitor
B) little current flows
C) polarity reverses
D) voltage drop is max

B) little current flows

A) increase

B) "PI" filter

The sine wave shown below is at what frequency?

A) 500 KHz, B) 50KHz, C) 5 KHz, D) 500 Hz

[image]

D) 500 Hz

F=1/T

F=1/2mS

F=500 Hz

A high current MOV device would most likely be found:

A) in a surge suppressor
B) as the radiator in microwave oven
C) in DC power supply
D) as oscillator in receiver

A) in a surge suppressor

Which of these would most likely be used as a signal amplifier?

A) triode
B) magnetron
C) triac
D) DAC

A) triode

A capacitor and a resistor in series would be used to:

A) Cut off the peaks in AC signals at a set level
B) Reduce or short signals above certain frequencies
C) Pass the DC level, while blocking the AC signals
D) Filter signals from getting into an amplifier

B) Reduce or short signals above certain frequencies

The component used to control the functions of an electronic device most likely would be referred to as:

A) RAM
B) SCR
C) Microprocessor
D) Op-amp

C) Microprocessor

A capacitor would most likely be rated:

A) 5 farads
B) 4 henrys
C) 7 ohms
D) .05 microfarad

D) .05 microfarad

Which of these is most true of a PNP transistor?

A) it will avalanche when cutoff is reached
B) it conducts equally well forward and backward
C) a negative voltage will be applied to collector
D) the cathode must be heated to operate

C) a negative voltage will be applied to collector

An advantage a transistor has over vacuum tube triode is:

A) a triode cannot conduct from cathode to anode
B) a transistor does not require an anode load
C) a triode requires grid bias
D) a transistor normally has a longer life

D) a transistor normally has a longer life

The most likely use of a transformer would be:

A) to couple signals from one circuit to another
B) to filter unwanted signals
C) a regulator in power supplies
D) to protect a circuit from excessive currents

A) to couple signals from one circuit to another

which of these would apply mostly to a "balun"?

A) semiconductor
B) impedance matching device
C) integrated circuit
D) over voltage protection

B) impedance matching device

DIP refers to:

A) Double integrated protection
B) Dual ion positron
C) Discrete icon positioner
D) Dual inline package

D) Dual inline package

Diodes are marked with a band at the __________ end.

A) Cathode
B) Anode
C) Center
D) Base element

A) Cathode

In testing a diode, a forward-to-reverse ratio of 10-1 is indicative of a good diode.

A) True
B) False

B) False

To properly bias a NPN transistor which voltages appear correct for a signal amplifier?

A) E=0; B=+.7 C=+10
B) E= 1; B=5; C=+20
C) E=-1; B=-1.7; C=9.3
D E=0; B=0; C=10

A) E=0; B=+.7 C=+10

To properly bias a PNP transistor which voltages appear proper?

A) E=0; B=+1; C=+10
B) E= 1; B=5; C=+20
C) E=-1; B=-1.7; C=-10
D) E=0; B=0; C=-10

C) E=-1; B=-1.7; C=-10

In a transistor, which section is made very thin compared with the other two?

A) Emitter
B) Base
C) Collector
D) Each are exactly the same

B) Base

Which part of a transistor carries the most current?

A) emitter
B) base
C) collector
D) each are equal

A) emitter

the primary difference between a NPN and a PNP transistor is:

A) physical shape
B) DC voltages are reversed
C) one is a different element
D) the polarity of the power supply voltage

B) DC voltages are reversed

Which transistor circuit normally produces the largest voltage gain?

A) common emitter
B) common base
C) common collector
D) circuits produce current gain, not voltage gain

B) common base

Name one safety precaution taken before replacing a transistor.

A) Remove power
B) Remove transistor
C) Short emitter to base to remove discharge voltage
D) Put on rubber gloves for isolation

A) Remove power

Zener and varactor diodes are usually __________ biased.

A) Reverse, meaning the positive voltage connects to the N material
B) Reverse, meaning the negative voltage connects to the N material
C) Forward, meaning the negative voltage connects to the N material
D) Forward, meaning the positive voltage connects to the N material

A) Reverse, meaning the positive voltage connects to the N material

A BGA chip has __________.

A) Thru hole pins
B) Leads on the sides
C) Solder balls underneath
D) Both gates anodized

C) Solder balls underneath

Troubleshooting discrete circuits involves a knowledge of____.

A) circuit function
B) where product was made
C) how it failed
D) a and c

D) a and c

SMT stands for __________.

A) Slow melting temperature
B) Surface mount technology
C) Sure mounts tough
D) Standard metal thickness

B) Surface mount technology

When replacing a DIP chip, ____.

A) use an ungrounded soldering gun
B) use an ESD static grounded soldering pencil or work station
C) use the highest temp possible to get job done quickly
D) use a solder sucker and 250 W gun

B) use an ESD static grounded soldering pencil or work station

One area where technicians will still find discrete electronic components is ____.

A) RF equipment

B) mass produce games
C) high density circuit boards
D) small portable handheld devices

A) RF equipment

What basic circuit parameter makes it difficult to build integrated circuits with a high number of components to operate at super high frequencies?

A) Series resistance
B) Parallel inductance
C) High impedance
D) Shunt capacitance

D) Shunt capacitance

When troubleshooting equipment that is software controlled., ___.

A) use of a computer may be required
B) AC signals are not used
C) DC voltages are always 5 volts
D) diagnostics will be easy

A) use of a computer may be required

A category 2 type of electronics equipment could be a __________.

A) Consumer home TV
B) Heart monitor
C) Fax machine
D) FM walkman

C) Fax machine

An example of a solid state device is ____.

A) cermet resistor
B) tantalum capacitor
C) silicon diode
D) vacuum tube

C) silicon diode

A four layer PN device is classified as a __________.

A) Diode junction
B) Transistor
C) Thyristor
D) Integrated circuit

C) Thyristor

How is a fuse installed in a circuit to insure proper operation?

A) Parallel to the load
B) In series with the load
C) In any way possible
D) At the ground point

B) In series with the load

A negative temperature coefficient thermistor will:

A) increase in resistance with temp
B) decrease in resistance with temp
C) no change
D) increase in resistance with higher voltages

B) decrease in resistance with temp

A NiMH battery cell, when charged, has a terminal voltage of:

A) 2.1 Volts
B) 1.2 Volts
C) 5.0 Volts
D) 12 Volts

B) 1.2 Volts

A thermocouple has an output in the range of:

A) Millivolts
B) Microvolts
C) Volts
D) Nanovolts

A) Millivolts

Germanium diodes:

A) Have 0.3V forward voltage drop
B) Are more often used in power supply circuits
C) Are more tolerant of heat than silicon diodes
D) Have 0.7V forward voltage drop

A) Have 0.3V forward voltage drop

A MOSFET:

A) Has low input impedance
B) Is also called a bi-polar transistor
C) Amplifies input current changes
D) Has high input impedance

D) Has high input impedance

Integrated circuit packages:

A) save energy
B) reduce space requirements
C) require more cooling
D) have radiation leakage

B) reduce space requirements

A) A 

If the gate voltage level that turns on an active SCR drops below the trigger point, while anode and cathode voltages are maintained, what will occur?

A) SCR turns off
B) SCR stays on
C) SCR turns on
D) pulse is generated

B) SCR stays on

B) NPN

What is the effect on a varactor (varicap) when the reverse bias voltage is increased?

A) capacitance decreases and the tuned frequency increases
B) capacitance increases and the tuned frequency decreases
C) diode conducts more
D) signal wave becomes distorted

An electronic power supply may be designed to ___.

A) change DC to DC
B) change AC to AC
C) change frequency
D) change AC to DC
E) All of the above

E) All of the above

In the normal layout (block diagram) of a DC power supply the order of the sections would be:

A) Filter, Rectifier, Regulator
B) Rectifier, Filter, Regulator
C) Rectifier, Regulator, Filter
D) None of the above

B) Rectifier, Filter, Regulator

This section of the DC power supply changes AC into pulsating DC

A) transformer
B) rectifier
C) filter
D) regulator

B) rectifier

This section of the DC power supply would step-up or step-down the voltage.

A) Transformer
B) Rectifier
C) Filter
D) Regulator

A) Transformer

This section of the DC power supply would provide a steady DC voltage to a system.

A) Transformer
B) Rectifier
C) Filter
D) Regulator

D) Regulator

The zener diode is the most important component in this section.

A) Filter
B) Regulator
C) Both A and B

B) Regulator

A ripple frequency of twice the AC frequency is normally associated with:

A) A half-wave rectifier
B) A full wave rectifier

B) A full wave rectifier

Changing the filter capacitor from 10μF to 50μF would result in:

A) A lower ripple voltage
B) A lower ripple frequency
C) Both A and B

A) A lower ripple voltage

The ripple frequency of the output of a full wave rectifier power supply measures the same as the AC input. The section causing this problem is the __________.

A) Transformer
B) Rectifier
C) Filter
D) Regulator

B) Rectifier

The ripple voltage is higher then the specifications but the frequency is correct. The section causing this problem is the __________.

A) Transformer
B) Rectifier
C) Filter
D) Regulator

C) Filter

A new computer gave a POST disk drive error the first time it was powered up. A new disk drive was installed and the same error was displayed. The hard disk cables were replaced and still the problem persisted. The motherboard was replaced and the system finally operated properly. After a day of operation the error returned. The most likely cause of the problem is __________.

A) The power supply
B) The disk drive
C) The hard drive cables
D) The motherboard

A) The power supply

The switching power supply used in a PC takes the input from the AC line and changes it to ____.

A) a lower frequency
B) a higher frequency

B) a higher frequency

The formula [(∆Vp / ∆Vg)] | Ip constant ] is used to determine the ____.

A) transconductance of the vacuum tube
B) AC plate resistance of the vacuum tube
C) amplification factor of the vacuum tube
D) forward current ratio of the vacuum tube

C) amplification factor of the vacuum tube

A class AB amplifier will allow output current to flow for approximately __________of the input signal.

A) 180⁰
Β) 200⁰
C) 280⁰
D) 360⁰

C) 280⁰

The formula [ (µ * RL) / (RL + rD)] is used to calculate:

A) forward transfer current ration of the JFET
B) voltage gain of the JFET amp
C) amp factor of the JFET
D) transconductance of the JFET

B) voltage gain of the JFET amp

Which of the following amplifier configuration(s) would likely find being used in a linear push-pull arrangement?

A) Class A
B) Class B or AB
C) Class C
D) All of the Above

B) Class B or AB

If a 1.02 MHz signal and a 1.475 MHz signal are fed to a common-emitter transistor amp biased to operate in a non-linear manner we would expect to see which of the following frequencies in the output?

A) 455 kHz
B) 1.02 MHz
C) 1.475 MHz
D) 2.495 MHz
E) All of the Above

E) All of the Above

Choose three of the following amplifier configurations that yield the highest power gains.

A) common-grid

B) common-cathode

C) common-plate

D) common-source

E) common-gate

F) common-drain

G) common-emitter

H) common-base

I) common-collector

B) common-cathode

D) common-source

G) common-emitter

Given the following information about a common-emitter amplifier, a .01Vp-p input signal causes transistor's base current to vary from 70μA to 50μA. This causes the collector current to vary from 3.5mA to 2.5mA through our 2.2KΩ load. Determine the dynamic current gain.

A) 10

B) 20

C) 50

D) 100

C) 50

A_i = I_o/I_i or Current Gain = Output Current/Input

Which of the following terms is associated with a commercial receiver being able to reject image frequencies?

A) sensitivity
B) selectivity
C) discrimination
D) bandwidth

B) selectivity

The figure below illustrates ____.

A) a non-active de-modulator

B) an RF amplifier being used as a mixer

C) a common-emitter amp used as a limiter

D) an active detector  

[image]

 D) an active detector

Which of the following circuits can be used to recover audio from an IF in a FM receiver?

A) phase locked loop
B) class A, common-gate JFET amp
C) push-pull, class A JFET amp
D) Mixer

A) phase locked loop

D) 12.3V 

.7 drop across the transistor

13V-.7V=12.3V

D) 8.5V

.7V drop

9.2V-.7V=8.5V

D) increase the value of the resistor

[image]

B) 15.5 VDC

A) 11.7 VAC

Vin/Primary turns ratio

117VAC/10=11.7VAC

C) 1 + (RF/Ri)

If the frequency of the broadband input signal to an Op-Amp increases, then the output signal level ___.

A) increases
B) decreases
C) remain the same
D) increases frequency

B) decreases

When measuring power to a speaker, a doubling of the power represents a 6 dB increase.

A) True
B) False

B) False

D) A 1V sine wave centered about -4V

Av=-[(Rf)/(Ri)]

Av=-[2K/1K]

Av=-2

-2 x centered V

-2 x 2 = -4

D) Diode grounds are shorting

What does an acronym FCC mean?

A) Federal Committee of Communications
B) Financial Communications Commissary
C) Federal Communications Commission
D) Federal Communications Command

C) Federal Communications Commission

What is not a part of a superheterodyne radio receiver?

A) intermediate Frequency circuit
B) radio frequency circuit
C) audio frequency circuit
D) audio radiation resistance circuit

D) audio radiation resistance circuit

Which part of a superheterodyne receiver rectifies the RF carrier?

A) AF circuit
B) Detector circuit
C) Low Pass circuit
D) Modulation circuit
E) RF circuit

B) Detector circuit

How long should a 1/4 wavelength vertical antenna be that is designed for operation on 146 MHz?

A) 1.1 feet
B) 1.6 feet
C) 1.9 feet
D) 2.3 feet
E) 3.2 feet

B) 1.6 feet

1/4 wavelength (ft.)=246/Freq (MHz)

246/146MHz

What is the common impedance of radio communication and television coaxial cable, respectively?

A) 35 and 55 ohms
B) 50 and 75 ohms
C) 60 and 93 ohms
D) 77 and 98 ohms

B) 50 and 75 ohms

Which layer of the atmosphere absorbs high frequency radio waves during daylight hours?

A) D layer
B) E layer
C) F layer
D) F1 layer
E) F2 layer

A) D layer

Which style of antenna radiates in opposite directions, with a pattern resembling a figure 8?

A) omni directional
B) yagi
C) dipole
D) cubical quad
E) log-periodic

C) dipole

What frequency band is an average AM commercial broadcast radio capable of receiving?

A) 535 to 1700 kHz
B) 630 to 1810 kHz
C) 810 to 2120 kHz
D) 2.5 to 3.10 MHz
E) 3.8 to 4.2 MHz

A) 535 to 1700 kHz

Why is RF safety important?

A) To ensure maximum power output at all times
B) Always assuring variable tuning capability
C) Capability to receive distant radio stations
D) To limit human exposure to RF for health reasons
E) Maintain adequate FCC bandwidth spacing

D) To limit human exposure to RF for health reasons

What is the process of imposing intelligence on a carrier wave?

A) extrapolation
B) modulation
C) transmission
D) oscillation

B) modulation

The basic formula for wavelength is: L = wavelength, v=velocity, f= freq.

A) L = v/f
B) v = L/r
C) L = f/v
D) L = r/v

A) L = v/f

Flexible coaxial transmission lines are ideal for what frequencies?

A) MHz only
B) kHz only
C) Above GHz
D) Below GHz

D) Below GHz

Standing waves occur on a transmission line when there is a/an ___ between transmission line and the load.

A) impedance matching
B) impedance mismatch
C) resistance match
D) reactance match

B) impedance mismatch

Maximum power transfer to the load occurs when the load impedance matches that of the transmission line.

A) true
B) false

A) true

Antenna resonance is the characteristic that permits __________ radiation of the transmitted signal.

A) Minimum
B) Maximum
C) Zero
D) Omni-direction

B) Maximum

Space waves are ideal for what frequency of communications?

A) VLF
B) HF
C) Line-of-sight UHF
D) Audible frequencies

C) Line-of-sight UHF

Electromagnetic field polarization is determined by orientation of what part of the electromagnetic wave?

A) magnetic lines of force
B) electric lines of force

B) electric lines of force

The orientation of the transmitter antenna and the receiver antenna must match for ideal reception

A) true
B) false

A) true

Quarter-wave antennas must be __________ at one end for resonance at the desired frequency.

A) Shielded
B) Ungrounded
C) In free space
D) Grounded

D) Grounded

On hook DC voltage on a telephone local loop is __________.

A) +24 volts
B) -8 volts
C) -48 volts
D) +12 volts

C) -48 volts

Dial Tone is composed of these two frequencies __________.

A) 350 + 440 Hz
B) 440 + 480 Hz
C) 480 + 620 Hz
D) 440 + 620 Hz

A) 350 + 440 Hz

The DTMF tones for the number 5 on a telephone keypad is __________.

A) 770 + 1336 Hz
B) 697 + 1209 Hz
C) 941 + 1477 Hz
D) 852 + 1633 Hz

A) 770 + 1336 Hz

A trunk connects ____________.

A) Two telephone lines
B) Two central offices
C) Two conductors
D) Two area codes

B) Two central offices

The form of signaling used on telephone systems today is ____.

A) ACS
B) ISDN
C) POP
D) CCS

D) CCS

A CLEC is __________.

A) A cable TV company
B) The incumbent telephone company
C) A wireless provider
D) Either A or C

D) Either A or C

The maximum bit rate available on a T-1 transmission system is __________.

A) 56 kbps
B) 64 kbps
C) 1.544 Mbps
D) 2.4 Gbps

C) 1.544 Mbps

A call between area codes is __________.

A) Local long distance
B) Inter-LATA
C) Intra-LATA
D) Toll free

B) Inter-LATA

The device that causes the phase change between mouth and ear audio in a telephone subscriber unit is the __________.

A) Hybrid coil
B) Delay line
C) Hook switch
D) Transmitter

A) Hybrid coil

The 2nd generation digital wireless access tech that uses code patterns to separate users is :

A) AMPS
B) TDMA
C) GSM
D) CDMA

D) CDMA

Oscillators use quartz crystals that generate output by the:

A) Phase-shift effect
B) Piezoelectric effect
C) Doppler effect
D) Avalanche (or Zener) effect

B) Piezoelectric effect

Analog telephone lines have what DC voltage level across the tip and ring when off-hook?

A) 110 VDC
B) 6 VDC
C) -48 VDC
D) none

C) -48 VDC

The velocity factor in a transmission line is:

A) Equal to the termination impedance
B) Determined by the line length
C) Increased by the distributed capacitance and inductance of the line
D) Compared to free space velocity

D) Compared to free space velocity

Cables of different impedances may be combined for runs.

A) True
B) False

B) False

The bandwidth of a standard definition analog TV signal is:

A) 6 MHz
B) 16 MHz
C) 24 MHz
D) 88 MHz

A) 6 MHz

What radio receiver section determines the radio's inherent noise level?

A) RF
B) Mixer
C) IF
D) Detector

A) RF

Carbon microphones are much like variable:

A) Capacitors
B) Resistors
C) Thermistors
D) Inductors

B) Resistors

In telecommunications work, ___ is replacing twisted pair cabling.

A) microwave
B) wireless
C) fiber optics
D) both b and c

D) both b and c

A length of coaxial cable, used for computers, radio or television signals, is open at both ends. With an ohm meter, the resistance measured from the center conductor to the shield is 50 ohms. What does this indicate?

A) The cable is partially shorted
B) The cable is completely open
C) That reading is correct for 50 ohm impedance RF cables
D) That reading is lower than 72 ohms for video cables

A) The cable is partially shorted

Waveguides are not utilized at HF of VHF frequencies because:

A) Characteristic impedance is too high
B) Resistance to high frequencies is too high
C) Large waveguide dimensions required at lower frequencies are not practical
D) Grounding problems

C) Large waveguide dimensions required at lower frequencies are not practical

A Logic 1, for TTL device is __________.

A) More than 1 volt
B) More than 1.5 volts
C) More than 2 volts
D) More than 3.5 volts

C) More than 2 volts

 C) BNC

A Logic 1, for a CMOS device connected to a 5V supply is __________.

A. More than 1 volt
B. More than 1.5 volts
C. More than 2 volts
D. More than 3.5 volts

D. More than 3.5 volts

A green light usually indicates ___________.

A. A logic high
B. A logic low
C. A TTL logic level
D. A CMOS device

B. A logic low

Another name for an astable multivibrator is ___.

A) latch
B) one shot
C) free running
D) mono

C) free running

The number 12 in decimal is ______________ in binary.

A. 1200
B. 1100
C. 1010
D. 1011

B. 1100

The number 25 in octal is __________ in binary.

A. 010101
B. 011001
C. 110111
D. 100101

A. 010101

The three Basic logic gates are __________.

A. AND, OR, NAND
B. AND, OR, NOT
C. NAND, NOR, Inverter
D. NAND, XOR,NOR

B. AND, OR, NOT

The NAND gate is sometimes called __________.

A. All or nothing
B. Any but not all
C. Universal
D. Inverter

C. Universal

The boolean expression Y = /A+B represents ___.

A) AND
B) NAND
C) OR
D) NOR

D) NOR

A) minterm, Y=1, least # of gates is AND
B) maxterm, Y=1, least # of gates is OR
C) minterm, Y=0, least # of gates is OR
D) maxterm, Y=0, least # of gates is AND

D) maxterm, Y=0, least # of gates is AND

Which portion of the microprocessor would perform the addition of two numbers?

A) ALU
B) bus control
C) instruction decoder
D) register

A) ALU

Which of the following languages can run directly on the microprocessor?

A) assembly language
B) interpreted language
C) machine language
D) compiled language

C) machine language

Which component of a microcomputer connects all of the sub systems together?

A) MPU
B) memory
C) bus
D) I/O

C) bus

What type of control handles the rate of change of the error?

A) on/off
B) proportional
C) integral
D) derivative

D) derivative

What type of control handles long term errors?

A) on/off
B) proportional
C) integral
D) derivative

C) integral

What type of control has the controlled element in either full open or full closed position?

A) on/off
B) proportional
C) integral
D) derivative

A) on/off

Which type of program runs the slowest?

A) assembly language
B) interpreted language
C) machine language
D) compiled language

B) interpreted language

A test plan should contain which of the following?

A. Expected results
B. Initial conditions for the test
C. How to perform the test
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What problem does adding hysteresis to an ON/OFF control system fix?

A) excessive overshoot of setpoint
B) excessive undershoot of setpoint
C) excessive cycling at setpoint
D) excessive setpoint

C) excessive cycling at setpoint

Where are the results of math operations stored in a microprocessor?

A) ALU
B) bus control
C) instruction decoder
D) register

D) register

The +5V level of a TTL digital signal is called a logical?

A. 0 or low
B. 0 or high
C. 1 or low
D. 1 or high

D. 1 or high

165 (decimal) converted to binary would be:

A. 01110100
B. 10001111
C. 10010101
D. 10100101

D. 10100101

The 1 in binary number 1000000 carries a decimal weight of:

A. 32
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128

C. 64

Which one of the following integrated circuit or semiconductor devices normally requires the most careful handling to avoid damage by static electricity?

A) MOS
B) ECL
C) MOV
D) TT

A) MOS

What does RAM mean?

A. A forced memory data storage procedure
B. Random Access Memory
C. Real Address Mode
D. Regulated Audio Methodology

B. Random Access Memory

An LCD (liquid crystal display) is:

A. An inductive coupling device
B. A lithium/cadmium DC source
C. A low-current digital display
D. A charge-coupled device

C. A low-current digital display

Hex 3E is equal to a decimal number of:

A) 62
B) 46
C) 37
D) 48

A) 62

What is the binary number for decimal number 9?

A) 1001
B) 0101
C) 1100
D) 0110

A) 1001

Logic Pulser can be used as a:

A. Logic probe
B. Digital tracer
C. Digital signal generator
D. Filter

C. Digital signal generator

B) High 

D) D

A) High

If SW2 were to open in the circuit above, the output of the gate circuit would be?

A. floating B. low C. high D approximately 2.5V

[image]

B) Low

A three input NAND has two high inputs and a low input. The output will be:

A. High
B. Low
C. Not enough information to determine
D. Can be neither high nor low

A. High

Adding the binary numbers 110111 and 001100 will give which one of the results below?

A. 0000101
B. 0111101
C. 1000011
D. 1111011

C. 1000011

Who knows the most about a piece of equipment?

A. The pharmacist
B. The technician
C. The operator
D. The operator's friend

C. The operator

Before beginning to troubleshoot, what should you do?

A) verify the failure
B) call your friend
C) disassemble the equipment
D) divide and take over

A) verify the failure

A short allows for an increase of current and __________.

A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Heat
D. Trouble

C. Heat

What is the oldest piece of troubleshooting equipment a technician has?

A) oscilloscope
B) analog volt meter
C) galvanometer
D) five senses

D) five senses

Which of the following word(s) is in the acronym TEST:

A) Time
B) Ego
C) Spectral
D) Technical Education

D) Technical Education

What is the name of the diagram that shows all the general cable connections of a piece of equipment?

A) schematic
B) block
C) interconnect
D) parts list

C) interconnect

Diagnosing component failures requires the use of a/an ___.

A) schematic diagram
B) block diagram
C) interconnect diagram
D) parts list

A) schematic diagram

A repair is only as good as __________.

A. The test equipment
B. The equipment brand
C. The part replacement
D. The soldering

D. The soldering

Before returning the equipment to the customer it is important that you ___.

A) verify operation
B) prepare the bill
C) hide extras
D) call customer

A) verify operation

What is the most important service you provide?

A) technical expertise
B) equipment repair
C) smarts
D) customer service

D) customer service

An average-reading AC voltmeter __________.

A. Displays the average AC voltage value
B. Converts to a peak reading before displaying the voltage
C. Multiples the average value by 1.111 before displaying the voltage
D. Multiples the average value by 0.636 before displaying the voltage

C. Multiples the average value by 1.111 before displaying the voltage

Use of a x10 scope probe instead of a direct probe:

A. Reduces circuit loading
B. Increases the effective input impedance
C. Decreases the signal to the scope
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Retrace blanking in an oscilloscope is __________.

A. Not used
B. Applied to the Z-axis
C. Used to blank the vertical retrace
D. Applied to the X-axis

B. Applied to the Z-axis

To accurately measure a resistance across a transistor's emitter-base junction, use a ___.

A. higher ohmmeter range
B. lower ohmmeter range
C. high ohms function
D. low ohms function

D. low ohms function

An inductor shorted turn can be detected reliably using a __________.

A. Leakage test
B. Ringer test
C. AC impedance bridge
D. All of the above

B. Ringer test

An AC voltmeter will measure a non-sine wave signal accurately only if __________.

A. An extender resistor is used
B. It is an average reading meter
C. It is a true RMS meter
D. The signal crest factor is very high

C. It is a true RMS meter

A type of transformer which has a 1:1 turns ratio ___.

A. provides a ten-times voltage step-up ratio
B. provides a floating secondary point
C. is an autotransformer
D. transforms the ground reference at its input to be same as output

B. provides a floating secondary point

Shock hazards exist especially in a power supply which has __________.

A. A full wave bridge rectifier connected directly to the AC power source
B. An earth ground reference at its voltage output
C. An Isolation transformer at its input
D. An aluminum electrolytic filter capacitor

A. A full wave bridge rectifier connected directly to the AC power source

A DC voltmeter multiplier resistor __________.

A. Limits the meter movement current its full scale value
B. Multiplies the voltage across the meter movement
C. Provides an alternate path for current flow
D. Reduces the meter resistance for less loading effect

A. Limits the meter movement current its full scale value

A simple DC voltmeter with a 200 ua meter movement needs to have how much internal resistance on its 50 volt range?

A. 4 k ohms
B. 10 k ohms
C. 20 k ohms
D. 250 k ohms

D. 250 k ohms

V/I=R

The soldering traditionally used is a metal alloy consisting of zinc and copper?

A. true
B. false

B. false

The most common solder used by electronics technicians consists of:

A. 50% aluminum, 50% tin
B. 50% zinc, 50% copper
C. 63% copper, 37% tin
D. 60% tin, 40% lead

D. 60% tin, 40% lead

The proper process for soldering two objects together is:

A. Heat both surfaces at the same time apply solder
B. Heat one surface at a time, assuring full coverage of the melted solder
C. Heat the solder until it melts - flow it over the joint surfaces
D. Clean any resin or flux off the joint - then apply heat

A. Heat both surfaces at the same time apply solder

Overheating the component lead will likely damage __________ first.

A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Capacitors
D. Transformers
E. Transistors and diodes

E. Transistors and diodes

Tinning of __________ makes the best connections.

A. Soldering iron tip
B. Stranded wire
C. Component leads
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Movement of any component of the solder connection before the solder has hardened:

A. Results in a poor electrical connection
B. Results in a poor mechanical connection
C. Results in a poor mechanical and electrical connection
D. Is OK so long as the solder doesn't migrate away from the joint

A. Results in a poor electrical connection

Which device is capable of causing magnetic or inductive damage to electronics devices?

A. pencil soldering iron
B. high wattage soldering iron
C. solder suckers
D. soldering gun

D. soldering gun

To remove solder from a joint using copper braid:

A. Heat the joint then quickly dip the cold braid into melted solder and remove
B. Heat the component leads at the joint first, then the braid
C. Wrap the braid around the soldering iron tip and while hot, wipe off solder from the joint
D. Touch the joint with the braid - heat it and let the solder wick up the braid

D. Touch the joint with the braid - heat it and let the solder wick up the braid

The best way to remove an IC chip which is soldered into a PC board is to:

A. use a desolder adapter which all pins simultaneously
B. use wick and remove all solder from the pins
C. heat each pin sequentiallhy while prying up on the IC
D. use a solder sucker to remove

A. use a desolder adapter which all pins simultaneously

Surface mount components do not require mechanical bonding because:

A. The components are so small the solder connection holds them adequately
B. Their sockets provide adequate bonding
C. Their leads always "hook" onto the opposite side of the PC Board
D. Special strength solder is used on SM boards

A. The components are so small the solder connection holds them adequately

A circle is obtained on the scope when:

A. Two sine waves that are 90 degrees out of phase fed to the vertical and horizontal inputs
B. Two sawtooth waves , in phase, are fed to the vertical and horizontal inputs
C. A sine wave and a sawtooth wave are compared on the scope screen
D. Two in-phase sine waves are fed to the horizontal and the vertical inputs

A. Two sine waves that are 90 degrees out of phase fed to the vertical and horizontal inputs

Which frequency is most commonly used for audio troubleshooting?

A. 1000 KHz
B. 1 KHz
C. 1 Hz
D. .1 KHz

B. 1 KHz

Why is a coupling capacitor used when troubleshooting with signal injection?

A. Improve frequency response
B. Block DC level present
C. Prevent loading of the circuit
D. Provide a correct impedance match

B. Block DC level present

What would be the likely cause of hum in an amplifier, but only present when the CD position is selected?

A. bad filter capacitor in power supply
B. open ground in CD power amplifier
C. bad shielded cable from CD player
D. defective speaker

C. bad shielded cable from CD player

A stereo amplifier has a severe hum whether CD, AUX, FM or AM radio are selected. what is the most likely cause?

A. volume control shorted
B. defective output transistor grounding
C. power cord polarity wrong
D. power supply filtering

D. power supply filtering

Which of the below will cause distortion at high audio levels in an amplifier?

A. Scratchy tone control
B. Rubbing speaker voice coil
C. Bias on a transistor
D. Bass-boost control On

B. Rubbing speaker voice coil

The Y axis of an oscilloscope is:

A. Brightness
B. Intensity
C. Focus
D. Vertical

D. Vertical

A power supply is found to have several 250 uF capacitors connected in parallel. To avoid shock from retained charged after disconnecting the power, the capacitors should be:

A. ignored
B. disconnected
C. discharged to chassis ground, with suitable resistor
D. isolated with non-conductive cover

C. discharged to chassis ground, with suitable resistor

A dual-trace scope has:

A. two focus controls
B. two set of position controls
C. two vertical inputs
D. both b and c

D. both b and c

A x10 probe has what effect on circuit testing?

A. Increase circuit loading
B. Increases the signal level by 10 times
C. Lowers the effective input impedance
D. Decreases circuit loading that a direct probe presents

D. Decreases circuit loading that a direct probe presents

A voltmeter that converts AC to DC by rectifying the voltage, would be least accurate measuring what type of alternating voltages?

A. Pulses only
B. Sine waves
C. Peak voltages
D. Varying DC voltages only

A. Pulses only

When connecting an analog voltmeter into a DC circuit, what should be observed?

A. RMS rating of meter
B. loading of meter
C. polarity
D. peak to peak voltage of circuit

C. polarity

Record keeping is needed for which activities?

A. customer service
B. warranty service validation
C. business planning
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

A technician should ___.

A. understand the record keeping process
B. let administrative staff do all record keeping
C. make multiple copies of all records they file
D. allow the client to fill in their own forms

A. understand the record keeping process

Keeping a record for profitability purposes ensures that __________.

A. The appropriate taxes may be required
B. Client invoices are properly processed
C. Follow-up service can be provided
D. Non of the above

B. Client invoices are properly processed

A service or repair ticket provides __________.

A. Information about the who, what, when, where, why, how, regarding the service call
B. Information to the client regarding warranty and payment terms
C. information on out of inventory parts
D. Information on productivity

A. Information about the who, what, when, where, why, how, regarding the service call

Keeping a record for customer service purposes ensure that ___.

A. parts inventory levels are maintained
B. technician can verify billable hours
C. follow-up service can be provided
D. none of the above
E. all of the above

E. all of the above