Term
1. Problems faced by all economic systems include
which of the following?
I. How to allocate scarce resources among unlimited
wants
II. How to decentralize markets
III. How to decide what to produce, how to
produce, and for whom to produce
IV. How to set government production quotas
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II, and III only
(E) I, II, III, and IV
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Definition
(B) I and III only
Explanation: The basic problems of economics are related to scarcity and unlimited demand. Decentralized market does not deal with the issue of scarcity or unlimited demand. The government's production quotas can affect economic outcome positively or negatively, but not all quotas are intended to help with the scarcity issue. Therefore, I and III are the only correct answer. |
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Term
2. Which of the following would necessarily cause a fall
in the price of a product?
(A) An increase in population and a decrease in the
price of an input
(B) An increase in population and a decrease in the
number of firms producing the product
(C) An increase in average income and an
improvement in production technology
(D) A decrease in the price of a substitute product
and an improvement in production
technology
(E) A decrease in the price of a substitute product
and an increase in the price of an input
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Definition
(D) A decrease in the price of a substitute product
and an improvement in production
technology
Explanation: The increases in population and income do not affect the price. The price only falls when the price of the substitute falls or when there is more advanced technology, making it cheaper to produce. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
4. suppose tnat a tamily buys all its clotning trom a
discount store and treats these items as inferior
goods. Under such circumstances, this family's
consumption of discount store clothing will
necessarily
(A) increase when a family member wins the state
lottery
(B) increase when a family member gets a raise in
pay at work
(C) remain unchanged when its income rises or fall
due to events beyond the family's control
(D) decrease when a family member becomes
unemployed
(E) decrease when a family member experiences an
increase in income
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Definition
(E) decrease when a family member experiences an
increase in income
Explanation: An inferior good is a good that people consume less of when their income rises. Therefore, when the family gains a greater income, they will consume less of the inferior good. |
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Term
5. Which of the following describes what will happen to
market price and quantity if firms in a perfectly
competitive market form a cartel and act as a profitmaximizing
monopoly?
Price Quantity
(A) Decrease Decrease
(B) Decrease Increase
(C) Increase Increase
(D) Increase Decrease
(E) Increase No change
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Definition
Price Quantity
(D) Increase Decrease
Explanation: A cartel occurs when a group of firms agree on the same price in order to maximize their profits. When a cartel wants to maximize their profits, they will increase the price. If the price increases, then the quantity will decrease because of the law of demand. The law of demand states that if the price falls, the demand rises and vice versa. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
6. Quantity Produced Total Cost
0 $5
1 17
2 28
3 41
4 61
5 91
Barney's Bait Company can sell all the lures it
produces at the market price of $14. On the basis o
the cost information in the table above, how many
lures should the bait company make?
(A)l (B)2 (C)3 (D)4 (E)5
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Definition
(C)3
Explanation: For Barney's Bait Company to make the most profit, the profit must be higher than the total cost. To find profit, multiply the quantity by the market price. The company should produce 3 for the number quantity because 3 x 14= 42 (profit), and 42 (profit)> 41 (total cost). Therefore, (C) is the correct answer. |
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Term
7. A natural monopoly occurs in an industry if
(A) economies of scale allow at most one firm of
efficient size to exist in that market
(B) a single firm has control over a scarce and
essential resource
(C) a single firm produces inputs for use by other
firms
(D) a single firm has the technology to produce the
product sold in that market
(E) above-normal profits persist in the industry
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Definition
(A) economies of scale allow at most one firm of
efficient size to exist in that market
Explanation:A monopoly is when there is only one firm in that market. The advancement in technology allows only one firm to control the market in the economies of scale. No other firms can provide the same good at the same price or quantity. Therefore, (A) is the right answer.
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Term
8. The typical firm in a monopolistically competitive
industry earns zero profit in long-run equilibrium
because
(A) advertising costs make monopolistic competition
a high-cost market structure rather than a
low-cost market structure
(B) the firms in the industry do not operate at the
minimum point on their long-run average
cost curves
(C) there are no restrictions on entering or exiting
from the industry
(D) the firms in the industry are unable to engage in
product differentiation
(E) there are close substitutes for each firm's product
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Definition
(C) there are no restrictions on entering or exiting
from the industry
Explanation: In a monopolistically competitive industry, a firm earns zero in the long-run equilibrium, so there is no barrier or great cost to enter and exist the industry. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
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Term
10. If hiring an additional worker would increase a
firm's total cost by less than it would increase its total
revenue, the firm should
(A) not hire the worker
(B) hire the worker
(C) hire the worker only if another worker leaves or is
fired
(D) hire the worker only if the worker can raise the
firm's productivity
(E) reduce the number of workers employed by the
firm
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Definition
(B) hire the worker
Explanation: If hiring another worker does not raise the total cost by much and increases the total revenue, then it is wise to hire another worker. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer. |
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Term
14. An effective price floor introduced in the market for
rice will result in
(A) a decrease in the price of rice and an increase in
the quantity of rice sold
(B) a decrease in the price of rice and a decrease in the
quantity of rice sold
(C) a decrease in the price of rice and an excess
demand for rice
(D) an increase in the price of rice and an excess
supply of rice
(E) an increase in the price of rice and an excess
demand for rice
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Definition
(D) an increase in the price of rice and an excess
supply of rice
Explanation: Price floor is put in place to increase the price, while price ceiling is intended to decrease the price. The increase in price is supposed to encourage the firm to increase the supply, so that they can gain more profit. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
15. Marginal revenue is the change in revenue that results from a one-unit increase in the
(A) variable input
(B) variable input price
(C) output level
(D) output price
(E) fixed cost
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Definition
(C) output level
Explanation: Marginal Revenue is the change in total revenue divided by the change in quantity. MR= change in TR/ change in Q. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer. |
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Term
20. Assume that an electric power company owns two
plants and that, on a particular day, 10,000 kilowatts
of electricity are demanded by the public. In order to
minimize the total cost of providing the 10,000
kilowatts, the company should allocate production so
that
(A) marginal costs are the same for both plants
(B) average total costs are the same for both plants
(C) total variable costs are the same for both plants
(D) the sum of total variable cost and total fixed cost
is the same for both plants
(E) only the plant with the lower average cost is used
to produce the 10,000 kilowatts of electricity
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Definition
(A) marginal costs are the same for both plants
Explanation: To minimize the total cost, use the Least Cost equation.
Marginal Product a/ Marginal Resource Cost a = Marginal Product b/ Marginal Resource Cost b
MPa/MRCa=MPb/MRCb |
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Term
21. Suppose that the consumption of a certain product
results in benefits to others besides the consumers of
the product. Which of the following statements is
most likely to be true?
(A) The demand for the product is price inelastic.
(B) A perfectly competitive industry will not produce
the optimal quantity of the product.
(C) A perfectly competitive industry will not produce
the product.
(D) Optimality requires that consumers of this
product be taxed.
(E) Producers of this product earn an economic profit.
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Definition
(B) A perfectly competitive industry will not produce
the optimal quantity of the product.
Explanation: A perfectly competitive industry's price equals the marginal cost. For a good to have more marginal benefit than the marginal cost, a firm in a perfectly competitive industry will produce more than the optimal quantity of the product because they want to maximize their profit. Therefore, (B) is the answer. |
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Term
Questions 22-23 are based on the table below, which lists
the total output of workers in Greta's Jacket Shop.
Number of Workers Total Output
2 12
3 22
4 28
5 32
23. Greta already employs 3 workers. If the price of
jackets is $5 and the wage rate is $25, she should
(A) go out of business altogether
(B) lay off the third worker
(C) keep the third worker but not employ more
workers
(D) hire two more workers
(E) hire one more worker
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Definition
(E) hire one more worker
Explanation: Find the revenue of the third worker: Price x Total Output
$5 x 22= $110
Find the total cost: Wage x Number of workers
$25 x 3= $75
If the revenue is higher than the total cost, then hire one more worker.
Therefore, (E) is the correct answer. |
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Term
[PPF of Increasing Opportunity between Commodity 1 and Commodity 2]
26. Which of the following best explains the shape of the
production possibilities curve for the two commodity
economy shown above?
(A) The opportunity cost of producing an additional
unit of each commodity stays the same as production
of the commodity expands.
(B) The opportunity cost of producing an additional
unit of each commodity decreases as production of the
commodity expands.
(C) The opportunity cost of producing an additional
unit of each commodity increases as production of the
commodity expands.
(D) The quantity demanded of each commodity
decreases as consumption of the commodity increases.
(E) The quantity demanded of each commodity
increases as the production of the commodity expands.
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Definition
(C) The opportunity cost of producing an additional
unit of each commodity increases as production of the
commodity expands.
Explanation: According to the Law of Increasing Opportunity Cost, the cost of producing increases when more product is produced. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer. |
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Term
27.1n the long run, compared with a perfectly competitive
firm, a monopolistically competitive firm with the same
costs will have
(A) a higher price and higher output
(B) a higher price and lower output
(C) a lower price and higher output
(D) a lower price and lower output
(E) tthhee ;s ame price and lower output
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Definition
(B) a higher price and lower output
Explanation: In the long run, a monopolistically competitive firm will have higher price and lower output than a perfectly competitive firm because the monopolistically competitive firm has an efficient scale and excess capacity, so they will produce less and sell at a higher price. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer. |
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Term
29. Suppose that an effective minimum wage is imposed in
a certain labor market above the equilibrium wage. If labor
supply in that market subsequently increases, which of the
following will occur?
(A) Unemployment in that market will increase.
(B) Quantity of labor supplied will decrease.
(C) Quantity of labor demanded will increase.
(D) Market demand will increase.
(E) The market wage will increase.
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Definition
(A) Unemployment in that market will increase.
Explanation: When a minimum wage is imposed above the equilibrium wage and labor supply increases, then more people will become unemployed because it would cost too much for the firm to keep its original number of workers. The marginal cost of labor would exceed the marginal product of firm. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer. |
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Term
Questions 31-33 are based on the table below, which
shows a firm's total cost for different levels of output.
Output
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Total Cost
$24
33
41
48
54
61
69
31. Which of the following is the firm's marginal cost of
producing the fourth unit of output?
(A) $54.00
(B) $13.50
(C) $ 7.50
(D) $ 6.00
(E) $ 1.50
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Definition
(D) $ 6.00
Explanation: The marginal cost is the additional cost it takes to get from one quantity to another. So, MC= 54-48= $6. (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
Questions 31-33 are based on the table below, which
shows a firm's total cost for different levels of output.
Output
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Total Cost
$24
33
41
48
54
61
69
33. Which of the following is the firm's average fixed cost
of producing 2 units of output?
(A) $24.00
(B) $20.50
(C) $12.00
(D) $ 8.00
(E) $ 7.50
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Definition
(C) $12.00
Explanation: Total Fixed Cost= where Total Cost = O
TFC= 24
Average fixed cost of producing two units= TC/Q
$24/2= $12.
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Term
35. Which of the following statements is true of
perfectly competitive firms in long-run
equilibrium'?
(A) Firm revenues will decrease if production is
increased.
(B) Total firm revenues are at a maximum.
(C) Average fixed cost equals marginal cost.
(D) Average total cost is at a minimum.
(E) Average variable cost is greater than marginal
cost.
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Definition
(D) Average total cost is at a minimum.
Explanation: In the long run of a perfectly competitive market, the firm must have the minimum average total cost in order to gain some profit and stay in the market. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
36. Assume that both input and product markets are
competitive. If the product price rises, in the short run
firms will increase production by increasing
(A) the stock of fixed capital until marginal revenue
equals the product price
(B) the stock of fixed capital until the average
product of capital equals the price of capital
(C) labor input until the marginal revenue product of
labor equals the wage rate
(D) labor input until the marginal product of labor
equals the wage rate
(E) labor input until the ratio of product price to the
marginal product of labor equals the wage
rate
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Definition
(C) labor input until the marginal revenue product of
labor equals the wage rate
Explanation: In the short run, when both input and product markets are competitive, and the price rises, then the only way to increase production is by increasing labor input until the marginal product of labor equals the wage rage. This is because the price is greater than the marginal revenue, so the firm has to hire more labor up to the point where MRP= Wage rate. |
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Term
39. A student who attends college would pay $10,000
annually for tuition, books, and fees. If the student's next
best alternative is to work and earn $15,000 a year, the
opportunity cost of a year in college would be equal to
(A) zero, since the lost opportunity to earn income is
offset by the opportunity to attend college
(B) $5,000, representing the difference between
forgone income and college costs
(C) $10,000, since opportunity costs include only
actual cash outlays
(D) $15,000, representing forgone income, since the
costs of tuition, books, and fees will be more
than offset by additional income earned after
graduation
(E) $25,000, representing the sum of tuition, books,
fees, and forgone income
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Definition
(E) $25,000, representing the sum of tuition, books,
fees, and forgone income
Explanation: The opportunity cost of a year in college includes the cost of books, tuition, fees, and forgone income because opportunity cost accounts for the money that is going to be spent going to college and the money gone for not getting a job. Therefore, (E) is the correct answer. |
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Term
42. A firm doubles all of its inputs and finds that it has
more than doubled its output. This situation is an
example of
(A) increasing marginal returns
(B) diminishing marginal returns
(C) constant returns to scale
(D) increasing returns to scale
(E) decreasing returns to scale
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Definition
(D) increasing returns to scale
Explanation: By doubling all the input, the firm doubles its output. This means that the firm is experiencing the increasing returns to scale because the firm is moving closer towards the scale of operation, so it costs less to produce more. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
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Term
43. Reducing the tariff on Canadian beer sold in the
United States will most likely have which of the
following effects on the market for beer produced
and sold in the United States' ?
(A) The quantity of United States beer purchased
will increase.
(B) Total expenditure on United States beer will
increase.
(C) The Supply of United States beer will increase.
(D) The price of United States beer will decrease.
(E) More workers will be employed in the produc
tion of United States beer.
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Definition
(D) The price of United States beer will decrease.
Explanation: If the tariff on Canadian beer is reduced, then Canadian beer will be cheaper. The U.S. beer, which is the Canadian beer's substitute product, will decrease the price because the U.S. beer is following the law of demand that the lower the cost, the higher the demand in order to compete with the Canadian beer. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
44. Suppose that the license paid by each business to operate in a city
increases from $400 per year to $500 per year. What effect will this
increase have on a firm's short-run costs?
Marginal Cost Average Total Cost Average Variable Cost
(A) Increase increase increase
(B) Increase increase No effect
(C) No effect No effect No effect
(D) No effect Increase Increase
(E) No effect Increase No effect
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Definition
(E) MC=No effect ATC=Increase AVC=No effect
Explanation: When the price of license for a business to operate increases, then in the short run the average total cost would increase. The increased price of license will increase the total fixed cost, not the average variable cost or marginal cost. Therefore, (E) is the correct answer. |
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Term
47. Which of the following is true if a perfectly competitive
industry is earning zero economic profits in the long run?
(A) The level of investment in long-run equilibrium is
greater than the efficient level.
(B) Relatively few firms are able to survive the
competitive pressures in the long run.
(C) Some firms will be forced to transfer their
resources to more lucrative uses.
(D) The resources invested in this industry are
earning at least as high a return as they
would in any alternative use.
(E) Firms will exit until economic profits become
positive.
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Definition
(D) The resources invested in this industry are earning at least as high a return as they would in any alternative use.
Explanation: If a perfectly competitive industry is earning zero economic profit in the long run, then the resources are earning the least because the industry needs the marginal revenue equal the marginal cost in long run to gain zero economic profit in the long run. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer. |
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Term
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Definition
A chunk of money given to a firm. Lump-sum subsidy does not affect or change the profit-maximizing quantity. |
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Term
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Definition
= (Q2- Q1)/ [(Q2+Q1)/2]
(P2-P1)/[(P2+P1)/2] |
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Term
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Definition
The ability to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost. |
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Term
Law of Constant Opportunity Cost |
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Definition
Only applies when the tools of production are perfectly interchangeable. |
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Term
Law of Increasing Opportunity Cost |
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Definition
Occurs when the tools of production are IMPERFECTLY interchangeable. |
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Term
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Definition
When the price of good A falls, people buys more of good B and less of good A. |
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Term
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Definition
When there are many buyers and sellers. |
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Term
Perfectly Competitive Market |
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Definition
When there are many firms offering the same product at market price. |
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Term
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Definition
In perfectly competitive market, buyers and sellers have to accept the market price. |
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Term
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Definition
The quantity of a good falls when the price rises. |
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Term
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Definition
When the income of people increases, the demand of the good decreases. |
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Term
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Definition
When the income increases, the demand for the good increases. |
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Term
Five reasons for a shift in Demand |
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Definition
Changes in income, price of related goods, expectations, number of buyers, and taste. |
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Term
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Definition
The quantity of supply of a good rises when the price of the good rises. |
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Term
Four reasons for a shift in Supply |
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Definition
Changes in input prices, expectations, technology, and number of sellers. |
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Term
Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility [DMU] |
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Definition
The second unit of a good is not as useful or valuable as the first one. |
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Term
Law of Diminishing Returns |
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Definition
The producers only want to produce an additional unit of goods if the price goes up. |
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Term
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Definition
Government sets the legal minimum price. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
When the elasticity < 1, the demanded quantity is not affected by the change in price. |
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Term
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Definition
When the elasticity > 1, so the demand shifts according to price changes. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
= % change in Q of Good A
% change in P of Good B |
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Term
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Definition
= P x Q
if P decreases and the elasticity>1, then TR will rise.
if Q increases and the elasticity<1, then TR will fall.
if the elasticity is unit elastic, then TR will be at TRmax. |
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Term
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Definition
1) Consumer 2) Society 3) Producer |
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Term
What is uncertain when the demand shifts right and supply shifts left? |
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Definition
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Term
What is uncertain when the demand shifts right and the supply shifts right? |
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Definition
The price is uncertain.
The quantity is certain. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
The inefficiency that is created by taxes. |
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Term
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Definition
A semicircle in the first quadrant.
Y-axis -> Tax Revenue
X-axis -> Tax Size
Laffer states that tax revenue first increases and then decreases. |
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Term
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Definition
Cut in tax rates was intended to encourage people to increase the quantity of labor they supplied. |
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Term
Pure Progressive Tax Rate |
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Definition
Each and every dollar is taxed at a higher rate than the first tax. |
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Term
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Definition
Third-party intervention.
Cost/benefit created by the a non-consumer. |
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Term
Marginal Social Cost and Marginal Social Benefit |
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Definition
When MSC=MSB, it is the most efficient spot.
When MSC> MSB, we are overproducing, so we must produce less. |
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Term
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Definition
The proposition that if private parties can bargain without cost over the allocation of resources [cooperate], they can solve the problem of externality on their own. |
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Term
What happens to the price if the quantity is increased or decreased? |
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Definition
The price becomes uncertain. |
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Term
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Definition
Tax on wages that a firm pays its workers in order to pay social insurance taxes. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
When each additional dollar is taxed at a lower rate than the first dollar. |
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Term
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Definition
Economics includes both implicit and explicit costs.
Accounting only includes explicit costs.
Explicit cost is the cost to third parties or cost of raw materials
Implicit cost is the cost to the owner. |
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Term
Market Run, Short Run, and Long Run |
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Definition
Market Run/Immediate run- all costs are fixed
Short run- fixed costs= land/plant/machine
variable costs= labor/resources
Long run- no fixed cost because everything is variable. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
MC= change in TC/ change in Q |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The relationship between Marginal Cost and Marginal Product |
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Definition
MC rises, MP falls
MC falls, MP rises. |
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Term
The relationship between MC and AC |
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Definition
MC< AC; AC falls
MC>AC; AC rises
MC=AC; AC is at minimum |
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Term
The relationship between Marginal Product and Average Product |
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Definition
MP> AP; AP rises
MP< AP; AP falls
MP=AP; AP is at maximum. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What does change in MC lead to? |
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Definition
Change in MC leads to change in AVC and change in AC |
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Term
What does the change in AFC lead to? |
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Definition
Change in AFC leads to change in AC, but AVC is constant. |
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Term
What is Marginal Revenue in a competitive market? |
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Definition
MR= the price of the good in a competitive market |
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Term
The relationship between MR and MC for a firm |
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Definition
MR>MC; firm should increase output
MR<MC; firm should decrease output
MR=MC; profit-maximizing level of output. |
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Term
When does a firm shut down? |
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Definition
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Term
When does a firm exit the industry? |
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Definition
Exit if TR/TC < TC/Q or when P <AC |
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Term
When does a firm enter an industry? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Profit= TR-TC= (TR/Q-TC/Q) x Q= (P-AC) x Q |
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Term
How does a firm stay in the market? |
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Definition
Must be making ZERO economic profit. |
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Term
What is Demand in imperfect competition equal to? |
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Definition
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Term
What is Demand equal to in a perfect competition? |
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Definition
D=P=AR=MR
The demand is perfectly elastic. |
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Term
The relationship of MR and MC in a competitive firm |
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Definition
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Term
The relationship between MR and MC in a monopoly firm |
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Definition
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Term
How do you find the socially optimal quantity? |
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Definition
The point where MC intersects the Demand Curve. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
When there are a few sellers with the same goods. |
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Term
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Definition
When there are firms that sell similar products, but not identical. |
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Term
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Definition
It is the smallest size of an oligopoly. [2] |
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Term
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Definition
Agreement among the firms about price or quantity. |
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Term
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Definition
When firms act in unison. |
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Term
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Definition
When the firms choose their best strategy according to the strategy another firm has chosen. |
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Term
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Definition
In game theory, the dominant theory is when you choose your best option regardless to other people's choices. |
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Term
How many workers should be hired? |
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Definition
A competitive, profit-maximizing firm hires the workers up to where MPlabor=Wage |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
MPlabor=MPcapital=MPland
MRClabor MRCcapital MRCland |
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Term
How do we get to equilibrium when MPlabor/Wlabor> MPcapital/MRCcapital? |
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Definition
Law of diminishing demand-buy more labor to lower the MP or buy less capital |
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Term
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Definition
VMP is Value of MP
VMP=P x MP |
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Term
When is the resource being used most efficiently? |
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Definition
When MRPa/MRCa=MRPb/MRCb=1
When MRPa/MRCb>1, it is the least cost and the profit-maximization point. |
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