Term
There are two main types of system boards. Clue: Components are embedded in the board and not embedded |
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Definition
They are called integrated and non-integrated motherboards |
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Term
Name common motherboard form factors: |
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Definition
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Term
This motherboard type has the processor and memmory slots at right angles to the expansion cards: |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Advanced Technology Extended |
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Term
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Definition
New Low Profile Extended (never cought the 1990's market share) |
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Term
What is the newest motherboard form factor released in 2004? and what's new about it? |
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Definition
BTX, Balance Technology Extended. It's designed in such a way that it reduces heat by lining heat producing components, utilizing heat sinks aligned with air intake vents. |
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Term
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Definition
A collection of chips or circuits that perform interface peripheral functions for the processor. It basically dictates how the memory will talk to the installed peripherals. |
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Term
Who are the two most important functional groups in the chipset family? |
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Definition
Northbridge and Southbridge |
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Term
Describe the Nortbridge function? |
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Definition
Management of high speed communications. E.g. Video using AGP |
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Term
What is the frontside bus? What's another name for this bus? |
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Definition
Pathway between the CPU and memory. It's referred to as L1 cache. |
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Term
What's the backside bus? What's another common name for it? |
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Definition
Pathways between CPU and a slower type of memory that sits very close to the CPU itself. Referred to as L2 cache |
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Term
List common types of expansion slots? |
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Definition
ISA, PCI, PCIe, AGP, AMR, CNR |
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Term
The acronym ISA stands for? |
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Definition
Industry Standard Architecture |
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Term
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Definition
Peripheral Component Interconect |
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Term
This slot is designed to provide a pathway of communication between video circuitry and memory (L1 cache)? |
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Definition
AGP: Accelerated Graphics Port |
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Term
PCIe is designated (for speed) as: |
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Definition
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Term
What is AMR? What's it's main advantage? |
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Definition
Audio Modem Raiser. It separates the analog circuitry (analog audio) reducing the time for an FCC certification. |
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Term
What is CNR? Why is it considered advantageous over AMR? |
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Definition
CNR: Communications and Network Raiser. It's advantageous because it allows manufacturers to implement a motherboard chipset with features such as Dolby Surround Sound, networking support and PnP hardware acceleration. |
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Term
Physically, what is the configuration of a CNR expansion slot? |
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Definition
Physically, a CNR slot has two rows of 30 pins, with two possible pin configurations: Type A and Type B, each with different pin assignments. |
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Term
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Definition
Dual Inline Memory Module. It's the predominant type of memory module. DIMM's have a 64 bit data path.
[image] |
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Term
What is a typical DIMM pin arrangement? |
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Definition
168, 184, 240 pin arrangements |
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Term
This is the type of RAM memory that a laptop computer typically uses? |
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Definition
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Term
What is Virtual RAM (VRAM) otherwise known as Virtual Memory? |
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Definition
With virtual memory, the computer can look for areas of RAM that have not been used recently and copy them onto the hard disk. This frees up space in RAM to load the new application. |
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Term
What is the purpose of cache memory? |
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Definition
A simple definition of Cache would be: A temporary storage area where frequently accessed data can be stored for rapid access. |
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Term
What two very fast cache types exist? |
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Definition
L2 (sits externally to the CPU) and L1 built into the processor. |
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Term
What technologies are commonly refered to as ATA/IDE? |
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Definition
It is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as hard disks and CD-ROM drives inside personal computers.Many terms and synonyms for ATA exist, including abbreviations such as IDE, ATAPI, and UDMA. Also, with the market introduction of Serial ATA in 2003, the original ATA was retroactively renamed Parallel ATA (PATA). |
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Term
What is the acronym IDE and why was it named in such a way? |
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Definition
Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) due to the drive controller being contained on the drive itself as opposed to the then-common configuration of a separate controller connected to the computer's motherboard. |
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Term
EIDE (e-enhanced) allowed the support of drives having a storage capacity larger than 528 megabytes up to? |
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Definition
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Term
The PS/2 connector is used for connecting? |
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Definition
Mice and keyboards
[image] |
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Term
This 6 pin connector is designed to fit a PS/2? |
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Definition
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Term
Name 3 major BIOS manufacturers? |
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Definition
Phoenix/Award, Winbond, AMI |
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Term
Besides the CPU what is the most important chip in the motherboard? |
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Definition
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Term
What settings does CMOS store? |
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Definition
Date&Time (real time clock), Hard Drive configuration, memory, POST test program among other configuration. |
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Term
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Definition
Firmware is software that is embedded in a hardware device. It is often provided on flash ROMs or as a binary image file that can be uploaded onto existing hardware by a user.It can be runwithout extra instructions from the Operating System. |
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Term
This socket was used for the first Pentium 4 processors, it proved inadequate for raising clock speed beyond 2.0 GHz.
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
It's the succesor of socket 423. It's used by:
Intel Pentium 4 (1.4 - 3.4 GHz) Intel Celeron (1.7 - 3.2 GHz) Celeron D (to 3.2 GHz) Intel Pentium 4 Extreme Edition (3.2, 3.4 GHz) |
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Definition
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Term
This type of socket is used for the AMD family of processors:
AMD Athlon (650 MHz - 1400 MHz) AMD Athlon XP (1500+ - 3200+) AMD Duron (600 MHz - 1800 MHz) AMD Sempron (2000+ - 3300+) AMD Athlon MP (1000 MHz - 3000+) |
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Definition
Socket A (also known as Socket 462) |
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Term
It was designed by Intel as a Zero Insertion Force socket intended for workstations and server platforms. It contains 603 contacts arrayed about the center of the socket, used by the Intel Xeon processor? |
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Definition
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Term
It's used by this Intel family of processors:
Intel Pentium 4 (2.66 - 3.80 GHz) Intel Celeron D (2.53 - 3.46 GHz ) Intel Pentium 4 Extreme Edition (3.20 - 3.73 GHz) Intel Pentium D (2.66 - 3.60 GHz) Intel Pentium Extreme Edition (3.20 - 3.73 GHz |
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Definition
Socket T otherwise known as LGA775.
[image] |
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Term
What is SECC and name a popular processor that started using this form factor? |
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Definition
Single Edge Contact Cartridge (SECC) introduced with PII processor. |
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Term
Name four CPU form factors and identify the oldest technology? |
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Definition
DIP: Dual Inline Package OLDEST!
[image]
PGA:Pin Grid array
SECC:Single Edge Contact Cartridge
LGA:Land Grid Array |
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Term
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Definition
Hyper-Threading is a technology developed by Intel that takes advantage of it's super scalar architecture. A single processor is able to have multiple instructions operating at the same time. It works by duplicating certain sections of the processor—those that store the architectural state—but not duplicating the main execution resources. This allows a Hyper-Threading equipped processor to pretend to be two "logical" processors to the host operating system, allowing the operating system to schedule two threads or processes simultaneously. |
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Term
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Definition
A multi-core microprocessor is one that combines two or more independent processors into a single package, often a single integrated circuit (IC). |
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Term
The term throttling refers to? |
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Definition
CPU throttling refers to a series of methods for reducing power consumption in computers by lowering the clock frequency. Other methods include reducing the supply voltage and the capacitance. It also refers to how much of the CPU's time is spent on running applications. This term is usually heard in server environments. |
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Term
Whare are L1 & L2 physically located? |
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Definition
L1 is housed on the CPU chip itself and L2 is located on the motherboard. Although there are some variations specially with new technology. |
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Term
What is a VRM? (Think electricity) |
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Definition
A voltage regulator module or VRM is an electronic device that provides a microprocessor the appropriate supply voltage. It can be soldered to the motherboard or be an installable device. It allows processors with different supply voltage to be mounted on the same motherboard. |
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Term
Name two error checking technologies starting from the oldest? |
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Definition
Parity Checking and Error Checking and Correction |
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Term
What are the four major types of computer memory? |
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Definition
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Term
This type of memory is what most people talk about when they mention RAM memory? |
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Definition
Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a type of random access memory that stores each bit of data in a separate capacitor within an integrated circuit. Since real capacitors leak charge, the information eventually fades unless the capacitor charge is refreshed periodically. |
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Term
There are two types of memory.
These terms refer to the ability to hold data ofter the computer has been turned off. |
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Definition
Volatile and Non-volatile |
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Term
Name four popular implementations of DRAM? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most important aspect of SDRAM? |
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Definition
It is synchronized with the computer's system bus, and thus with the processor. This type of memory can pipeline which means that the chip can accept a new instruction before it has finished processing the previous one. |
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Term
DDR transmits on ________ and _________ edges of the clock signal, doubleing the transfer rate using the same clock signal. |
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Definition
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Term
These are types of SDRAM? |
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Definition
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Term
This BIOS type can be erased and updated thanks to a technology called? |
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Definition
EEPROM: Electronically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory |
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Term
A motherboard supports memory (RAM) based on? |
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Definition
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Term
Why is a DIMM (Dual Inline Memory Module) named DUAL? |
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Definition
Dual because there are pins on both sides of the module. |
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Term
This type of memory needs a continuity module and is a trademark of Rambus. |
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Definition
Direct Rambus DRAM or DRDRAM (sometimes just called Rambus DRAM or RDRAM) is a type of synchronous dynamic RAM, designed by the Rambus Corporation. |
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Term
SoDIMM and MicroDIMM are found in? |
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Definition
Notebooks and portable computers. |
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Term
It´s the newest and extremely small (actually the smallest) RAM memory used in portable computers? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three critical components in a Hard Drive subsystem? |
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Definition
Controller: Controls the physical movements of motors and sensors inside the HD.
Hard Disk: Metal platters in which to write on.
Host Adapter: Converts signal from the HD and controller to signals the CPU can understand (usually incorporated into the motherboard). |
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Term
What are the three critical components in a Hard Drive subsystem? |
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Definition
Controller: Controls the physical movements of motors and sensors inside the HD.
Hard Disk: Metal platters in which to write on.
Host Adapter: Converts signal from the HD and controller to signals the CPU can understand (usually incorporated into the motherboard). |
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Term
ISO9660 refers to this optical storage medium? |
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Definition
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Term
In a CDRW, what does 32X - 16X - 4X mean? |
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Definition
Read - Write - rewrite speeds |
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Term
Flash memory devices use this format to store digital information? |
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Definition
Secure Digital (SD) is a flash (non-volatile) memory card format developed by Matsushita, SanDisk and Toshiba for use in portable devices, including digital cameras, handheld computers, PDAs and GPS units. |
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Term
Name popular SD card formats: |
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Definition
Compact Flash, MiniCard, Smart Media, Memory Stick. |
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Term
An SD slot can also be used for? |
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Definition
Connectivity with small devices such as GPS, NIC, Modems, Wireless and serial adapters, etc. |
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Term
What are the two technologies that seek to become the next standard in optical storage? |
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Definition
High Density and Blu-Ray Disc |
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Term
Name two futuristic technologies that can overshadow the HD and Blu-Ray disc formats? |
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Definition
Holographic Recording and Perpendicular recording. |
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Term
What are the High Density DVD characteristics? |
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Definition
Holds 15GB per side and publishers can include both the standard DVD technology and HDDVD on a single side. |
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Term
What's Blu-Ray DVD storage capacity? |
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Definition
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Term
This device converts 110V/220V AC current into DC voltages that a PC needs to operate: |
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Definition
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Term
A modern power supply handles what voltages? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of connector does a floppy drive use? |
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Definition
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Term
Peripherals such as a Hard Drive or a CDROM use this type of power connector? |
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Definition
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Term
This type of power supply allows the computer to be powered off using software? |
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Definition
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Term
This power supply form factor was introduced along P4. It has a 20 pin main connector, 4 pin secondary connector, 8 pin tertiary connector. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Servers and advanced motherboards that include PCIe slots use this power supply standard? |
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Definition
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Term
Higher end servers utilize this type of power supply. It has a 24 pin main connector, 8 pin secondary connector, optional 4 pin tertiary connector (Xeon and Opteron)? |
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Definition
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Term
Resolution is described in terms of? |
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Definition
How many pixels across and down are used to "draw" to the screen. E.g. 1028 across x 768 down = 786 432 pixels |
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Term
When speaking in terms of graphics what do the term 24bit mean? |
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Definition
It means that each pixel requires 24bits of memory to store that screen element. |
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Term
This video technology could display text in one color but no graphics? |
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Definition
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Term
This graphics card could display graphics as well as text on a monochrome display? |
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Definition
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Term
Give two examples of color graphics cards before the AT motherboard was introduced? |
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Definition
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Term
This video adapter is the minumum de-facto standard for color PC video used today? |
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Definition
VGA - Video Graphics Array. It can display 16 colors @ 640 x 480 or 256 colors @ 320 x 200 |
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Term
This is a technique of improving the picture quality of a video transmission without consuming any extra bandwidth. Displays odd lines first and then even lines. |
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Definition
[image]
Interlace Technology |
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Term
It can support 256 colors @ 1024 x 768 or 65 536 colors @ 800 x 600 and it's backed by IBM? |
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Definition
XGA: Extended Graphics Array |
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Term
What does a 16:9 aspect ratio mean? |
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Definition
It means the ratio of width to height of an object. W:H This is the aspect ratio of High-definition television and European digital television. |
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Term
A 16:9 aspect ratio can also be expressed in this format: |
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Definition
1.78:1 which means 16 divided by 9 = 1.78 and 9/9=1 this 1.78:1 |
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Term
Name a few analog VGA standards? |
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Definition
SuperVGA, XVGA, UXVGA & WXGA |
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Term
Name two non-VGA digital specifications? |
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Definition
DVI: Digital Video Interface HDMI: High Definition Multimedia Interface |
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Term
DVI-A, DVI-D and DVI-I are standards that support analog or digital signalling? |
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Definition
DVI-A : Analog
DVI-D : Digital
DVI-I : Analog & Digital
[image] |
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Term
This digital specification supports the bit rates neccesary for High Definition DVD and Blu-Ray? |
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Definition
HDMI: High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is an all-digital audio/video interface. |
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Term
Composite Video is the format of an analog television (picture only) signal before it is combined with a sound signal and modulated onto an RF carrier. It uses this type of connector? |
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Definition
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Term
A monitor's qulity can be measured by using these two parameters? |
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Definition
Dot pitch: Distance between two dots on the monitor (in a CRT it's usually 0.28mm)
Refresh Rate: The time per second (Hz)the electron beam redraws the screen. |
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Term
There are two types of LCD displays in the market ________ and __________. |
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Definition
Active matrix: Uses a transistor behind each pixel and consumes a lot of power.
Passive matrix: Transistors are lined up at the top and sides and create images using XY coordinates. |
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Term
This peripheral uses a DA15 biderectional port to connect joysticks and MIDI? |
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Definition
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|
Term
USB and Firewire are examples of common peripherals that can be found on this card? (think of the main function) |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
A generic name for any connector on a computer which a cable can be plugged into. |
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Term
Name three types of peripheral ports: |
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Definition
D subminiature, RJ-45, USB and Firewire |
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Term
_________serial port can connect up to 127 devices thru a single port with transfer rates up to 12Mbps and version 2.0 supports up to 480 Mbps? |
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Definition
USB: Universal Serial Bus |
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Term
It was standarized as IEEE 1394 and it supports transmissions of up to 400 Mbps? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It has a typical range of less than 4 meters and a maximum transmission speed of 4Mbps? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Digital Audio such as S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface) uses this type of connector. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This legacy connector is often found on printers and some SCSI interfaces: |
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Definition
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|
Term
A DB25F connector sends data in:
Note: A DB25 connector can also send data in Serial but the gender changes to Male. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The________ interface transfers data 8 bits over eight seperte transmit wires inside a the cable. |
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Definition
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Term
There are three major types of parallel interfaces. Name them and describe them briefly. |
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Definition
Standard Parallel: Only transmits data out of the PC. It's common in legacy equipment.
Bidirectional Parallel: Can transmit and receive data. Standard in all computers manufactured after 1994.
Enhanced Parallel: It provides for greater data transfer speeds and the ability to send memory addresses as well as data through a parallel port. |
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Term
It has a maximum transmission distance of 10ft and transmits data at 150Kbps unidirectionally? |
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Definition
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|
Term
The standard IEEE 1284 talks about these two types of enhanced parallel ports: |
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Definition
ECP: Enhanced Capabilities Port EPP: Enhanced Parallel Port (The EPP port in particular can increase biderectional throughput from 150Kbps to 600Kbps). |
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Term
You can easily identify these ports because the have either a DE-9M or DB-25M port.
Note: A DB25 connector can also send data in Parallel but the gender changes to Female. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the three main types of serial interfaces? |
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Definition
Standard: Uses a DE-9M or DB25M with transmit speed od 57 Kbps and a max cable lenght of 50 Ft
USB:The latest version of USB 2.0 has a raw data rate at 480Mbps
Firewire: The latest version can carry data at 800Mbps at a max lenght of 4.5mts. |
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Term
This type of serial cable is used to connect two computers without a modem? |
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Definition
A null serial cable. (It's the same basic idea on an Ethernet cross over cable) |
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Term
___________cooling uses airflows and heatsinks and __________ cooling uses either air, water or high speed fans to cool devices. |
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Definition
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|
Term
These are examples of advanced cooling devices? |
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Definition
Liquid cooling, Peltier cooling (dissipates heat by transfering it to the cold side) and phase change (it involves using a compressor to compress gas which turns into a liquid and then into a gas again to cool the CPU) |
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Term
This peripheral port was designed to use DMA channels under the IEEE 1284 standard?
Usually used for faster printing. |
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Definition
ECP: Enhanced Capabilities Ports |
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|
Term
This technology emerged with ATA-4 offering transfer rates of up to 150Mbps which also provides support for Attachment Packet Interface (ATAPI), i.e. support for CD-ROM, tape drives etc.? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the limit of IDE devices you can add in a typical system? |
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Definition
-4, two on each connector. |
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|
Term
How many devices can you have per typical SCSI drive interface? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices. |
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|
Term
This feature in BIOS allowed (because it is now seldom used and UltraDMA is more common) to boost Hard Drive performance by bypassing the CPU and writting directly into RAM? |
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Definition
Programmed input/output (PIO) is a method of transferring data between the CPU and a peripheral such as a network adapter or an ATA storage device. |
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Term
|
Definition
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices. The SCSI standards define commands, protocols, and electrical and optical interfaces. SCSI is most commonly used for hard disks and tape drives, but it can connect a wide range of other devices, including scanners, printers, and optical drives (CD, DVD, etc.). |
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Term
Eight bit SCSI1 &2 internal devices use a _______cable, a 50 pin ribbon cable similar to that of an IDE drive. |
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Definition
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|
Term
16bit internal SCSI uses a SCSI______connector cable with 68 wires and a DB style connector. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This 80 pin SCSI internal connector is used for high end SCSI devices. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
For external devices SCSI1 uses this type of connector as for a parellel printer. |
|
Definition
50 pin Centronics connector |
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Term
SCSI2 can use a _____, ______, or ______ female pin arrangement on a DB style connector. |
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Definition
25, 50, 68 pin arrangement. |
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|
Term
SCSI3 uses a ___, or _____ female DB style connector. |
|
Definition
68,80 pin female DB style connector. |
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|
Term
This special device must be installed ona SCSI interface to keep signals on the bus. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This type of terminator uses resistors driven by electricity that travels through the system SCSI bus. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This type of termination uses voltage regulators inside the terminator. |
|
Definition
Active terminator. (it's recommended to use it) |
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|
Term
SCSI termination can also be achived by? |
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Definition
Using jumpers or DIP switches to activate or deactivate termination. |
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|
Term
This can be any number from 0-7 on an 8bit bus, 0-15 on a 16bit bus and 0-31 on a 32bit bus? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A Hard Drive with a SCSI value of ID0 (zero). A CDROM has a SCSI ID of 3. Which one has a higher priority? |
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Definition
The lower the number the higher the priority. In a SCSI configuration slower devices usually get the lowest numbers as well. Therefore, a HD has the highest priority. |
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|
Term
The RAID acronym stands for? |
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Definition
RAID (originally redundant array of inexpensive disks, also known as redundant array of independent disks) refers to a data storage scheme using multiple hard drives to share or replicate data among the drives. |
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Term
|
Definition
RAID 0 - Data striping refers to the segmentation of logically sequential data, such as a single file, so that segments can be written to multiple physical devices (usually disk drives) in a round-robin fashion.
This technique is useful if the processor is capable of reading or writing data faster than a single disk can supply or accept it. While data is being transferred from the first disk, the second disk can locate the next segment. |
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Term
This RAID technique is also known as disk mirroring? |
|
Definition
RAID 1 - Disk mirroring (which is different from file shadowing) is the replication of logical disk volumes onto separate logical disk volumes in real time to ensure continuous availability, currency and accuracy. A mirrored volume is a complete and separate copy of a logical disk volume. |
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Term
It combines the benefits of RAID0 and RAID1 and a minimum of 3 drives is required? |
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Definition
RAID 5: Striped Set with Distributed Parity
It uses a parity block distributed across all the drives in the array in addition to striping the data across them. A parity bit is a binary digit that indicates whether the number of bits with value of one in a given set of bits is even or odd. Parity bits are used as the simplest error detecting code.
Parity bits are for ERROR DETECTING NOT ERROR CORRECTION. |
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|
Term
This software is usually distributed along new Hard Drives for auto-backup. |
|
Definition
Dantz Retrospect found at http://www.dantz.com/ |
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|
Term
How do you discharge a CRT monitor? |
|
Definition
You attach a resistor to the flyback transformers charging capacitor to release the high voltage. |
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|
Term
Name three types of screwdrivers? |
|
Definition
Flat blade, phillips and torx. |
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|
Term
You measure this electrical property with the multimeter setting on Ω with the probes on each end of the circuit. |
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Definition
The electrical property is Ohms Ω or electrical resistance. |
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|
Term
An infinite reading of this property means a broken wire? |
|
Definition
The continuity of the wire is broken. This is a measure of Resistance or ohms.
A reading of zero means that there is "NO RESISTANCE" a 1 means that there is resistance. |
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|
Term
When measuring this property you must be sure you connect the probes to the power source correctly. |
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Definition
-Voltage: measures potential difference between two points of an electrical or electronic circuit, expressed in volts.
***************************************
DC voltage: + probe must be connected to the positive side and the - to the negative side.
**This position doesn;t matter with AC voltage. |
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|
Term
You must connect the multi-meter in series with with the circuit being measured to obtain this electrical property. |
|
Definition
Current or amperage.
Often shortened to amp, (symbol: A) is a unit of electric current, or amount of electric charge per second. The ampere is an SI base unit, and is named after André-Marie Ampère, one of the main discoverers of electromagnetism. |
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|
Term
This circuit board fits into an ISA or PCI slot and reports numeric codes for errors. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The modem commands are known as? |
|
Definition
Hayes Command Set or AT commands |
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Term
|
Definition
Dislodged chips and cards caused by thermal changes inside the computer. |
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Term
If a spill ocurrs on your keyboard what type of solvent should you use to clean it? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Using the AT command set dechiper what the ATDP, AT&F, ATZ, ATH0 codes mean? |
|
Definition
ATDP = Dial number Pulse AT&F = Reset Factory Settings ATZ = Resets the modem to power up defalt ATH0 = Hang up |
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Term
This error occurs to floppy drives: You insert a disk and read it's contents and a directory that you know is not contained in that floppy appears. Who is the culprit? |
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Definition
This is a sign of a faulty ribbon cable. |
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Term
What type of alcohol should you use to clean electronic connectors? |
|
Definition
Denatured Isopropyl Alcohol |
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Term
How many bits of data does a high speed serial cable carry simultaneously in a single direction? |
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Definition
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Term
UltraDMA/66 requires this type of cable? |
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Definition
ATA's ribbon cables had 40 wires for most of its history, but an 80-wire version appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 (UDMA4) mode. All of the additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The interleaved ground wire reduces the effects of capacitive coupling between neighboring signal wires, thereby reducing crosstalk. |
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Term
Discolored areas in the motherboard are a sign of? |
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Definition
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Term
A COM port sends data ________ and an LPT port sends data in ________ respectively. |
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Definition
-Serially and in parallel |
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Term
It operates serially and sends 250Mbps bidirectionally per lane. To put things into perspective a single lane has nearly twice the data rate of normal PCI. |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
Logical block addressing (LBA) is a common scheme used for specifying the location of blocks of data stored on computer storage devices, generally secondary storage systems such as hard disks.LBA is a particularly simple addressing scheme; blocks are located by an index, with the first block being LBA=0, the second LBA=1, and so on. |
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Term
The BIOS inability to support larger disk size can be fixed by? |
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Definition
1) Updating BIOS 2) Replacing the motherboard 3) Using HD manufacturer software (not always recommended) |
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Term
In the original IDE specification the size limit was 540MB, but this limitation was upped to 8GB with the introduction of this technology in 1996? |
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Definition
Logical Block Addressing. |
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Term
What elements should you keep in mind when selecting a CPU for a motherboard? |
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Definition
1) CPU must be the right kind of package to fit the motherboard. 2) Speed: the motherboards chipset dictates it's external data bus speed 3)Instruction set (AMD or Intel) 4)Voltage: the right voltage for the processor handled by the power supply. |
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Term
It's the creation of logical divisions upon a hard disk that allows one to apply operating system-specific logical formatting? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
________ is the process of preparing a hard disk or other storage medium for use, including setting up an empty file system. |
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Definition
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Term
What are some of the benefits of multiple partitioning? |
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Definition
* Allowing for dual boot setups (for example, to boot Microsoft Windows and Linux), which means the user can have more than one operating system on his/her computer. * Sharing swap partitions between multiple Linux distributions, which means less hard drive space is wasted on Linux swap partitions. * Protection or isolation of files, which means if the operating system stops working, it can just be reinstalled without, hopefully, deleting the user's personal files and settings. * Raising overall computer performance. Hard drives with one partition have very large MFT Tables and are generally slower than hard drives with multiple partitions. * Higher level of data organization increasing the user efficiency of the system, for example a partitioned drive dedicated to digital movie processing. |
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Term
What is a primary pertition? |
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Definition
A primary partition contains one file system. It is also the bootable section of the HD. In MS-DOS and earlier versions of Microsoft Windows systems, the first partition (C:) must be a "primary partition". Other operating systems may not share this limitation; however, this can depend on other factors, such as a PC's BIOS.
Technically, a hard disk may contain as many as four primary partitions, however, typically only the active one shows up in the fdisk command. |
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Term
Formatting creates the _______ that the OS uses to store and retrieve data such FAT32 or NTFS. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 4 system resources? |
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Definition
Memory Adress range, IRQ's, I/O addresses and DMA channels. Electrical power can also be added. |
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Term
This system resource is used by peripherals to interrupt or stop the CPU and demand attention. |
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Definition
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Term
Who has the highest priority IRQ0 or IRQ1? |
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Definition
The general rule is: the lower the interrupt numerical value the higher the priority. IRQ0 has the highest priority. |
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Term
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Definition
System timer. Reserved for the system. Cannot be changed by a user. |
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Term
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Definition
Keyboard. Reserved for the system. Cannot be altered even if no keyboard is present or needed. |
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Term
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Definition
Cascades to second IRQ controller chip and interrupts 8-15. |
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Term
IRQs 0 to 7 are managed by one _________,and IRQs 8 to 15 by a second ____________. The first PIC, the master, is the only one that directly signals the CPU. The second PIC, the slave, instead signals to the master on its IR2 line, and the master passes t |
|
Definition
Intel 8259 PIC.
Programmable Interrupt Controller (PIC). Interrupt lines are often identified by an index with the format of IRQ followed by a number. |
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Term
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Definition
COM 2(Default) or COM 4(User) |
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Term
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Definition
COM 1(Default)or COM 3(User) |
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Term
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Definition
Sound card (Sound Blaster Pro or later) or LPT2(User) |
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Term
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Definition
Floppy disk controller or tape controllers |
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Term
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Definition
LPT1(Parallel port) or sound card (8-bit Sound Blaster and compatibles) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
ACPI SCI or ISA MPU-401
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) defines common interfaces for hardware recognition, motherboard and device configuration and power management.
MPU stands for MIDI Processing Unit, is an important but now obsolete standard for MIDI interfaces for Personal Computers. |
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Term
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Definition
Free / Open interrupt / Available / SCSI |
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Term
|
Definition
Free / Open interrupt / Available / SCSI |
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Term
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Definition
PS/2 connector Mouse / If no PS/2 connector mouse is used, this can be used for other peripherals |
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Term
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Definition
Math co-processor. Cannot be changed |
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Term
|
Definition
Primary IDE. If no Primary IDE this can be changed. SCSI controllers and network adapters as well. |
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Term
|
Definition
Secondary IDE / SCSI controllers / Network Adapters |
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Term
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Definition
RAM. It's what you refer to when saying 128MB |
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Term
The CPU is able of differentiating between system memory, which is what you refer to when you say that your computer has 512MB of RAM and _______memory which is a resource allocated to an expansion card and other components external to the CPU. |
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Definition
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Term
A single pin on the CPU, called the _____line allows the CPU to specify which group of memory it is referring to even if two blocks of memory overlap in value. |
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Definition
I/O_MEM line which is a memory address. |
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Term
_________are also known as __________ addresses and are specific areas of memory that a component uses to communicate with the system. When the CPU indicates I/O with the I/O_MEM line it is refering to it. |
|
Definition
I/O addresses, port addresses |
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Term
What is the difference between a memory address and I/O adress? |
|
Definition
A memory addresses are used to store information thath will be used by the device a itself and an I/O address will be used to store information that will be used by the system or to represent instructions for the device from the CPU.
E.g. 01F0-01F7 allows the CPU to control the activities of the IDE controller. |
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Term
What is the range under which all I/O addresses fall into? |
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Definition
They fall within the first 640KB of memory. |
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of COM1? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of COM2? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of COM3? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of COM4? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of LPT1? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of LPT2? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of primary IDE? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the I/O address of secondary IDE? |
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Definition
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Term
_____ it's no longer as popular as it once was but it's still used by floppy drives, keyboards and sound cards. It allows devices to bypass the CPU and place data directly into RAM. All _____ transfers use a special area of memory set aside to receive dat |
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Definition
DMA: Direct memory access is a feature of modern computers, that allows certain hardware subsystems within the computer to access system memory for reading and/or writing independently of the central processing unit. |
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Term
How can you display the system resources in WIN XP? |
|
Definition
1) Using device manager 2) Using System Information under START>Programs>Accesories>System Tools>System Information |
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Term
The acronym ACPI stands for? |
|
Definition
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) defines common interfaces for hardware recognition, motherboard and device configuration and power management.
ACPI is the standard that controls * Device states * Processor states * Performance states |
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Term
What is Dr. Watson and what is the command to run it? |
|
Definition
It's a tool for detailed logging of errors. Commonly used when you know an error is likely to occur. To tun it:
START> RUN > drwtsn32 |
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Term
Besides using the START menu to display the System Information what command can you use to display it? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
SDRAM means synchronous dynamic random access memory which is a type of solid state computer memory.It is synchronized with the computer's system bus, and thus with the processor. |
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Term
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Definition
Correct filesystem and surface level imperfections. |
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Term
The switches /F /R /X used along with CHDSK mean? |
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Definition
(/F) Fixes errors, (/R) tries to recover information from bad sectors and stores them elsewhere on the disk if succesful, (/X) dismounts a volume |
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Term
What command runs the Microsoft Console? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the command for event viewer? |
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Definition
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|
Term
To access the computer management console from a command you have to type? |
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Definition
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|
Term
To graphically view the system performance you have to use this command? |
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Definition
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Term
If your printers stops responding, what would be a good way of troubleshooting the issue? |
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Definition
Using the Computer Management Console (compmgmt.msc) > services tab and restar the printer spooler. |
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Term
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Definition
It's services that are linked or dependent on another. |
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Term
This filesystem was introduces with DOS 2.0 and with a cluster size of 64Kb? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This filesystem allows a more efficient use of space (cluster sizes are smaller) and up to 2TB can be addressed? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It contains a second allocation table for stability? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This filesystem is a child of NPFS (a venture between MS and IBM)? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Cite a major security advantage of NTFS over FAT? |
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Definition
Directory and file level access controls (granular security). Allowing access to some users and denying it to others. |
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|
Term
What 3rd party tools can you use to boot from a floppy on a PC that is using the NTFS filesystem? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
It's the ability to mount HD disks as subfolders like (in this case there are 2 HD, the first one contains the original presentation folder and a second one running backdoor to extend the storage capacity of this particular folder) c:\presentations and present it to the OS as a single disk. |
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Term
Scandisk has been replaced by this similar program in WinXp / 2000? |
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Definition
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|
Term
List the four file attributes? |
|
Definition
RASH: Read Only, Archive, System and Hidden |
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|
Term
What program allows you to convert filesystem types from FAT to NTFS? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This laptop circuitry saves space (by placing video circuitry and other components) and connects directly to the motherboard? |
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Definition
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|
Term
In order to save space and reduce heat, laptop computers are physically engineered with some of these features: |
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Definition
Different mounting system (soldered or attached), run at lower voltages and clockspeeds than desktops and have the ability to throttle the CPU. |
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Term
It's 50% smaller than SoDimm and slightly bigger than a quarter? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Standard TV's and monitors have this aspect ratio? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This video standard is commonly found in 14" 15" laptop LCD's manufactured in 2004? |
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Definition
SXGA: Super Extended Graphics Array, with a resolution of 1400 x 1050 pixels |
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|
Term
As opposed to CRT monitors LCS displays have a fixed resolution known as: |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is a contrast ratio? |
|
Definition
The difference between the darkest color and lightest color the screen is capable of producing. 500:1 or 600:1 are common contrast ratios. |
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|
Term
What is the best way to clean an LCD? |
|
Definition
Wipe it off with a damp cloth |
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|
Term
This expansion bus has been renamed PC Card for simplicity? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This laptop expansion card has a bus width of either 16bits or 32bits? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This PC Card is 3.3mm thick? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This PC Card is 5mm thick? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This PC Card is 10.5mm thick? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This PC Card is usually used for memory cards? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Modems, Lan adapters, SCSI controllers and other decices use this type of PC Card? |
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Definition
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|
Term
PC Card Hard Drive use this type of card? |
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Definition
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|
Term
The PC Card Architecture includes this other two software components? |
|
Definition
Socket Services Software and Card Services Software |
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|
Term
It can detect when a PC Card has been inserted into the slot and it's type? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It's the interface between the application and socket services telling the applications which interrupts and I/O port the PC Card is using? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It resides inside of a laptop it's 32bit, 33Mhz with 3.3V connection. An adaptation of PCI? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This laptop card supports bus mastering and DMA and is manufactured in three form factors (T1, T2, T3)? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This expansion card does not support bus mastering or DMA access? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a common speed for IR devices? |
|
Definition
4Mbps although Xp supports transfer rates of up to 16Mbps |
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|
Term
What is tha maximum distance in which an IR communication takes place? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It's a collection of IEEE 802.11x standards? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Both of these standards operate at the 2.4Ghz band at speeds of 11Mbps and 54 Mbps respectively? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It's expected to exceed speeds of over 200 Mbps on this WiFi standard? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name a few members of the Bluetooth special interest group? |
|
Definition
MS, Intel, Apple, IBM, Toshiba |
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|
Term
IEEE 802.15.1 describes the ________ based on Bluetooth. |
|
Definition
Wireless Personal Area Networks |
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|
Term
Bluetooth has a range of about? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is a port replicator? |
|
Definition
Reproduces funtions of ports, such as a docking station. |
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|
Term
List three types of laptop batteries? |
|
Definition
Nickel Cadmium NiCad, Lithium Ion and Nickel Metal Hydrade (NiMH) |
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|
Term
This adapter allows a laptop to be conncted to a car lighter? |
|
Definition
A DC adapter. AC adapters are for home or office use. |
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|
Term
It gives control of power and hardware recognition to the OS? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In order for ACPI to work what hardware must support it? |
|
Definition
Motherboard, BIOS, OS and CPU. |
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|
Term
The ACPI standard defines 4 computer wide power states called? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A normal working state in the ACPI standard is called? |
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Definition
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|
Term
G1 power state is called _____ and it's divided into four submodes called_______. |
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Definition
Sleeping, submodes S1, S2, S3, S4 |
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|
Term
When you turn your XP machine "off" there is physically no power outage. This is the name of this state. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the ACPI G3 state |
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Definition
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|
Term
The ACPI G2 sleeping modes are: |
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Definition
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|
Term
In G2|S1 what devices stop working? |
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Definition
CPU is ON but not processing instructions. As well as all devices that are not in use are powered off. |
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Term
In G2|S2 what devices stop working? |
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Definition
It uses less power than S1 but not typically used. |
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Term
In G2|S3 what devices stop working and what is it called by windows? |
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Definition
S3 is called Standby by windows and also suspend to RAM. Only RAM remains ON. |
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Term
In G2|S4 what devices stop working and what other names is it called? |
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Definition
It's called Hibernation by Windows and suspend to disk. RAM is powered off but before this happens all the info is stored in the HD so the user can go back to work from where he left off. |
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Term
What are the 4 processor states? |
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Definition
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|
Term
C0is the working state of a processor. C1 is called? |
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Definition
C1 is called HALT. It uses less power than C0. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Stop Clock, and uses less power than C1 but it takes longer to wake up. |
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Term
|
Definition
Sleep mode, and you have to wait for a few seconds before it wakes up. |
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|
Term
Describe 4 device states? |
|
Definition
D0:Full power, D1-D2: intermediate power and D3: power off. |
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|
Term
Starting with what OS can power management aspects be handled? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Choose a video standard that supports a 1900 x 1200 resolution @ 16:10 ratio?
XGA, SXGA, WUXGA |
|
Definition
Answer: WUXGA. The 16:10 aspect ratio is for widescreen. You can look at the W in WUXGA for a clue. |
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|
Term
It operates on low power and low cost on a short range maintaining high levels of security and can handle voice and data transmissions? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This network is formed adhoc and is temporary in nature using Bluetooth enabled devices? |
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Definition
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|
Term
In a Bluetooth network one is the ________ and the 7 other devices are __________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
When two or more piconets are joined together it's called? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name the three classes of Bluetooth? |
|
Definition
Class 1 - Industrial - 100 meter range, Class 2 - Mobile - 10 meter range and Class 3 - n/a - 1 meter rarely used |
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|
Term
What type of encryption does Bluetooth use? |
|
Definition
128bit SAFER+ : Secure and Fast Encryption Routine |
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|
Term
Formed to support an interoperable, walkup , point to point data connection? |
|
Definition
IRDA: Infra Red Data Assosiation |
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|
Term
How many devices can an infrared network support? |
|
Definition
2 devices. Sender and receiver. |
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|
Term
Infra Red has a maximum range of _______meters and can transmit data at _______. |
|
Definition
1 meter, can transmit at 16Mbps. |
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|
Term
List two major cell phone standards used in the United States? |
|
Definition
GSM: Global System for Mobile Communications and CDMA: Code Division Multiple Access |
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|
Term
It operates at 900-1800 Mhz and 450 - 850 Mhz? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the macimum fanctional distance of GSM? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What stream ciphers does GSM use? |
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Definition
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|
Term
It was first used by the English in WWII and used in GPS devices as well? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This type of network are set up as "spoke and wheel" networks" because in the center there is a hub. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
I we refer to Ethernet as a "spoke and wheel" network, name two devices would be hubs? |
|
Definition
a. Routers b.Wireless Access Points (they look and behave loke routers but don't have the same features, like NAT) |
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Term
|
Definition
Network Adress Translation: The process in to which a Router on the external side gets the IP assigned by the ISP and internally assigns all the computers in the network with a distinct IP. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Network Adress Translation: The process in to which a Router on the external side gets the IP assigned by the ISP and internally assigns all the computers in the network with a distinct IP. |
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|
Term
This device inverts AC power for the backlight of an LCD display? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A small flourescent lamp behind, above or to the side oa an LCD display is called? |
|
Definition
Backlight or CCFL: Cold Cathode Flourescent Lamp |
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|
Term
An LCD that starts to flicker or to dimm. What device is causing the problem? |
|
Definition
The inverter might be the source of the problem. |
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|
Term
Laptops use system memory not only for applications but also for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In what order of likelyhood do you identify LCD issues? |
|
Definition
Inverter, backlight, video card and backlight circuitry on motherboard. |
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|
Term
On a laptop, where do you increase the amount of memory available to the video card? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Where can you check to ensure that a touchpad on a laptop is working? |
|
Definition
BIOS and mouse settings in Windows |
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|
Term
What is cooperative multitasking? |
|
Definition
Application is responsable for using and freeing access to the processor.Used in Win 3.1 for example. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
A program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands with a set of menus or commands. |
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|
Term
What is Preemptive multitasking? |
|
Definition
The OS allots processiong time to the applications by force. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
A processing technique that allows two or more of the same type of transaction to be carried out simultaneously. Multithreading generally uses reentrant code, which cannot be modified when executing, so that the same code can be shared by multiple programs. |
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|
Term
How much memory does WinXP support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the system requirements to run MacOSX? |
|
Definition
PowerPC G3, G4, G5 processor, 256MB RAM, 3GB HD, Firewire & DVD drive. |
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|
Term
How do you hibernate a PC running XP? |
|
Definition
START > Shit Down > Shift Key + Click on Standy |
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|
Term
How do you open the system control panel? |
|
Definition
Right click My Computer > Select Properties |
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|
Term
Command.com is ___ bits and cmd.exe is ___bits. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Name two applications that can edit the system registry? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The system registry is broken down into two different hives called? |
|
Definition
User settings and computer settings. |
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|
Term
The user and computer hives are stored in these files: |
|
Definition
System, software, security, sam and default. NTUSER is also in the registry. |
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|
Term
Name the 5 registry hives: |
|
Definition
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, HKEY_USERS and HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG |
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|
Term
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT includes what info? |
|
Definition
What file extension to map to what application. |
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|
Term
HKEY_CURRENT_USER includes: |
|
Definition
Saved information specific to a particular usage. |
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|
Term
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE includes? |
|
Definition
Includes all configuration concerning computer hardware & software. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Includes information about users who have logged on to the system. CURRENT_USER is a subkey of this hive. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Provides quick access to commonly needed keys that are otherwise burried deep in HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE. |
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|
Term
The startup option "Last Known Good Configuration" actually does what to the registry? |
|
Definition
Restores the registry from a backup of it's last functional state. |
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|
Term
Where are the registry files backed to? |
|
Definition
systemroot\repair directory by using the XP/2000 backup program. |
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|
Term
Where is the registry saved? |
|
Definition
..systemroot\system32\config |
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|
Term
In Win2000 what is the name of a registry backup utility? |
|
Definition
ERD: Emergency Repair Disk |
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|
Term
In XP, what utility replaced ERD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hard Drive space to keep idle pieces of programs transfered from RAM. |
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|
Term
Virtual memory uses this file? |
|
Definition
paging file also known as a swap file. |
|
|
Term
What files are 1.5 tunes the size of installed RAM? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the name of the swapfile and where is it stored? |
|
Definition
Pagefile.sys and it's stored in the root directory. |
|
|
Term
List XP/2000 key boot files and their function? |
|
Definition
(1) NTLDR:Bootstraps the system (2) Boot.ini: holds info about which OS's are installed. (3) bootsect.dos (used in a dualboot with Win9X) and keeps a copy of DOS boot sector. (4) NTDETECT.com parses system for hardware information (5) NTOSKRNL.EXE: the kernel (6) Additional files: HAL.DLL |
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Term
This process involves creating and configuring a file allocation table and a root directory? |
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Definition
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Term
The file table for NTFS is called? |
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Definition
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Term
It uses the 8.3 naming convention and uses a 16bit binary number to hold cluster numbering information? |
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Definition
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Term
Introduced with Win95 augmenting the 8.3 file naming convention to 255 characters, creating two names for each file. A long name and an8.3 compatible file? |
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Definition
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Term
They have a 2GB disk limitation and 16bit number to hold cluster memory info? |
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Definition
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Term
Introduced along with Win95OEM Service Release 2, it allows 32 bit clustering addressing, provides a maximum partition of 2TB and smaller cluster sizes to avoid wasted space? |
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Definition
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Term
Introduced along WINNT still available in Win2000/XP includes features such as individual file security and compression, RAID support and extremely large file and partition sizes. |
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Definition
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Term
This command is used to create partitions in OS's ranging from WIN3X,WIN9X and WINME? |
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Definition
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Term
Any partition that has a drie letter is called? |
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Definition
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Term
Any XP/2000 HD can be divided into how many logical partitions? |
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Definition
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Term
This OS does not include Disk Defragmenter according to MS because because "it wouldn't need it" |
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Definition
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Term
When searching a document you can use this characters as wild cards? |
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Definition
* and ?? E.g. auto??.bat or *.txt |
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Term
This option tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up? |
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Definition
Archive needed(found in the file properties tab) |
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Term
Name a few NTFS attributes? |
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Definition
Archiving, indexing (allows faster access times in some cases), compression and encyption |
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Term
What are the NTFS file attributes? |
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Definition
Read-only, hidden, system, archive |
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Term
NTFS OS's include this file level system security, these permissions are called special permissions. Name a few: |
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Definition
Full Control, modify, read&execute, read and write. |
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Term
How do you call the partition from which the OS boots? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference between primary and extended partitions? |
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Definition
Extended partitions can be divided into one or more logical drives and primary can no longer be divided. |
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Term
What is windows catalog?
www.microsoft.com/windows/catalog/ |
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Definition
It;s the Hardware compatibility list and includes software as well |
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Term
What's Win2000 minimum requirements? |
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Definition
Pentium 133, 64MB RAM, Floppy, CDROM, VGA |
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Term
What's Win2000 PRO recommended installation requirements? |
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Definition
PII or higher, 128MB RAM, 2GB or more hard drive space, floppy, CDROM, SVGA |
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Term
What's XPPRO minimum installation requirements? |
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Definition
233Mhz Pentium, Celeron, AMD K6, 64MBRAM, 1.5GB HD, CDROM, SVGA |
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Term
What's Win XP PRO recommended installation? |
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Definition
300 Mhz, 128MB RAM, CDROM, SVGA or more |
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Term
List four types of installations: |
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Definition
typical, full, minimal and custom installation |
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Term
If you need a dual boot installation what are the recommendations? |
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Definition
Microsoft recommends each installation be done on a seperate disk to avoid conoflicts with IE and also to install the oldest OS first. |
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Term
Using what installation method you provide an answer file with the correct parameters and place this file on a network share? |
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Definition
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Term
This MS utility works by making an exact image or replica of the computer to be installed on other computers? |
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Definition
Sysprep. NOTE: SYSPREP only clones the machine. You need a 3rd party software to install the clone. It only runs on XP machines and it has additional limitations. |
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Term
Windows 2000,2003 server and newer Windows OS server OS's have this feature that allows you perform several network installations at one time? |
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Definition
Remote Installation Services (RIS) technology, gives administrators the ability to deploy an operating system throughout the enterprise, without the need to physically visit each client computer. |
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Term
How many ways are there to boot from a network? |
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Definition
Either through a boot disk or a built in network device known as boot ROM. |
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Term
It's the process of preparing the partition to store data in a particular fashion? |
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Definition
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Term
A typical sector is how many bytes? |
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Definition
-512 bytes- A sector is a sub-division of a track of a magnetic disk or optical disc. A sector stores a fixed amount of data. The typical formatting of sectors allows holding 512 bytes (e.g. harddisks and diskettes) or 2048 bytes (e.g. optical discs) of data. |
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Term
The space is reserved between sectors for error correction information. It is refered to as: |
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Definition
It's called cyclic redundancy check (CRC). And it's a type of hash function used to produce a checksum – a small, fixed number of bits – against a block of data, such as a packet of network traffic or a block of a computer file. The checksum is used to detect errors after transmission or storage. |
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Term
________ command is used to launch the Windows 2000 installation program? |
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Definition
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Term
This command is used to launch WIN2000 upgrade from WIN9x or a WINNT prompt? |
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Definition
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Term
Name three ways you can connect computers to transfer files without a hub? |
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Definition
Using an Ethernet crossover cable, null modem serial cable or parallel peripheral cable or special-purpose USB cables |
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Term
List common tasks that will affect performance in both Win XP/2000? |
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Definition
Managing virtual memory, disk defragmenting, the use of cache files, managing tem files among others |
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Term
Where can you configure the settings for swap files in XP/2000? |
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Definition
System Control Panel > Advanced |
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Term
When a HD light flickers madly and the system seems slow, this probably means: |
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Definition
You need to defragment because you are experiencing disk thrashing or you have a virus. |
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Term
Defragmenter can be launched using this command: |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
A small amount of memory that is used to hold data that is frequently used. |
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Term
What setting in XP/2000 can you modify to take memory not used by applications, system or data and use it for disk caching? |
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Definition
Changing the Large System Cache entry in the registry. (Only recommended when you have at least 96MB RAM installed in the system) |
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Term
List common locations for temporary files? |
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Definition
C:\temp, C:\tmp, C:\windows\temp or tmp |
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Term
What is an easy way to find where the PC stores temporary files? |
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Definition
RUN>CMD>SET or System properties >Advanced >Environmental Variables |
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Term
What happens when you perform a format? |
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Definition
The magnetic tracks are layed down using concentric circles, splitting pieces of 512 bytes called sectors, creating a FAT and finding bad spots on the surface of the HD. |
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Term
A Plug&Play troubleshooting wizard is included in wich OS's? |
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Definition
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Term
Decreasing a swap file size in XP / 2000 causes? |
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Definition
System reebot. NOTE: this does not happen when you increase the size of the swap file. |
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Term
List the 5 steps for good troubleshooting skills: |
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Definition
(1) Talking / Listening to the customer (2) gathering information (3) eliminating possibilities (4) evaluate results (5) Document your work |
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Term
In XP/2000 this is the file that bootstraps the system? |
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Definition
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Term
This file holds information about what OS's are installed on the PC? |
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Definition
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Term
What does the NTDETECT.COM boot file do? |
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Definition
It is responsible for detecting basic hardware that will be required to start the operating system.Ntdetect.com is invoked by NTLDR, and returns the information it gathers to NTLDR when finished, so that it can then be passed on to Ntoskrnl.exe, the Windows kernel. |
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Term
The following are detected by this file when booting in a WinXP/2000 environment:
* Hardware identification * Hardware date & time * Bus and adapter types * SCSI adapters * Video adapters * Keyboard * Serial and parall |
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Definition
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Term
If you want a SCSI HD to load you need this file to boot? |
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Definition
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Term
This file is the XP/2000 OS kernel: |
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Definition
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Term
Where are the key boot files located (except for NTOSKRNL.EXE)? |
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Definition
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Term
This configuration tool is available in XP but not in 2000, although you can copy it. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Starts win XP/2000 only with the very basic files and drivers needed to load. Very helpful for troubleshooting. |
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Term
What's the function of enable boot logging? |
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Definition
Logs all boot info to a file called NTBTLOG.TXT found on the \WINNT directory |
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Term
What's enable VGA mode at startup? |
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Definition
Starts XP/2000 using a basic VGA driver, the rest is normal. |
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Term
What's "Last Known Good Configuration"? |
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Definition
It restores the registry to a previous state. |
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Term
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Definition
Rarely used. It allows logging just like the startup option "enable boot logging" but in this case you connect a second computer connected via a serial port. |
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Term
What's directory Services Restore Mode? |
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Definition
Directory service is a software application — or a set of applications — that stores and organizes information about a computer network's users and network resources, and that allows network administrators to manage users' access to the resources. -Boots into a mode thath does not load directory services- |
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Term
If Windows and Safe Mode is not booting what are my options? |
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Definition
-You can use the recovery console- The Recovery Console is a feature of the Windows 2000 and Windows XP operating systems. It provides the means for administrators to perform a limited range of tasks using a textual user interface. As its name suggests, its primary function is to enable administrators to recover from situations where Windows does not boot as far as presenting its graphical user interface. |
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Term
How do you run the recovery console? |
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Definition
The recovery console may be entered in one of two ways:(1) From the operating system installation CD-ROM (2) Via the boot-time menu presented by NTLDR.This last option requires the recovery installation by running the winnt32 utility with the /cmdcons switch, which adds the recovery console to the NTLDR menu, ready for when the machine is next bootstrapped. |
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Term
Describe a few useful commands in the recovery console? |
|
Definition
Fixboot, FixMBR, MAP (displays the physical device name of a drive letter), Diskpart (creates or deletes partitions) |
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Term
How do you create WIN2000 boot disks? |
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Definition
To create a set of Setup boot disks for Windows 2000, run the Makeboot.exe tool from the Bootdisk folder on the Windows 2000 CD-ROM: (1)Insert the Windows 2000 CD-ROM in the CD-ROM drive. (2)Click Start, and then click Run (3)In the Open box, type drive:\bootdisk\makeboot a:, where drive is the letter of your CD-ROM drive, and then press ENTER. |
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Term
Automated System Recovery (ASR) does what? How do you run ASR? |
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Definition
It backs up your system partition and creates a recovery disk. You run it using the backup utility found in SYSTEM TOOLS>BACKUP NOTE: The backup tool is not availeble by default in XP Home, you need to extract it using the WIN CD. |
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Term
The eroor STOP: 0x0000007B Inaccesible boot device means? |
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Definition
Windows could not load the Hard Drive disk controller. |
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Term
The messege "A device refered in the Registry cannot be found" means? How do you fix it? |
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Definition
Either a driver or hardware might be causing the problem. You fix it using regedit.exe. for corrupt or invalid entries. |
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Term
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Definition
Page file (Virtual Memory) |
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Term
It's the result of sloppy programming? |
|
Definition
GPF: General Protection Fault |
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Term
An illegal operation means? |
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Definition
That the progam was forced to quit because it did something WIN didn't like. |
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Term
What is a valid working directory? |
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Definition
Some applications use a particular directory to store temporary files, this is the working directory. |
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Term
How do you disable Windows Error Reporting (No GPF or Illegal operation pop up messeges)? |
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Definition
System Properties> Advance >Error Reporting |
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Term
This utility is used to create and display status reports for the HD and can correct file system problems (such as cross linked files)? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe XP/2000 boot sequence? |
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Definition
(1)POST and system poll (2)MBR finds and loads the boot sector (3) MBR loads NTLDR (4) NTLDS switches from real mode to protected mode (5) NTLDR processes BOOT.INI to determine what OS´s are in the system (6) If you choose to load a DOS based OS, NTLDR processes BOOTSECT.DOS (7) NTLDR loads and runs NTDETECT.COM checks for installed devices which in turn collect the info and returns it to NTLDR to pass it to NTOSKRNL.EXE (8)NTLDR loads NTOSKRNL.EXE, HAL.DLL (NTOSKRNL holds the OS kernel and the executive subsystems which parses registry configuration info) (9)NTLDR transfers control to NTOSKRNL.EXE, loads drivers and completes the boot process (10) Winlogon desktop appears |
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Term
What is the command line for backing up your system? |
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Definition
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Term
Where can you find computer management? |
|
Definition
Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Computer Management |
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Term
This 3rd party utility let`s you roll back changes done to the registry? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What sytax do you use to extract a single CAB file? |
|
Definition
If you know which cabinet file contains the file you want to extract, use the following syntax to extract the file:
extract /l |
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Term
How can you know what contents are inside a CAB file? |
|
Definition
To find out what is in your Windows CAB files, use the Extract command to create text files that list the contents:
extract /A /D win95_02.cab>C:\Cabs.txt |
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Term
Where do you find the settings for automatic updates? |
|
Definition
System Properties>Automatic Updates tab |
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Term
Windows backup can be found at? |
|
Definition
START>PROGRAMS>ACCESORIES>SYSTEM TOOLS>BACKUP |
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Term
This type of error ocurrs when a program is accesing memory that another program is using? |
|
Definition
GPF:General Protection Fault |
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Term
What WIN2000 utility do you use to create an ERD? |
|
Definition
(1)Insert a blank floppy disk into the computer click Start>Click Programs>Accessories>System Tools>then Backup.
In the backup window click Tools and then Create an Emergency Repair Disk. |
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Term
The _______ command converts FAT into NTFS |
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Definition
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Term
What command let´s you see the OS version? |
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Definition
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Term
Write the syntax of the CD command to change to the root directory? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name the ATTRIB switches? |
|
Definition
RASH: Read Only, Archive, Sytem & Hidden |
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Term
List common IPCONFIG switches and their function? |
|
Definition
/ALL: full configuration, /Release:releases IP from DHCP server, /Renew:Obtains IP from DHCP server, /Flushdns: flushes DNS cache |
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Term
This command can copy directories and subdirectories? |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a set of rules used by a communications device such as a computer, router or network adapter to allow the device to request and obtain an IP address from a server which has a list of addresses available for assignment. |
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Term
For security, what important switch has to be present when using XCOPY? |
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Definition
the /IO switch as it inherits ownership or permission to access the file. |
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Term
The partition that the OS boots from is designated as? |
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Definition
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|
Term
The first partition created on the HD is called? |
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Definition
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|
Term
How many primary partitions does XP/2000 support? |
|
Definition
Up to 4 partitions on a single drive |
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Term
What´s the difference between user-level and file-level security? |
|
Definition
User level security let´s you specify a password for every shared user, File level Security: specifies who has access to the resource |
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Term
The computer management console can be opened right clicking? |
|
Definition
My Computer icon > Manage |
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|
Term
This tab let´s you see which tasks are open on the machine, they can be running or not respondig? |
|
Definition
The applications tab in task manager (CTRL+ALT+DEL) |
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|
Term
The _______ tab in task manager lets you see the names of all the processes running on the machine, user account that is running the process and resources. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This tab contains info including CPU usage, page file usage as well as memory related info? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This two tabs only appear on XP when using task manager? |
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Definition
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Term
In this tab you can see username, ID, client name and additional info about people connected to the local machines. |
|
Definition
Users tab (which also let´s you disconnect them from your system and sends them a messenge) |
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|
Term
name the two remote connectivity applications WINXP contains by default? |
|
Definition
Remote Desktop Connections and Remote Assistance |
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|
Term
What is the difference between Remote Desktop Connection and Remote Assistance? |
|
Definition
Remote assistance allows the expert and the person in need of help to see the same screen as the cursor moves. Unlike Remote Desktop connection a user must be present to grant control to the expert remote user. |
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Term
ASR consists of what two components? |
|
Definition
A backup of the system partition and a recovery disk. |
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|
Term
How does ASR differ from ERD in Win2000? |
|
Definition
ASR behaves differently from the Emergency Repair Disk feature in Windows 2000 Server, which ASR replaces. Emergency Repair Disk replaces missing or corrupt system files without formatting drives or reconfiguring storage. ASR, by contrast, always formats the boot volume and might format the system volume. |
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|
Term
When should you use the recovery console? |
|
Definition
Microsoft recommends that you use the Recovery Console only after Safe mode and other startup options do not work. |
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|
Term
What is a recommended installation of the recovery console? |
|
Definition
Although you can run the Recovery Console by starting directly from the Windows XP CD, it is generally more convenient to set it up as a startup option on your startup menu. You can install the Recovery Console on your computer to make it available if you cannot restart Windows. You can then select the Recovery Console option from the list of available operating systems during startup. Install the Recovery Console on important servers and on the workstations of IT personnel. |
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Term
Describe the hard drive installation of the recovery console: |
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Definition
o install the Recovery Console, follow these steps: 1. Insert the Windows XP CD into the CD-ROM drive. 2. Click Start, and then click Run. 3. In the Open box, type d:\i386\winnt32.exe /cmdcons where d is the drive letter for the CD-ROM drive. 4. A Windows Setup Dialog Box appears. The Windows Setup Dialog Box describes the Recovery Console option. To confirm the installation, click Yes. 5. Restart the computer. The next time that you start your computer, "Microsoft Windows Recovery Console" appears on the startup menu. |
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Term
How do you use the recovery console directly from the CD? |
|
Definition
To run the Recovery Console from the Windows XP startup disks or the Windows XP CD-ROM, follow these steps:
1. Insert the Windows XP startup disk into the floppy disk drive, or insert the Windows XP CD-ROM into the CD-ROM drive, and then restart the computer.
Click to select any options that are required to start the computer from the CD-ROM drive if you are prompted.
2. When the "Welcome to Setup" screen appears, press R to start the Recovery Console.
3. If you have a dual-boot or multiple-boot computer, select the installation that you must access from the Recovery Console.
4. When you are prompted, type the Administrator password. If the administrator password is blank, just press ENTER.
5. At the command prompt, type the appropriate commands to diagnose and repair your Windows XP installation. |
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|
Term
What options do you have access to in recovery console? |
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Definition
Root directory of all disks, win system directory and removable disks. |
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|
Term
Are you allowed to copy files from a HD to a floppy or other media in the Recovery console? |
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Definition
No, you are not allowed to copy from HD to floppy. Floppy to HD is allowed. |
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|
Term
What other source is available to run recovery console? |
|
Definition
Fortunately, the Recovery Console is hidden in a free, downloadable Microsoft program called Setup Disks for Floppy Boot Install. Visit Microsoft's site to download the setup-disk file that works with XP Professional; available too is the XP Home version, which will also work for Windows 2000, Me, and 98.
When you run the download, it puts the XP installation program, including the Recovery Console, onto a set of six floppy disks. To get to the Recovery Console, boot from the first floppy, and then swap disks as prompted until you reach the 'Welcome to Setup' screen. Press r to open the Recovery Console. |
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Term
List two important recovery console commands: |
|
Definition
Fixboot:Writes a new partition boot sector to the system partition. The fixboot command is only available when you are using the Recovery Console
Fixmbr:Repairs the master boot record of the boot disk. The fixmbr command is only available when you are using the Recovery Console. |
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|
Term
In case you encounter "NTLDR NTOSKRNL missing or corrupt" how do you use the recovery console? |
|
Definition
Copy the below two files to the root directory of the primary hard
disk. In the below example we are copying these files from the CD-ROM drive letter "E". This letter may be different on your computer.
copy e:\i386\ntldr c:
copy ntdetect.com c:
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|
Term
How do you open Dr. Watson and what is it for? |
|
Definition
RUN>drwtsn32.exe This utility interdcepts all error conditions and displays a slew of information that can be used to troubleshoot the problem. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SFC (System File Checker) is a good utility to run when you suspect that system files have been somehow corrupted. It validates the digital signatures of all of the Windows system files, and restores any that it finds are incorrect. The most common usage of SFC is this: SFC /scannow |
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|
Term
What's the name of typewritter quality of printing? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This is dot-matrix print quality? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This term refers to the speed of daisy wheel printers and dot matrix? |
|
Definition
Characters per second (cps) |
|
|
Term
Approximately how many nozzles does a bubble jet printer contain? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A _________ contains a print head and ink supply? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Name two ink injection technologies used in bubble jet printers? |
|
Definition
HP developed a vaporizing method and Epson uses a piezoelectric element that flexes and pushes ink outward. |
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|
Term
This is the component that moves back and forth during printing? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This motor is manufactured to move in very small increments each time it's activated: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does a maintenance station do to a printer? |
|
Definition
It contains a small suction pump and ink absorbing pad that cleans the ink nozzles and also serves as a place for the print head to rest. |
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|
Term
These belts are driven by the carriage motor and move the print head back and forth across the page while it prints? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
These are several rubber rollers with a flat spot and are the first in the page feed mechanism to feed pages to the printer? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
They help keep the rest of the pages in place usually made of cork or rubber: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This element turns the pickup rollers: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This component tells the printer when it's out of paper? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
These circuits coordinates movement of componens and monitors the health of the printer by reporting info back to the PC? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
It's commonly called port and makes the physical connection to whatever signal is coming from the PC? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
These circuits convert 110/220V house current into the voltages the jet printer uses (12/5V)? |
|
Definition
Power circuits and transformer |
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|
Term
Name the two types of laser printers? |
|
Definition
Those that use electro photographic (EP) print process and LED process. |
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|
Term
List the eight basic laser printer components: |
|
Definition
Toner cartridge, laser scanner, high voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly, transfer corona, fusing assembly, printer controller circuitry and ozone filter. |
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|
Term
It carries the toner until used by the EP process? |
|
Definition
Developer roll also called carrier roll. |
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|
Term
This drum is coated with photosensitive material that can hold a charge when exposed to light (but cannot hold a charge when exposed)? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
It scrapes of the used toner off photosensitive drum to keep it clean? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This component provides high voltages required on the EP process and converts house current (120V) into higher voltages the printer can use? |
|
Definition
HVPS: High Voltage Power Supply |
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|
Term
It supplies power for components that require low voltages and also runs the fans that cool the internal printer components? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This printer device is given a High voltage charge which is transfered to the paper. It's located in a special notch in the floor of the laser printer? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This element of the corona assembly drains away the charge imparted to the paper by the corona? |
|
Definition
Static charge eliminator strip |
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|
Term
List the components of the paper transport assembly and mention their functions: |
|
Definition
Feed roller pushes paper into printer, registration rollers synchronize paper movement with image information process in the cartridge, fuser roller: applies pressure and heat to fuse the plastic toner to paper. |
|
|
Term
List three main parts of the fuser: |
|
Definition
a halogen heating lamp, Teflon coated aluminum fusing roller and pressure roller. |
|
|
Term
Converting signals from the computer into signals for the various assemblies in the laser printer is known as: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This device removes ozone gas from inside the printer when produced. It's commonly found on printers that have a corona wire? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Charlie Can Walk, Dance and Talk French means? |
|
Definition
EP print process. Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring and fusing. |
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|
Term
What goes on in the cleaning step of the EP process? |
|
Definition
A rubber blade scrapes toner left on the print drum into a used toner receptacle and fluorescent lamp discharges the remaining charge on the photosensitive drum. |
|
|
Term
Describe the charging step of the EP process: |
|
Definition
The charging corona uses high voltage to apply negative charge to the surface of the photosensitive drum (-600VDC) |
|
|
Term
Explain the writing step: |
|
Definition
A laser is turned on and aimed at the EP drum (light affects the drum by not being able to hold sufficient charge) which in turn reduces the charge to around -100VDC and draws the image to be printed. |
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|
Term
Describe the developing step of the EP process: |
|
Definition
The developing roller acquires -600VDC and toner sticks to this roller. When the roller rotates toward the photosensitive drum the toner is attracted to the areas that have been exposed to the laser (-100VDC) and repelled from the unexposed areas. |
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|
Term
Describe the transferring step of the EP process: |
|
Definition
The transfer corona wire or roller acquires a positive charge (+600VDC) and applies it to the paper. In turn the paper pulls the toner from the photosensitive drum. Once the paper moves past the corona wire the static eliminator strip removes the charge away. |
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|
Term
Describe the fusing step of the EP process: |
|
Definition
The toner image is made permanent. The registration rollers push paper towards the fuser rollers. The preheated (350F) fuser roller melts the polyester resin of the toner and the rubberized pressure rollers press it permanently into the paper. Once the paper exits the fuser a trip sensor tells the printer to finish the EP process with the cleaning step. |
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|
Term
What is the difference between charge corona and transfer corona? |
|
Definition
Charge corona charges the EP drum with -600VDC and transfer corona charges paper with +600VDC |
|
|
Term
List other types of printers: |
|
Definition
Solid ink printers, thermal printers and dye sublimation printers. |
|
|
Term
These printers give outstanding quality images? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
These type of printers print an entire line at one time and are better for graphics companies that need true color. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fax machines are perfect examples of these types of printers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This language converts information from the computer to signals the printer can understand? |
|
Definition
Page Description Language |
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|
Term
Name two popular page description languages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the weight property applied to paper? |
|
Definition
It's the weight in pounds of 500 sheets of paper of the standard size. For bond paper that size is 17x22 but manufacturers use a 17x22 standard if you divide this standard by 4 you get the 8.5 x 11 size we are all familiar with. |
|
|
Term
What is a charge coupled device CCD or contact image sensor CIS? |
|
Definition
They are devices that convert photons into electricity, and they are used in scanners. |
|
|
Term
List three common test for troubleshooting printers? |
|
Definition
Engine self test (allowing the printer to create a test page), half self test (printing a test page and stopping by interrupting the process in order to pinpoint the error and secret self test is printing a test page directly from printer's memory. |
|
|
Term
Any laser printer contains how many standard assemblies (parts)? |
|
Definition
8 and this number refers to parts such as corona wire, rollers etc. |
|
|
Term
Using this windows component (printer communication language) printers work by using the PC processing power instead of their own. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On a laser printer pins 1,5,9 have this volt readings? |
|
Definition
pin 1 +5V ,pin 5 -5V,pin 9 +24V |
|
|
Term
What is centralized processing? |
|
Definition
Allows a program to run on one computer (usually a mainframe) |
|
|
Term
What is distributed processing? |
|
Definition
Allows a user at one PC to use a program on another computer as back end process and store information. |
|
|
Term
What five elements constitute a network? |
|
Definition
Servers, clients or workstations, resources, network operating system and a shared medium. |
|
|
Term
Depending on their main purpose a server can be? |
|
Definition
Multipurpose or single purpose. E.g. File servers or print servers, dedicated / non dedicated. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Basically a normal PC except for the fact that they are connected to a network and offer additional resources. Also known as client computers. |
|
|
Term
What is a network resource? |
|
Definition
Any item that can be used on a network E.g. Printers, files, applications, disk storage etc. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A set price f the application according to the number of users. |
|
|
Term
A NOS (network OS) runs on? |
|
Definition
It runs on the server to control the communication with resources and flow of data. Some popular NOS are WIN2000 Server, Unix and Netware |
|
|
Term
Name the two types of resource access models: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a logical and phisical topology? |
|
Definition
Physical describes how cables are run. Logical how network messages travel. |
|
|
Term
Name 5 network topologies: |
|
Definition
BUS, STAR, RING, MESH, HYBRID |
|
|
Term
It;s the simplest physical topology, cable systems are easy to install and are the cheapest to install? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This topology branches each network off a device called hub making it easy to add a new workstation? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Name one difference between a HUB and a SWITCH? |
|
Definition
The primary difference is that a switch makes a virtual connection between the sender and receiver instead of simply sending each massege to every port. |
|
|
Term
In this topology each computer connects to two other computers joining them in a circle and creating a unidirectional path where messages move from workstation to workstation: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The__________topology is the simplest logical topology in terms of data flow but complex in physical design. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It takes the best features of all other topologies and exploits them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Summarize the entire OSI model: |
|
Definition
Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link, Physical layer. |
|
|
Term
This layer describes how data gets transmitted over a physical medium, translates data into electrical pulses? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
It describes a unique physical address (MAC), arranges data into chunks called frames, allows error checking and indicates the beginning and end of the data stream? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This layer is able to judge the best network path for data based on net conditions and other variables, addresses messages and translates logical addresses and names into physical addresses. Organizes layers in chunks called packets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This layer's most important job is error checking and reliable end to end communications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This layer enables network procedures such as identifying passwords, logons, network monitoring and recovery from network failure? |
|
Definition
Session layer responsible for obtaining communications session. |
|
|
Term
Determines the look or format of data, network security, file transfers, manages data compression, data translation and encryption. |
|
Definition
Presentation layer E.g. ASCII -->ABC |
|
|
Term
Allows access to network services , file services, messege services and print services. Workstations interact with this layer: |
|
Definition
Applications layer (not like Word or spreadsheets) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Open Systems Interconnect |
|
|
Term
IEEE 802 project defines? |
|
Definition
The set of standards specify certain types of networks. |
|
|
Term
Name two predominant 802 network architectures? |
|
Definition
802.3 CSMA/CD and 802.5 Token Ring |
|
|
Term
This technology is called contention, it has been amended to include speeds up to 10Gbps and specifies that every PC can transmit at any time? |
|
Definition
Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detect [CSMA /CD] |
|
|
Term
This layer is subdivided into a unique physical address known as MAC for each NIC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This technology scales well, uses token passing technology to pass data on the cable, it eliminates collisions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you call a method of creating a standard where everyone was using the technology and simply declared it a standard? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List 4 major network communication protocols in use today? |
|
Definition
TCP/IP, IPX/SPX, NetBUI/NetBIOS, AppleTalk |
|
|
Term
It's a collection of protocols and the only protocol suite used on the internet. Designed to get information delivered even in the event of failure of the network and keeps appraised of network changes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decribe the name and function of a few of the more important protocols in TCP/IP? |
|
Definition
IP: Handles movement of data between computers and network mode addressing. Deals with destination. TCP: Handles the reliable delivery of data. ICMP: Internet Control Messege Protocol transmits error messeges and network statistics. UDP: User Datagram Protocol: similar in function to TCP, faster but less reliable. |
|
|
Term
UDP: User Datagram Protocol is similar un function to _____but less reliable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the default communication protocol for Novell Netware OS before Netware5? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
IPX is analogous to _____ as SPX is to _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Together this protocols make up a suite that's very good with LAN's, because it contains no network layer protocol, it cannot be routed and thus cannot be used in a WAN. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It's a proprietary network architecture for MAC and uses CSMA /CA (Collision Avoidance) meaning that if there is no traffic it sends a small amount of data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Together they ensure that a network address is unique across the entire network in either TCP/IP or IPX |
|
Definition
The network and node portion |
|
|
Term
This is a number assigned to the network segment to which the station is connected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It's the unique number that identifies that station on the segment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
00004567:006A7C11FB56 is an example of? |
|
Definition
IPX address
00004567:006A7C11FB56 The first portion is the network address and the second portion divided by the colon is the node portion. |
|
|
Term
199.217.67.34
255.255.255.0 subnet mask is the notation for __________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a 255.255.255.0 subnet what would be the network portion and the node portion using this IP address: 199.217.67.34 |
|
Definition
199.217.67 is the network and 34 is the node. Only applies to 255.255.255.0 subnets |
|
|
Term
An IP is written in ___________numbers or up to 3 decimal digits called __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each decimal number in an IP address is typically a number in the range of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a subnet mask contains 255.255.255.0 in a position (corresponding to a binary number of all ones 1.1.1.1)the first three octets of the IP address are _____ and the last portion is the _________. |
|
Definition
Network and node portion. |
|
|
Term
This class of TCP/IP classification is for very large networks only. The default network portion is 8 bits leaving 24 for host identification. The higher order bit is allways zero. E.g. 0.0.0.0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Designed for medium sized networks. The default network portion is 416bits and 16bits for host identification. The high order bits are allways binary 10. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Designed for smaller networks the default network portion is the first 24bits leaving 8 for host ID. High order bits are always 110. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This class is used for multicast and cannot be used for networks. The high order buts are always 1110. |
|
Definition
Class D. Multicast is the delivery of information to a group of destinations simultaneously using the most efficient strategy to deliver the messages over each link of the network only once, creating copies only when the links to the destinations split. |
|
|
Term
Used for experimental purposes, the higher order bits are always 1111. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name to organizations that allocate bits to form an IP address structure. |
|
Definition
InterNIC: Internet Net Info Center & ICANN :Internet Corp For Assigned Names and Numbers |
|
|
Term
This IP address does not generate network traffic, it tests that TCP/IP is correctly installed? |
|
Definition
127.0.0.1 is your machine otherwise known as localhost |
|
|
Term
What's the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)? |
|
Definition
Because available IP addresses are scarce you can use a private address on your own network but you will not be able to connect to the internet (because the IP will probably be taken) and computers on your private network are not going to be routed by internet routers. If you want to connect your private network to the internet you need NAT to do so. |
|
|
Term
What do network architectures define? |
|
Definition
Hardware, software and layout in terms of bandwidth (or how much data a particular network can handle) |
|
|
Term
Name the major architectures that we use today? |
|
Definition
Ethernet, Token Ring and ARCNet |
|
|
Term
Name 3 popular Ethernet standards? |
|
Definition
10base5 (10Mbps@500mts), 10base2(10Mbps@200mts), 10baseT (10Mbps using twisted pair cables) |
|
|
Term
It uses a physical star topology with logical bus topology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It uses a physical star logical ring topology. All workstations are cabled to a multi station unit (MAU)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Developed in 1977 this very popular and flexible network architecture used coaxial cables, physical star configurations and cheap coaxial cable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name five types of cabling methods: |
|
Definition
Coaxial, twisted pair, fiber optic, RS-232 and wireless |
|
|
Term
Contains a center conductor made of copper and a Teflon or PVC cover. Known as Thinnet, cheapernet or thicknet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coaxial cable networking (Thinnet)usually uses _______connectors and with thick Ethernet uses a _________clamp. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coaxial and other types of cabling can be graded as "plenum coated" What does that mean? |
|
Definition
The coating does not produce toxic gas while burned. This type of wiring is mandated by the electrical code.Plenum rated cable has slow-burning, fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke |
|
|
Term
A very popular method of cabling because it's flexible, cheap, consisting of several pairs of wire twisted around each other within an insulated jacket. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the two twisted pair classification types: |
|
Definition
UTP and STP unshielded and shielded types |
|
|
Term
How many catogories of UTP cable are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe a common UTP category used today? |
|
Definition
CAT5 is able to transmit data at 100Mbps, contains 4 twisted pairs of copper wire to give the most protection. |
|
|
Term
What type of connectors does a UTP/STP use? |
|
Definition
RJ11, RJ45, IDC (IBM Data Connector), UDC (Universal Data Connector also known as hermaphroditic connector) |
|
|
Term
This connector is commonly used with IBM token ring technology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It consists of a thin fiberglass or plastic fiber, provides transmission speeds of 100Mbps - 10Gbps at a maximum distance of several miles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of connectors do fiber optic cables use? |
|
Definition
(1) SC: Square connector / subscriber connector (2) ST:straight tip with a similar mechanisim to a BNC (3) MIC connector [image][image][image] |
|
|
Term
What other type of cable is usually found in old mainframe computers? |
|
Definition
RS-232 serial cables[image] |
|
|
Term
Wireless networks can transmit through the air by what medium? |
|
Definition
Infrared light, laser light, narrow band radio, microwave or spread spectrum radiowaves. |
|
|
Term
What is singlemode / multimode in fiberoptics? |
|
Definition
In a multi-mode cable, light travels down the fiber cable in multiple paths. Essentially, the light beam is reflected off the cladding (material surrounding the actual fiber) as it travels down the core. In a single-mode cable, light travels thru the cable without interacting with the glass cladding (material surrounding the actual fiber), maintaining signal quality for great distances. |
|
|
Term
How does data travel on a network cable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In order for two computers to send and receive data, what factors must the NIC agree on? |
|
Definition
(a) Maximum size of data frames (frame is a data packet of fixed or variable length which has been encoded with a header and a trailer), (b)time needed between transmissions, (c)amount of time to wait before sending confirmation,(d) amount of data a card can hold, (e) speed at which data transmits. |
|
|
Term
Name a couple of features in a NIC that can increase performance: |
|
Definition
DMA channels, using shared memory adapters (NIC's with RAM), shared system memory (using PC's RAM), BUS mastering (bypassing CPU and moving directly into memory) |
|
|
Term
What is an access method? |
|
Definition
The access method defines how signals are put on the network media. |
|
|
Term
Name popular access methods: |
|
Definition
CSMA / CD /CA, Token Ring and Polling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It's a methos that requires a central intelligent device to enable it to make decisions E.g. wheather it allows one PC to transmit |
|
|
Term
What are network connectivity devices and give examples: |
|
Definition
Network connectivity devices allow communications to break the bounderies of local networks. Examples include: repeaters, hubs, bridges, routers, gateways and brouters. |
|
|
Term
It's essentially a multiport repeater and can be active or passive? |
|
Definition
-HUB. An active hub takes the incoming frames, amplifies the signal, and forwards it to all other ports, a passive hub simply splits the signal and forwards it. |
|
|
Term
They examine the header and forward t properly to the right post there is essentially a virtual connection between sender and receiver? |
|
Definition
-Switch- Similar to bridges; they also keep a table with MAC addresses per port to make switching decisions. The main difference is that a switch has more ports than a bridge, and instead of interconnecting networks it is typically used to connect hosts and servers like a hub does, but offers dedicated bandwidth per port, hence offers much higher network performance than hubs. |
|
|
Term
It operates in the data link layer, used to divide network segments for performance, CANNOT move data across multiple networks simultaneously, CANNOT connect to dissimilar networks. |
|
Definition
-BRIDGE- Used to increase network performance by segmenting networks in separate collision domains, or increase the network size. Bridges are not aware of upper-layer protocols such as TCP/IP or IPX/SPX. They keep a table with MAC addresses of all nodes, and on which segment they are located. |
|
|
Term
Connect multiple network types, determine the best way for sending data, using routing tables to store network addresses, can segment large networks and filter out noise? |
|
Definition
-Routers- Routers are used to interconnect multiple (sub-)networks and route information between these networks by choosing an optimal path ("route") to the destination based on addressing information from protocols such as TCP/IP or IPX/SPX. Router are also typically used to connect a LAN to a WAN or another LAN, which can use different technologies such as Token Ring, Ethernet, ISDN, Frame Relay etc. |
|
|
Term
Combination of ROUTER+BRIDGE, route on specific protocol and other protocols are bridged instead of being dropped. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can a BROUTER connect dissimilar network segments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
They can connect dissimilar network environments and architectures. Are frequently found in the applications layer, where it repackages data to meet the requirements of destination addresses. And give an example: |
|
Definition
-GATEWAYS- Used to connect networks with dissimilar technologies, for example a Microsoft TCP/IP network and NetWare IPX/SPX network can be connected using a gateway. Typically implemented in software on a router. |
|
|
Term
It uses existing phone line from your home to the phone company to carry digital signals at higher speeds. It "piggybacks" a digital signal on the line used for analog communications. It's affected by the distance between the home/office and the central t |
|
Definition
-DSL- Digital Subscriber Line or Digital Subscriber Loope |
|
|
Term
It uses the specification known as Data Over Cable Service Internet Specification (DOCSIS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It comes in two forms local and wide area, uses radio frequency to communicate between PC and ISP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It conver an entire metropolitan area from a few strategically placed towers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
They are in charge for planning how to transmit data across a network's lines? |
|
Definition
Network protocols such as PPP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Service Set Identifier it's a wireless network name. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Part of the TCP/IP suite of protocols necessary to connect and use the internet. It allows you to connect to the internet itself rather than logging through an ISP host PC and using commands thru the shell. It's primary use has been to connect computers using phone lines. |
|
|
Term
This command can illustrate how many routers are involved in your internet traffic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hubs work on the __________layer, switches on the _______layer and routers on the ________layer. |
|
Definition
physical, data link and network |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It's the network service used to translate hostnames (computers) to IP addresses.It also lists mail exchange servers accepting e-mail for each domain. |
|
|
Term
What command can find the IP address if you know the DNS? |
|
Definition
NSLOOKUP www.google.com in the command screen returns: 66.102.7.99 |
|
|
Term
.COM, .INFO, .BIZ are examples of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What port was created to handle DNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This symbol is used to turn any line into a comment in hostfiles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Usually static hosts are stored in what windows directory? |
|
Definition
c:\system32\drivers\etc\hosts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A Software Port (usually just called a 'port') is a virtual data connection that can be used by programs to exchange data directly, instead of going through a file or other temporary storage location. The most common of these are TCP and UDP ports which are used to exchange data between computers on the Internet. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Servers responsable for address resolutions in a determined zone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It's made of three parts: A primary server (responsible for updates) a secondary server (for read only copies) and a caching server (which has no stored DNS information) it just builds up this information over time as it caches the results of queries ofter the server starts. |
|
|
Term
Part of the TCP/IP and allows the transferring of files between PC's, it runs on ports 20 &21? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HTTPS is a combination of HTTP and? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It allows messeges to be stored on an email server and it's counterpart is POP3? What port does it run on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It's the default communication protocol for Netware before Netware5? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To access email you typically use IMAP/POP but to send email you use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It secures messeges by operating betweeen the application layer (HTTP protocol) and transport layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It functions at the application layer providing terminal emulation capabilities? What port does it use? |
|
Definition
Telnet and it runs on port 23 |
|
|
Term
It's the alternative to DNS and the MS equivalent to a hosts file is LMHOSTS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This network is geographically confined within a small space (room, floor a building)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This command is used to verefy entries on a DNS server? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You use this hardware connectivity device to transfer email between dissimilar networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TFTP (a derivate of FTP) is commonly used to provide startup configuration to devices lacking OS's and uses what port? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Transfer email between email servers |
|
|
Term
DNS zone files contain a number of entries known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List common DNS record types: |
|
Definition
SOA record, NS record, A-record, Cname record, MX record, Hinfo & PTR record |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SOA: Start of Authority identifies the zone and other parameters. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Specifies the other name servers in the domain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Address Record: Holds the IP of the name. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Canonical Name record allows you to specify more than one name for the TCP/IP address. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Identifies the mail exchange name of the host that processes mail for the domain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Host record specifies the TCP/IP address for a specified host. Static TCP/IP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pointer records are for reverse lookup. Specifying the IP address in reverse order and the corresponding hostname. |
|
|
Term
A non-WINS client cannot directly communicate with a WINS server to resolve for a name, it needs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a host is unable to communicate by using host names or Fully Qualified Domain Names but still able to communicate if IP address is used, this usually points to a ________ related problem. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fully Qualified Domain Name is an unambiguous domain name that specifies the nodes position in the DNS tree hierarchy absolutely. Example: myhost.example.com. There can be another host in the world called "myhost" but only one myhost.example.com. A dot at the end of the domain name indicates a FQDN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A unique name by which a network attached device is known on a network. On the internet "hostname or domain name are often used interchangably" |
|
|
Term
To use NSLOOKUP interactively you use? |
|
Definition
NSLOOKUP set all to enter the shell and change servers. |
|
|
Term
It transmits unencrypted ASCII passwords over the network and offers no security? |
|
Definition
PAP: Pasword Authentication Protocol (just a password typed on a Telnet console for example) |
|
|
Term
How does CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) work? |
|
Definition
(1) After computers connect to the server it send a challenge to the client. (Challenge means a secret that the two computers must know and it's a calculation)(2) The challenge is unencrypted and sent back to the server (3) Server compares values and if a match occurs grants authorization (automatic after configured) (4) At random intervals a server sends new challenge. |
|
|
Term
It's a three way handshake usually embedded in other protocols commonly PPP/PPPOe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do certificates work? |
|
Definition
A server or a Certifying Authority (CA) will issue a certificate that will be accepted by the challenging system. Like the hall passes in school. When trying to log on, a security server issues a certificate according to the Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) The client then sends the valid certificate to the application server and grants access. |
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Term
This type of authentication is similar to certificates because they contain the access privileges of the token bearer as part of the token? |
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Definition
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Term
Developed by MIT it uses a key distribution center (KDC) that authenticates the principal (user, program or system) and issues a ticket? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Security devices that you can carry with you that display a randomly generated code. |
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Term
List common extensions that should NOT be allowed on an email? |
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Definition
BAT, COM, EXE, HLP, PIF, SCR |
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Term
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Definition
non-solicited pop up ads and surfing information to marketers. |
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Term
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Definition
Software that hides information from the OS by not appearing in task manager or connections that aren't displayed in the NETSTAT to mask viruses or other means of attacking entity. |
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Term
What is a common symptom of a virus? |
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Definition
Unusual activity on the system disk. |
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Term
This programs enter the system or network under the guise of another program and can create back doors or replace valid programs? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Self contained and can reproduce itself. Does not need an application to be transported. |
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Term
Programs that aren't viruses or Trojan horses are called? |
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Definition
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Term
Firewalls can function in what ways? |
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Definition
As pocket filters, proxy firewalls, stateful inspections. |
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Term
It's an intermediary between your network and any other network. They are used to process requests from an outside network. It examines data and makes decisions to forward it or refuse it. This process includes hiding IP addresses? |
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Definition
Proxy firewalls. Unlike its packet-filtering cousin, this type of firewall does more than simply block port access. Instead, it acts as a proxy server; processing access requests on behalf of the network on which it is located. This protects individual computers on the network, because they never interact directly with incoming client requests. |
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Term
Statesful inspection and stateful packet filtering means? |
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Definition
Analyzing communications channels by using records of every communication taken place to detect patterns. |
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Term
Name two types of file system protection that FAT provides? |
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Definition
Share level and user level |
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Term
What type of security does NTFS actually offer? |
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Definition
Individualized security because files and volumes can each have their own security. NTFS tracks permissions using access control lists and allows encryption. |
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Term
It's part of WAP and provides authentication, encryption and data integrity for wireless devices? |
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Definition
WTLS : Wireless Transport Layer Security |
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Term
Mention three signal modulation techniques used in 802.11 standards? |
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Definition
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Term
Accomplishes communication by breaking data into sub signals and transmitting them simultaneously on different frequencies? |
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Definition
OFDM: Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing |
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Term
It hops communications over a range of predefined frequencies synchronized at both ends? |
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Definition
FHSS: Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum |
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Term
It communicates by adding the data that is to be transmitted to a higher speed transmission, this transmission contains redundant information to ensure data accuracy? |
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Definition
DSSS: Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum |
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Term
This wireless technology is similar ro TCP/IP? |
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Definition
WAP: Wireless Access Protocol |
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Term
This wireless security protocol supports 64,128, 256 encryption? |
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Definition
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Term
An improvement over WEP that implements 802.11 standards? |
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Definition
WPA: WiFi Protected Access |
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Term
Name three elements for physical security? |
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Definition
(1) Making location less tempting (2) Detecting penetration (what is missins, who was involved) (3) Recovery (how to recover) |
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Term
Name three methods of encryption? |
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Definition
Hashing, Symmetric and Asymmetric |
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Term
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Definition
Process of converting a message or data into a numeric value. They can be one way or two way. One-way does not allow a message to be decoded back to the original value. Two way allows it. |
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Term
Produces 160 bit one way hash value and was designed to ensure the integrity of the value? |
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Definition
SHA: Secure Hash Algorithm |
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Term
In asymmetric algorithms how are keys distributed? |
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Definition
There are two keys: a private and a public key. Both ends have both. |
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Term
Are partial backups intended for IMMEDIATE use. Servers include a journaled file system to restore the system state to a working state. This are called? |
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Definition
Working copies or shadow copies |
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Term
This type of backup allows media to be protected in a reasonably protected environment in the building? |
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Definition
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Term
Refers to a location away from the PC center where paper copies and backup media is kept? |
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Definition
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Term
What three methods for backup exist on most systems? |
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Definition
Full backup, Incremental and differential. |
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Term
Incremental backup works by? |
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Definition
Copying only files that changed since last backup (whatever type it might be) |
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Term
Differential backups works by? |
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Definition
Copying files that changed and copying files that didn't change since last FULL backup. |
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Term
An incident response policy establishes what guidelines? |
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Definition
WHat agencies should be contacted in case of an accident, procedures and secure evidence, list of information to collect, guidelines on how to handle the incident and outside experts who can be used to address issues. |
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Term
List popular data access models? |
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Definition
Bell-LaPadulla, Biba, Clark-Wilson, Information Flow Model, Non-Interference Model. |
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Term
This data access model talks about having an upper bound and lower bound and only allowed to access information at your level.Deals only with confidentiality |
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Definition
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Term
Integrity is primordial, similar to Bell-LaPadula model? |
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Definition
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Term
It allows separation of duties, all transactions have audit files and mechanisms to report modifications (think of software developers where you can check out code form the library and use it but can't modify it and return it. Only authorized people can. |
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Definition
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Term
This model creates versions and protects original information from being permanently modified. |
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Definition
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Term
In this model if a higher level user changes information lower level doesn't know until published? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Removing or usable data (store it or destroy it) |
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Term
What three types of updates should you be aware of? |
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Definition
Network device, application and OS updates. |
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Term
Your email system error log reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log in. What's the name of the attack? |
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Definition
Software exploitation attack |
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Term
A security baseline defines? |
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Definition
The level of security that will be implemented |
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Term
This new security standard has seven evaluation assurance levels (EAL) from 1-7? |
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Definition
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Term
XP server 2003, Red Hat Enterprise have what level in the CC security standard? |
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Definition
EAL 4 Recommended for commercial systems |
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Term
When hardening a system such as Win2000 name three protocols that are prone to be attack sources? |
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Definition
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Term
All UNIX security is handled at? |
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Definition
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Term
What should you add to secure a Linux system? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Low level logging packages, wrappers provide detailed logging by using a specific protocol. Each protocol or port must have a wrapper installed for it. |
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Term
How do you harden Novell Netware? |
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Definition
With a combination of access controls, user rights and authentication. Like Active Directory in the MS environment Netware uses (NDS) NetWare Directory Services and e-directory to maintain rights, access and usage. |
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Term
NTFS tracks security access controls in this list? |
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Definition
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Term
NTFS offers which permissions? |
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Definition
Full control, modify, read and execute, list folder contents, read and write. |
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Term
Unix uses this three attributes to files, folders or directories in it's granular access control? |
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Definition
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Term
What Unix protocol allows systems to view the server or remote desktop storage as part of the local client? |
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Definition
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Term
List a few options of group policies? |
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Definition
Roaming profiles, assigning and publishing software (centrally managed), folder redirection (routes selected folders elsewhere in the net usually used on roaming profiles) and security settings (account policies and encryption) |
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Term
What is a good 3rd party vulnerability scanner tool? |
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Definition
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Term
This attack refers to gaining access to a network and may allow a certain user to log without password or gain administrator rights. BO2K is a popular program in this type of attacks. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Posing as legitimate in order to gain a user name and password. It's methods include DNS spoofing to create websites that appear to be legitimate. |
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Term
A man in the middle attack is? |
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Definition
Interception of information between client-server in order to understand as much possible the communication parameters. E.g. WiFi craking using snifers. |
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Term
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Definition
Interception of information and resending it hoping to be validated by the authentication system and circumvent any time sensitivity. E.g. Resending certificates |
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Term
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Definition
An overwhelming attack using false requests to slowdown the server and eventually the network. |
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Term
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Definition
Distributed DoS where zombie PC's triggered to attack a single server. |
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Term
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Definition
In this attack the client sends ACK packets to open a normal TCP session but the server opens the session awaiting for communication to continue. This never happens and the communication is in an idle mode, slowing the rest of the network. |
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Term
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Definition
Intercepting a valid TCP number sequence to gain legitimate access. |
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Term
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Definition
Means disconnecting the client very quickly without the server knowing about the disconnection. Then you can clone the IP address and gain access to the server. |
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Term
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Definition
It targets either a maintenance protocol or a UDP service in order to initiate a DoS attack, overloading the system. Since UDP performs a similar function to TCP. |
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Term
What is the function of the ICMP protocol? |
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Definition
Transmits error messeges and gives network statistics. Also part of TCP/IP, associated with echoing. |
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Term
How does an ICMP attack operate? |
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Definition
It involves sending a ping request to a group of hosts in the network (sending back traffic information indicating status to the originator)To block it you should prohibit ICMP traffic through a router. Also, an ICMP tunneling attack can be used as a communications channel to perpetrate a Trojan horse or other malicious packet. |
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Term
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Definition
An infrastructure that allows you to implement specific configurations for users and computers, group policy is one of a group of management technologies collectively known as IntelliMirror which users with consistent access to applications, application setting, roaming profiles and user data. |
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Term
This feature of group policy facilitates the management of registry bases policies. ADM files are used to deploy changes directly into the registry and also create custom templates. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the command for the group policy editor? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What options are commonly available under the computer configuration settings in gpedit.msc? |
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Definition
Software settings, administrative templates, Windows settings, scripts and security settings. |
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Term
Scripts in GPEDIT.MSC allow you to? |
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Definition
Run a program when a PC starts or shutdowns. |
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Term
Implement a successful Group Policy to a laptop. |
|
Definition
Under Computer configuration>Security settings configure the following: (1) Enforce password history (8passwords (user has to change passwords 8 times before he can use the same old one)(2)Account lockout locks the PC after a number of invalid attempts (3) Reset lockout enables the user to try password again after "n" minutes |
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Term
Local policies contain these subsets? |
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Definition
Auditing policy, user rights assignment, security options. |
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Term
Auditing policy works by? |
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Definition
Logging events such as successful access attempts, failed or both. |
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Term
This local policy determines which users or groups have logon rights or privileges on the PC? |
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Definition
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|
Term
This local policy enable or disables security settings for the PC, such as floppy, CDROM access, driver installation, digital signing of data, etc. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name 4 major classes of fire extinguishers? |
|
Definition
A: wood and paper, B: Flammable liquids, C: Electrical Fires, D: Flammable metals |
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|
Term
How do you discharge a capacitor? |
|
Definition
You need a resistor with a rating of 100Ω per volt 3 watts or more and would connect the resistor across the leads of the capacitor. |
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Term
How do you discharge a CRT monitor? |
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Definition
You attach a resistor to the flyback transformer's charging capacitor to release high voltage electrical charge. You use a high voltage probe (a needle, gauge and wire with alligator clip) |
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Term
What are common dangerous substances found on PC's and electronics? |
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Definition
Lead, carcinogens, phosphorous, mercury etc. |
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|
Term
You can clean keyboards by submerging them in ? |
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Definition
Destilled demineralized water |
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Term
To clean electronic connectors you can use? |
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Definition
Distilled, denatured isopropyl alcohol to take away the oxidation. |
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Term
|
Definition
Occupational Safety and Health Administration |
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Term
An electrical component can be damaged with_____V current. |
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Definition
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|
Term
You can substitute anti static spray with? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name three types of bateries? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Most people feel an electrical shock at? |
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Definition
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|
Term
According to EPA, which types of batteries are not considered environmental hazards? |
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Definition
Alkaline and NiMH batteries |
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|
Term
What component tells the CPU how to interact with the rest of the PC? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following IEEE standards specifies a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable and a speed restriction of 10Mbps: 802.1, 802.2, 802.3 or 802.4? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the difference between incremental and differential backup? |
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Definition
Incremental: Backs up files that have changed since the last backup (whatever type of backup it is) and Differential: backs up files (that have either changed or not) since the last FULL BACKUP. |
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|
Term
This SCSI configuration is basically a fail safe set up for your hard drive using two drives? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Data is divided when it is written to both drives so that the workload is balanced and thus more efficient, this process is known as "striping"? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A DB15HD connector is used for? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What voltage does the corona wire or roller hold? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are two common sizes of a torx screwdrivers used in computers? |
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Definition
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|
Term
The SCSI terms SE, LVD, HVD refer to? |
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Definition
These terms refer to the manner in which the SCSI interface places signals on the SCSI cabling. |
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Term
Arrange SE, LVD & HVD in chronological order: |
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Definition
(1) SE: Single ended is "regular" SCSI. E interface drives each signal line against ground.(2) HVD:High Voltage Differential The HVD interface drives two lines for each SCSI signal - one line is the inverse of the other line and the SCSI signal is the difference (hence, the term differential) between these two lines. (3) LVD: Low Voltage Differential. LVD uses 3.3 volt logic and common sense tells us that you can change a signal through a 3.3 volt range faster than through a 5 volt range. Making the interface a differential interface (thus the term Low Voltage Differential) retained the advantages of noise rejection and longer cable lengths that differential signals offer. |
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Term
SE, LVD and HDV SCSI. Who is compatible with who? |
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Definition
SE > LVD are compatible with each other. LVD > HVD are NOT compatible with each other. |
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Term
__________is a standard for a computer bus for attaching peripheral devices to a computer motherboard and is an adaptation of the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus. It was designed for laptops and other small-footprint computer systems. |
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Definition
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Term
Type _______ MiniPCI cards have an RJ11 and RJ45 mounted connectors. These cards must be located at the edge of the computer or docking station so that the RJ11 and RJ45 ports can be mounted for external access. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following network standards will NOT work with a CAT5 cable?
10BaseT, 10Base5 and 100Base-T4 |
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Definition
10Base5: also known as Thicknet |
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Term
IEEE 1284 is associated with? |
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Definition
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|
Term
You have a system with a Pentium Pro socket. Which socket is this? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What happens during the developing stage of laser printing? |
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Definition
An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles. |
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|
Term
This device typically follows the PCMCIA III standard? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Windows explorer can be used to? |
|
Definition
Copy and move files and change file attributes |
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Term
The LCD screen on your laptop is flickering intermittently. What is the most likely cause of this problem? |
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Definition
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|
Term
AFS is associated with what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
IRQ 7 is typically reserved for? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following technologies transmit in the 2.4Ghz range? (Choose all that apply)
802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g and 802.15.1 |
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Definition
802.11b, 802.11g and 802.15.1 (Bluetooth) |
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|
Term
You are working with a laser printer. Which component offers the greatest risk to technicians? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
Full Control, Change and Read |
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|
Term
List the 6 NTFS permissions? |
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Definition
Full Control, Modify, Read & Execute, List Folder Contents, Read and Write. |
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|
Term
What two mechanisms are associated with a dot-matrix printer? |
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Definition
Tractor feed and friction feed |
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|
Term
How much Hard Disk space is required to run the system restore feature? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which two system components should you check to avoid CPU overheating? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the maximum data rate for Bluetooth? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the network prefix that is used to denote an unsubnetted Class C IP address? |
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Definition
/24 Explanation: In the IP address 192.168.0.1 /24 The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network addresses and the last 8 bits of the IP address are the host address.***A subnet (short for "subnetwork") is an identifiably separate part of an organization's network.Without subnets, an organization could get multiple connections to the Internet, one for each of its physically separate subnetworks. |
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Term
Which factors transmit electrostatic discharge to the metal -oxide semiconductor (MOS) devices? |
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Definition
Moving people, moving machines, improper grounding and humidity less than 50 percent. |
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|
Term
Which components must pass a computers POST before the OS will load? |
|
Definition
Memory, video card and CPU. |
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|
Term
In XP/2000 what can you use to control how much disk space a user can use or see on a volume? |
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Definition
Disk Quotas (c:> Properties > Disk Quotas) |
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|
Term
Which five main attack vectors are used by social engineering hackers? |
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Definition
online, telephone, waste management, personal approaches and reverse social engineering |
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|
Term
DVD's have a standard capacity of? |
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Definition
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|
Term
_______ is a newer version of ATX, focusing on lower profile and better thermal regulation. Currently being used in Gateway and Dell computers. |
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Definition
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|
Term
EIDE (or PATA) uses a ______connection for connecting storage media to the motherboard. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The utilization of idle execution units to improve the overall reaction and response time of the CPU. |
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Term
|
Definition
A single processor which posseeses two independent processors. |
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Term
________also known as clamping, cuts the amount of CPU time used on applications which stall the PC. |
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Definition
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|
Term
An ______ partition is one which can be actively booted to. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The ________ partition is the partition on which the main OS is stored. |
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Definition
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|
Term
__________is the term used for a special file on the HD called swap file or paging file which the CPU uses to offload main memory information. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This utility verifies a disks integrity by sifting drive sectors searching for bad or corrupted sectors. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Describe a Parallel Connection and cables? |
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Definition
Utilize a male DB-25 pin connector on the computer and a male 36 pin centronics connector, most cables will be no more than 10 ft and the cable itself is flat ribbon cable, allowing up to 8 bits of transmission simultaneously. |
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Term
Describe a serial cable and connector? |
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Definition
Uses either a 9 pin or 25 pin connector and a cylindrical cable much less susceptible to interference, can be up to 25 ft long and transfers one bit at a time across the cable. |
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|
Term
SCSI is (describe some characteristics): |
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Definition
Faster than either parallel or serial, allows users to attach many devices in one long SCSI chain and the cable will appear like the parallel cable. |
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Term
IP version _______ uses the "dot-decimal" standard defined as: xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx |
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Definition
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|
Term
IP version _________ addresses are 128 bits wide and will use eight groups of four hexadecimal digits 2001:0db7:0314:8a2e:0370:7334 |
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Definition
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|
Term
What other protocols are there in the TCP/IP stack? |
|
Definition
IPX/SPX [Novell Networks], NWLink [MS NT], NetBIOS and NetBEUI |
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|
Term
What is a SLI video card and what advantages does it offer? |
|
Definition
Scalable Link Interface (SLI) is a brand name for a multi-GPU solution developed by NVIDIA for linking two (or more) video cards together to produce a single output.The basic idea of SLI is to allow two (or more) the graphics processing unit (or GPU) to share the work load when rendering a 3D scene. |
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|
Term
This is one way to access internet based email, using a client such as Outlook Express or Eudora. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What version of NTFS supports the usage of dynamic disks on top of all the other features NTFS offers? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Win95 and 98 use _________to check for disk structure errors while Windows NT, 2000 and XP we use ___________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Describe the “Creator Owner” principle? |
|
Definition
The Creator Owner property grants the user absolute control over the file he just created, and goes as far as allowing them to deny the system administrator permission to access it. |
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|
Term
A CVF file refers to a________drive. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The DOS command prompt allows you to? |
|
Definition
Allows you to change the MS-DOS prompt to display more or less information. Such as time and date. |
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|
Term
What is the echo command used for? |
|
Definition
When writing batch files (files containing multiple commands) however, it is the only way to display a progress update on screen as the batch file is processed. |
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|
Term
With DOS and Windows 3.11, both third party applications and the operating system stored configuration data in plain text files, known as “INI files” today this has changed to the concept of ______. |
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Definition
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|
Term
This hive stores two distinct types of data. Firstly, it stores application and Windows settings that apply to all users, much like a global version of the HKEY_USERS hive. Secondly, it stores information on all the hardware installed in the computer, and |
|
Definition
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (commonly abbreviated to HKLM) |
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|
Term
Name a few differences between Regedit and RegEdit32? |
|
Definition
* Only RegEdit can export and import .reg files, RegEdit32 does not provide this functionality.
* Only RegEdit32 can set permissions on Registry keys and values to control who may access them.
* Only RegEdit32 can view, edit and delete REG_MULTISZ values.
* Only RegEdit32 can load in a complete registry hive for editing, which is extremely useful for troubleshooting and disaster recovery. |
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Term
Typing in __________ in the command prompt with no arguments displays the entire list of drivers on the local machine |
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Definition
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|
Term
Ntldr, boot.ini, Ntdetect.com are in the ________directory and Ntoskrnl.exe is in a __________directory. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The error Stop 0x00000024 NTFS_FILE_SYSTEM means? |
|
Definition
Usually a bad disk or controller. |
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|
Term
Name devices that can cause system Lockups? |
|
Definition
Faulty power supplies, BIOS, RAM, Overclocking,Corrupt Swap or Hibernate Files, corrupt system files (run SFC to find problems) and a corrupt registry among other. |
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Term
To recover from a corrupt registry you can use the F8 key at startup to select _______. |
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Definition
Last Known Good Configuration |
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|
Term
What utility lets you use a text editor to configure SYSTEM.INI, WIN.INI, CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT files? |
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Definition
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|
Term
RUN>MSINFO32.EXE runs what utility? |
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Definition
The system information utility. You can also use the Winmsd.exe command to run it. |
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|
Term
What third party utility will capture a snapshot of your system and allow you to compare system changes such as configuration files and directories? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
You can also recognize an older ________ motherboard because it has a single, full-size keyboard connector soldered onto the board. Also, AT and older Baby AT boards do not have a PS/2 mouse connector. The original mice (yes, the actual plural term for a |
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Definition
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|
Term
In this form factor you will see the familiar PS/2 mouse & keyboard connector as built in “soft” power support instead of the toggle style power switch used by the AT form factor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a Passive Backplane? |
|
Definition
This is a system board where all of the components are attached using expansion cards.Where all components must be easily switched out and “hot swappable” |
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|
Term
_______holds the current date and time as well as the information necessary regarding changeable types of hardware on the computer such as RAM, Hard Drives, Floppy Drives, and Video Cards. |
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Definition
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|
Term
______ has a capacity of about 64K but uses much less; typically 128 bytes. The key thing to remember about________ is that it keeps track of changeable types of hardware on the computer. |
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_________holds numerous small programs for computer hardware that is considered permanent. Examples of permanent hardware are keyboards, serial and parallel ports, |
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_________is a set of pathways allowing data to travel as electrical impulses (recall that the language of computers is binary or base two counting and either the absence or presence of current represent zeros and ones). |
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______ provides a very “ground level” type of communication for devices such as keyboards, parallel ports and serial ports. It is also the slowest of the buses on a modern motherboard. |
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What is known as PCI bus IRQ steering or PCI steering? |
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Definition
BIOS ability to assign IRQs to devices. or Windows ability to assign IRQs. Assignments are still typically made by the BIOS and Windows rarely overrides those assignments. |
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Term
This is the process of a device taking over the bus and bypassing the CPU. This is somewhat similar to DMA except that the device does not use DMA channels but accesses the bus (PCI for example) directly to transfer data. |
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It's not stored in RAM, but in different areas of the system memory, such as ROM chips on an expansion card. |
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_________ is the first power supply that lays out the 5-pin (and very thin) SATA power connector. Cannot use cadmium, or mercury. CFCs and HFCs in the design or creation process are prohibited. |
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The number of colors that can be displayed. The bit depth refers to how many bits of data are associated with each pixel and are available to store a colour value. A 24 bit image, commonly referred to as "true colour", allows for the storage of 24 bits of data per pixel. |
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____________is a standard specification defining a cross-language cross-platform API for writing applications that produce 3D computer graphics (and 2D computer graphics as well). The interface consists of over 250 different function calls which can be us |
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The frame buffer is the collective name for the various buffers used by modern graphics cards. To ensure smooth on-screen visuals free from visual artifacts such as tearing, graphics cards use a double buffering system. Front and back buffer. |
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Name the three types of parallel copper SCSI buses: |
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Definition
single-ended (SE), differential SCSI (now called high-voltage differential, or HVD) and low voltage differential (LVD). |
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Narrow SCSI can have ____ targets, Wide SCSI ____targets or Fibre Channel-AL SCSI ____targets. |
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A ___________bus generally cannot transfer data faster than 40 MB/sec using a 16-bit data path. |
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This type of SCSI solves length issues. __________ LVD configurations allow up to12.5 meters of bus length and allow the attachment of up to 15 devices. |
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___________ SCSI has a maximum transfer rate of 160 MB/sec using the same 40 MHz bus speed with a wide 16-bit device. |
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In 8-bit SCSI systems, the device with ID 7 has the _______ priority and ID 0 has the ______ priority when arbitrating for use of the SCSI bus. |
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In SCSI terminology what is a Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs)? |
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Definition
A good example is a tape backup system with an auto-loader. Let us say the tape drive has the capac-ity to hold 7 tapes in a holder. By giving the holder a LUN of 1 for Sunday, 2 for Monday, etc., the tape drive would have only a single SCSI ID, but each tape would have its own LUN. The auto-loader would know which tape to load for each day of the week. |
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Term
There are four types of termination for a SCSI bus: |
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Definition
* Passive Termination:114 This consists of resistors only.
* Active Termination:115 This type adds a voltage regulator to ensure that the SCSI signals are always terminated to the correct voltage levels. Active ter-mination is recommended when the bus is near the maximum length and when SCSI bus speeds are greater than 10 MHz.
* Forced Perfect Termination (FPT):116 This is similar to active termination but uses diode clamps to eliminate overshoot and undershoot of signal voltage. Forced Perfect termination should not be used for a differential bus.
* Multimode Termination: Low-Voltage Differential (LVD) buses require the use of a modified type of termination called multimode. Multimode termination allows single-ended and LVD devices to coexist on the same physical bus. Multimode terminators sense what type of device is being used and terminate the bus accordingly. |
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Term
Name existing SCSI connectors: |
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Definition
IDC 50, an internal 50-pin connector, Centronics 50-contact connector for external peripherals, DB-25 SCSI connector, an external 25-pin connector, DB-50, an external 50-pin connector used by Sun workstations,Half-Pitch DB-50, a smaller version of the full-sized external 50-pin DB-50, Half-Pitch DB-68 SCSI connector is the 68-pin (wide) version of the Half-Pitch DB-50, Very High Density Centronics 68, a 68-pin contact connector,SCA-80, a compact 80-contact connector used by SCA drives for RAID controllers. |
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Term
_____ is a process of generating parity values for error detection and correction during transmission so that data can be reconstructed without retransmission. |
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Definition
ECC Error Correcting and also XOR is a Boolean logical operation that generates a parity value for each pair of bits in a data word. |
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Term
In RAID terminology "Duplexing" means? |
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Definition
Using a separate RAID controller card for each drive in the array. This will provide fault tolerance in the event of controller failure. |
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Term
RAID-0/1 is Redundant ___________ Arrays. This method will provide greater I/O performance. A duplicate of this striped set is mirrored on another 2-disk array to provide fault tolerance. |
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Definition
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There is ________ RAID and __________ arrays. Generaly you can boot from one an not from the other. Using ________ you do not tax the system performance because it can perform it's own calculations. |
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Definition
Software, Hardware, Hardware |
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RAID configurations can be either _____ or _______. Name a few advantages of the _______ configuration. |
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Definition
Internal or external. External controller RAID subsystems are enclosed in a separate enclosure. This can provide several features not available with an internal controller setup. Onboard battery backup of the external host controller can maintain power for controller cache memory until the data can be written to the disk subsystem. Most enclosures provide for redundant power supplies and cool-ing fans. Hot swap capabilities (replacing components without powering down the main system) can enhance the fault tolerance of the disk subsys-tem. |
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Term
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Definition
Internet SCSI (iSCSI) allows standard SCSI commands to be passed between host systems (initiators) and storage devices (targets) over a TCP/IP net-work.130 iSCSI is a block-level storage protocol that lets users create a separate storage network using Ethernet. Because iSCSI uses Ethernet, it does not suffer from the complexity and distance limitations of other storage proto-cols. |
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Term
Name a few benefits of mapping the SCSI command set onto Fibre Channel: |
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Definition
* Faster speed (up to 2 Gbit)
* More devices can be connected together (up to 16 million devices in an ex-tended SAN)
* Larger distance allowed between devices (up to 10 km) |
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Term
Name Key Features of Serial ATA: |
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Definition
* High-speed: 150Mbytes/sec now, 300 Mbytes/sec. (Soon)
* Error correction
* Point-to-point connections (no cable sharing)
* Narrow cable for better airflow
* Queuing capability, but not as much as SCSI
* Backward compatibility to all software
* Standard built for cost -effectiveness |
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Term
In SATA terms what is Command queuing? |
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Definition
Command queuing lets the disk drive make multiple requests for data from the processor and rear-range the order of the data to maximize throughput. |
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Term
What is a normal operating temperature of a CPU? What is the Maximum? |
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Definition
In normal conditions a CPU runs at 70F the maximum it can withstand is 185F |
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Term
What is a thermal compound? |
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Definition
The substance that is responsible for sealing and transferring heat from the CPU and the heat sink. |
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Term
What is the cache controller used for? |
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Definition
Compares requests from the CPU and determines if info needs to be fed from RAM or CACHE and makes the decision. And also preempts future requests of information to be fed. |
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Term
Power supply output tolerances fall within the required a ____ tolerance. |
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Definition
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Term
A good surge protector should have this minimum specification? |
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Definition
The Underwriters Laboratories listing of (UL) TVSS 1449 clearly noted on the package or device. |
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Term
What is a Metal Oxide Varistor (MOV)? |
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Definition
The MOV functions by creating a short circuit, and shunting the surge voltage to ground, when a preset voltage threshold is exceeded. |
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Term
Generally a _____________ has the capacity to deliver between 10 and 20 minutes of operation without power, which is long enough to save all data and shut down the system safely. |
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Definition
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Term
Name the three UPS types: |
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Definition
Standby (switches to the battery powered inverter source), Intermediate (The intermediate UPS has the ability to regulate the AC line voltage) and Online (There is no transition time between AC and battery power since the battery and inverter are always in use. There is never a direct connection between the AC power and the computer) |
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Term
Health hazards are divided into this two different types of exposures: |
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Definition
(1)Acute exposures:Acute exposures are usually of a single exposure or several successive exposures in a short period resulting in relatively immediate, and often, an intense adverse effect. and
(2)Chronic exposures:Chronic exposures are the repeated exposures or the sustained exposure to a hazardous substance, often in low concentrations or amounts, over a long period. |
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Term
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Definition
National Fire Protection Association, Hazardous Materials Information System |
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Term
It used the Vampire Tap and Thick Net cable. It had a maximum length of 500 meters? |
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Definition
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Term
It's a thinner version of ThickNet, also called RG-58 U. Regardless of the use of RG-58 U or RG-58 AU, the maximum length is 185 meters? |
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Definition
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Term
Which network uses BNC's is attached to a 'T' type device with the cable crossing the top of the T. The base is used to connect to the NIC in the PC. This creates one long continuous segment, known as a backbone. |
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Term
(Fast Ethernet) is only supported using UTP Category 5 in a Star Topology, and has the 100-meter limit of Ethernet over UTP. |
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Definition
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Term
_____________uses 4 pairs of wires, not two pair as in Ethernet and Fast Ethernet. |
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Definition
Gigabit Ethernet (1000Mbps) |
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Term
Fiber-optics are made in one of two forms: ____________ and _______________. |
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Definition
SingleMode and MultiMode. |
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Definition
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Term
Dynamic Addressing requires the service of a ____________server. |
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Definition
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Term
You wish to change the parallel mode used by your computer. Which of the following are valid choices? (a) ECP (b) EPP (c) Bidirectional (d) DMA |
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Definition
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Term
Which file is responsible for pointing to the location of the operating system’s system files during the boot process? |
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Definition
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Term
You are configuring the mail services for your network. Which of the following protocols is associated with mail servers?
(a) DNS (b) FTP (c) SMTP (d) IMAP |
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Definition
SMTP is used to transfer mail between servers. |
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Term
At command prompt you want to rename a directory from Temp to Files. Which command can you use to do this? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following NTFS permissions allows a user to create new entities within a folder and change ownership and attributes of owned files? |
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Definition
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Term
What does the IP address of 169.254.xxx.xxx mean? |
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Definition
It means the APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) has been assigned. The IP address range is 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254. |
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Term
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Definition
A feature of Microsoft Windows, APIPA is a DHCP failover mechanism. With APIPA, DHCP clients can obtain IP addresses when DHCP servers are nonfunctional. APIPA exists in all popular versions of Windows except Windows NT.When a DHCP server fails, APIPA allocates addresses in the private range 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254. |
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Term
How do you ping yourself? |
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Definition
ping 127.0.0.1 or ping localhost |
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