Term
| Which drug effectively treats Gram negative infections in patients with Beta-lactam resistance? |
|
Definition
| The Monobactam, Aztreonam has broad activity, including Pseudomonas. |
|
|
Term
| Which Carbapenem is less active than the others, with NO Enterococcus activity and NO Psuedomonas coverage, but with broad anaerobic coverage and a unique Q24 hour dosing? |
|
Definition
Ertapenem
Good gram negative coverage (except Pseudomonas)
Good gram positive coverage (except Enterococcus)
Good anerobic coverage (including B. fragilis) |
|
|
Term
Which Carbapenem is associated with seizures at high doses in patients with decreased renal function?
What is it given with to ensure function? |
|
Definition
| Imipenem given with Cilastatin, which inhibits enzymes in brush border that hydrolyzes imipenem. |
|
|
Term
| Which is the most potent Carbapenem? |
|
Definition
Doripenem
Doripenem>Meropenem>Imipenem>Ertapenem |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are poorly bioavailable, but have very good MRSA activity (exclusively used for gram +) and can be used to treat C. difficile. |
|
Definition
| Vancomycin and Televancin (Glycopeptides) |
|
|
Term
1) Which drugs cause "Red Man's Syndrome" and/or "Nephrotoxicity" upon rapid infusion?
2) Which drug causes foamy urine and taste disturbances? |
|
Definition
1) Vancomycin and Televancin
2) Televancin |
|
|
Term
| Which Cephalosporin(s) are effective at treating MRSA? |
|
Definition
Ceftaroline (3rd generation)
- Like "Ceftriaxone + MRSA" |
|
|
Term
| Which Cephalosporin(s) are effective at broad-spectrum anaerobic treatment? |
|
Definition
| 1) Cefoxitine (2A) has poor MSSA activity, but treats B. fragilis |
|
|
Term
| Which Cephalosporin(s) cover broad-spectrum, gram negative, aerobic organisms? |
|
Definition
Looking for something that covers Pseudomonas
1) Ceftazadime (3rd generation)
2) Cefepime (4th generation) w/ better MSSA |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are the "gold standard" for N. gonorrhea, CA-meningitis and Neuro-Lyme? |
|
Definition
Cephalosporins
1) Ceftriaxone (biliary excretion and sludging at high doses)
2) Cefotaxime |
|
|
Term
| Which Cephalosporin is unique in that it is excreted by the hepatobiliary system, and therefore has an extended half-life and a Q12-24h dosing schedule? |
|
Definition
Ceftriaxone (3rd generation)
Gold standard for N. gonnorrhea, Neuro-Lyme and CA-meningitis. |
|
|
Term
| Which Cefalosporin would you give to treat a case of Otitis Media and Sinusitis from an H. influenzae bacterium? |
|
Definition
Would not use 1st generation, because of poor gram negative coverage.
2nd Generation covers H. influenzae (Cefuroxime, Cefaclor, Cefprozil.
Don't give 3rd generation if you don't have to. |
|
|
Term
Which Penicillins cover Streptococcus, but are resisted by most Staphylococcus forms?
What else can these drugs treat? |
|
Definition
Natural Penicillins (G and V)
Also treat Treponema pallidum (Syphilis) and Enterococcus (when combined with aminoglycosides) |
|
|
Term
| Why might you use an Amino-penicillin instead of a Natural Penicillin? |
|
Definition
Ampicillin or Amoxicillin
1) Gram + for Listeria
2) Gram - for E. coli, H. influenzae (non-resistant form) or Proteus mirabilis
3) Lyme disease |
|
|
Term
| Which Penicillin classes treat MSSA? |
|
Definition
1) Aminopenicillin + B-lactamase inhibitor (Ampicillin/Sulbactam and Amoxicillin/Clavanulate)
2) Penicillinase-resistant (Nafcillin/Oxacillin and Dicloxacillin)
3) Ext-Spectrum + Beta-lactamse (Ticarcilline/Clavanulate or Piperacilline/Tazobactam |
|
|
Term
| Which Penicillin drugs can handle broad-spectrum, gram negative bacteria? |
|
Definition
You are looking for Pseudomonas
1) Ext-spectrum with Beta-lactamse
(Ticarcillin/Clavulanate or Piperacillin/Tazobactam)
Also handles anaerobes (B. fragilis) and gram positive (MSSA), but can cause diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
| When might you prescribe Amoxicillin/Clavulanate? |
|
Definition
This penicillin improves upon Aminopencillins by
1) covering Beta-lactamase producing H. influenzae, Klebsiella and E. coli.
2) Broad-specturm anaerobes (B. fragilis)
** want to avoid extended-specrum unless you expect gram negative infection ** |
|
|
Term
| Which Penicillin(s) are unique in that they do not involve renal excretion? |
|
Definition
The Penicillinase-resistant drugs have hepatic elimination and need not be adjusted for renal malfunction!
These include Nafcillin/Oxacillin and Dicloxacillin and are useful specifically against gram positive (MSSA) |
|
|
Term
| Which Penicillins cover a broad-spectrum of Anaerobic bacteria? |
|
Definition
Looking for the B. fragilis. Anything with a Beta-lactamase inhibitor will do!
1) Ampicillin/Sulbactam, Amoxicillin/Clavanulate
2) Ticarcilline/Clavanulate and Pipercilline/Tazobactam |
|
|
Term
| Which drug(s) are good against MRSA and MRSE, as well as most gram negative bacteria (not Pseudomonas), but can lead to Skin rashes? |
|
Definition
Inhibitors of DNA/RNA synthesis (Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole)
Dosing is dependent on Trimethoprim component! |
|
|
Term
| True or False. MTP/SMX dosing is dependent on Trimethoprim component. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug should you use to treat Nocardiosis? |
|
Definition
| Trimethoprim/Sufamethoxazole |
|
|
Term
| What drug can sometimes cause organge-red discoloration of trears, sweath urine ect. as well as nephrotoxicity? |
|
Definition
Rifampin (DNA/RNA synthesis) often given for TB or prosthetic-related infections.
MANY DRUG-DRUG INTERACTIONS |
|
|
Term
| Which drug should be avoided as monotherapy for Staph/Strep? |
|
Definition
Rifampin (DNA/RNA synthesis) has many Drug-Drug interactions.
Orange-red fluids and Hepatotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are given against C. dificile infections (gram + anaerobe)? |
|
Definition
1) Vancomycin (Glycopeptide for MRSA and MRSE)
2) Fidaxomicin (RNA/DNA synthesis inhibitor) |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitor is most effective as a Monotherapy for Staph? |
|
Definition
Trimethoprime/Sulfamethoxazole is good against MRSA/MRSE but not Strep or Enterococcus
Note- Fidaxomicin is only good for C. dif and Rifampin should not be given as a monotherapy because if Drug:Drug interactions |
|
|
Term
| When should you prescribe Quinolones? |
|
Definition
- Moderately well for Strep (Levo/Moxi for S. pneumo)
- NO for staph
- Cipro/Levo broad (including Pseudomonas) Moxi (not Pseudomonas)
- Moxi for B. fragilis
- Atypicals (Chlamydia spp. Mycoplasma, Legionella) |
|
|
Term
| Which Quinolone is effective against a broad spectrum of Anaerobes (including B. fragilis)? |
|
Definition
Moxifloxacin
Also good against:
1) S. pneumoniae
2) Moderately for Aerobic gram negative
3) Atypicals (Chlamydiae, Mycoplasma, Legionella spp.) |
|
|
Term
| Which Quinolone(s) is affective against a broad spectrum of Gram negative aerobes? |
|
Definition
Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin (incl. Pseudomonas)
Moxifloxacin (without Pseudomonas) |
|
|
Term
| Which Quinolone(s) is affective against S. pneumo? |
|
Definition
1) Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin
- Ciprofloxacin does NOT WORK |
|
|
Term
| Which atypical bacteria are effectively treated by Quinolones? |
|
Definition
1) Chlamydia
2) Mycoplasma
3) Legionella spp. |
|
|
Term
| What side effects are associated with Quinolone usage? |
|
Definition
1) CNS: headache, dizziness, insomnia, seizures
2) Tendinitis with rupture (don't take with CS)
3) C. dificile (HIGH RISK) |
|
|
Term
| What are Quinolones most normally used to treat? |
|
Definition
1) UTIs
2) Respiratory tract
3) GI
4) Bone
5) Join infections |
|
|
Term
| Which Aminoglycocide is most potent for gram negative aerobes? |
|
Definition
Amikacin>Tobramycin>Gentamycin
1) Work with cell-wall-active agents to target enterococcus (penicillin, for example).
2) Decent against strep/staph
3) Broad-spectrum including pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
| Why are Aminoglycosides most often prescribed? |
|
Definition
1) Usually in combination as "double coverage" for severe gram-negative infections
** Pharmacokinetic monitoring necessary to maximize efficacy (high peaks) and minimize toxicity (low peaks) |
|
|
Term
| Why is Pharmacokinetic monitoring necessary when prescribing Aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin
1) Maximize efficacy (high peaks) due to NO bioavailability
2) Minimize toxicity (low peaks) such as Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity |
|
|
Term
| Which drug(s) exhibit an extensive "intracellular" distribution and are effective against Atypical bacteria including Legionella, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
Macrolides (Azithromycin and Clarithromycin) used for otitis, sinusitis and CA-pneumonia caused by atypical bacteria.
Also good against Gram-negative aerobes such as H. influenzae, N. gonorrhea and M. catarrhalis, as well as Campylobacter and H. pylori. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary use of Erythromycin? |
|
Definition
| Macrolide used for pro-kinetic GI effects |
|
|
Term
| What is the major difference between Clarithromycin and Azithromycin? |
|
Definition
Both used for CA-Pneumonia from atypical pathogens.
1) Clarithromycin is prone to drug:drug interactions an can cause Torsades de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
2) Azithromycin does not have these issues |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are especially sensitive to milk in the diet, calcium supplements and iron supplements? |
|
Definition
Tetracyclines (Tetracycline, Doxycycline and Minocycline) used to treat upper respiratory infections for Strep pneumonia, Staph and Enterococcus.
These cations decrease drug absorption. |
|
|
Term
| Why might you prescribe Tetracycline, Doxycycline or Minocycline? |
|
Definition
** Usage often limited because of low gram-negative activity**
1) Potent against Gram-positive Aerobics (including Enterococcus!).
2) Good against aerobes such as H. influenzae, N. Gonorrhea and M. Catarrhalis
3) Good against atypicals, Rickettsial infections and Lyme disease |
|
|
Term
| What are major side effects associated with Tetracycline use? |
|
Definition
Tetracycline, Doxycycline or Minocycline
1) GI, esophageal ulceration (take with fluid and remain upright)
2) Gray-brown to yellow teeth in children
3) Photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
| Why is Tigecycline used in the clinic? |
|
Definition
The only Glycylcycline. It overcomes efflux pump resistance
BROAD ACTIVITY
1) MRSA and VRE
2) Aerobic Gram-negatives except Pseudomonas
3) B. fragilis (Anaerobic) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs should not be used to treat bacteremia, because of their low serum levels? |
|
Definition
1) Macrolides (Azithromycin and Clarithromycin)
2) Tetracyclines (Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Minocycline)
3) Glycylcycline (Tigecycline)
4) Lincosamide (Clindamycin) |
|
|
Term
| Why would you prescribe Clindamycin? |
|
Definition
Rarely used because of high chance of C. difficile.
However, Biliary and fecal excretion makes it good in cases of renal insufficiency.
1) Superficial MRSA
2) Good anaerobic (30% resistance in B. fragilis) |
|
|
Term
| Why would you prescribe Linezolid? |
|
Definition
In patients with resistant gram (+) infections, because of its vast activity (MRSA and VRE).
BE CAREFUL
1) Serotonin Syndrome (MAO-I action)
2) Myelosuppression (thrombocytopenia) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug would you give patients with resistant gram (+) infections as a last alternative? |
|
Definition
The Oxazolidinone, Linezolid
Myelosuppression and Serotonin Syndrome make this a last line of defense. |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is the "drug of choice" for moderate severity C. difficile disease? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole (DNA-damaging), which is highly potent against Anaerobes (B. fragilis and C. dificile, in particular). |
|
|
Term
| Which "DNA Damaging Agent" is widely used as treatment for anaerobic infections? |
|
Definition
Metranidazole
- Can cause GI, metallic taste and peripheral neuropathy side effects
- Also used against C. dificile |
|
|
Term
| Which treatment for gram + organisms is used exclusively for UTIs and can cause a wide range of Pulmonary side effects? |
|
Definition
The DNA-damaging agent, Nitrofurantoin (Good Gram + including VRE).
- Also effective against most E. coli strains, but cannot be used for systemic infections, because of low serum levels. |
|
|
Term
| What might you prescribe for a refractory/resistant bloodstream infection involving Gram + microbes? |
|
Definition
Could you the lipopeptide, Daptomycin.
- Treats MSSA, MRSA, MRSE, resistant-Streptococcus and Enterococcus (including VRE) but NOT for pneumonia.
- Can cause muscle pain/weakness (creatinine phosphokinase elevations) and rash. |
|
|
Term
| What side effects would you expect when prescribing Daptomycin for refractory hematologic, gram + infections? |
|
Definition
1) Rash
2) Muscle weakness/pain (Creatinine phosphokinase elevations) |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of "last resort" for multi drug-resistant gram-negative infections? |
|
Definition
The cell-membrane-damaging Polymyxins (Polymyxin B and Colistin), which treat Pseudomonas and other gram negative species.
- Dose-related, reversible nephrotoxicity and Neurotoxicity make it a last resort. |
|
|
Term
| What are the best Broad-spectrum options for treating Anaerobic infections. |
|
Definition
B. fragilis is the marker of "broad-spectrum activity"
1) PENICILLINS
- Ampicillin/Sulbactam
- Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
- Tacarcillin/Clavulanat
- Piperacilin/Tazobactam
2) Cephalosporins
- Cefoxitin (2B)
3) Carbapenems (ALL)
- Immipenem
- Meropenem
- Doripenem
- Ertapenem
4) Quinolones
- Moxifloxacin
5) Glycocycline
- Tigecycline
6) Lincosamide
- Clindamycin
7) DNA Damaging Agents
- Metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| What are the best Broad-spectrum options for treating Aerobic Gram-negative infections? |
|
Definition
| Pseudomonas is the sign for this broad-specturm
Get MICs and PD to TACCL PA
1) Penicillin
- Tacarcillin/Clavulanate
-Piperacillin/Tazobactam
2) Cephalosporin
-Ceftazadime (III)
- Cefepime (IV)
3) Monobactam
- Aztreonam
4) Carbapenems
- Immipenem/Meropenem/Diropenem
5) Quinolones
-Ciprofloxacin/Levofloxacin
6) Aminoglycosides
- Gentamycin |
|
|
Term
| What drug options are there to treat MRSA? |
|
Definition
Drugs To Treat Very Lethal Commensuals
1) Daptomycin
2) Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
3) Tigecycline (VRE also)
4) Vancomycin/Televancin (also MRSE)
5) Linezolid
6) Ceftaroline (3rd gen) |
|
|
Term
| What drug options are there to treat VRE? |
|
Definition
Learn VRE Drugs for Test
1) Linezolid
2) Daptomycin
3) Tigecyclin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs treat the "Atypicals"? |
|
Definition
1) Macrolides (Clarithromycin/Azithromycin)
2) Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Morifloxicin, Levofloxacin)
3) Tetracyclines (Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Minocycline) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for Nephrotoxicity? |
|
Definition
1) Aminoglycosides (Gentamycin, Tobramycin, Amikacin)
2) Polymyxins (Polymyxin B, Colistin)
3) Vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for C. dif infection? |
|
Definition
1) Clindamycin
2) Flouroquinolones |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for CNS/Seizures? |
|
Definition
1) Imipenem (Carbapenem)
2) Flouroquinolones |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for Myopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for Rash? |
|
Definition
1) Beta-lactams
2) Vancomycin (Red Man's)
3) TM/SFX |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for Pulmonary Fibrosis? |
|
Definition
Nitrofurantoin
- DNA-damaging agent used against gram + (including VRE) and gram - E. coli. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs discussed have concerns for Myelosuppresion? |
|
Definition
1) Linezolid (also seretonin syndrome)
- Drug good for ALL gram + (VRE and MRSA), but reserved for patients with resistant gram + infections. |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics are concentration-dependent? |
|
Definition
These should be given at higher doses, less often.
1) Aminoglycosides (Gentamycin, Tobramycin, Amikacin) have potent gram-negative activity against Pseudomonas, but they have poor bioavailability and can cause Nephro/Ototoxicity
2) Flouroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin) |
|
|
Term
| What forms of resistance are exhibited for Flouroquinolones? |
|
Definition
1) Target mutations in DNA gyrase
2) Permeability issues with OprD porin mutations (gram-negative)
3) Efflux pump |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean for an antibiotic to have an MIC of 4 ug/ml? |
|
Definition
| it take that much per ml to result in NO VISIBLE GROWTH |
|
|
Term
| What is the meaning of Bioavailability and which drugs are good/bad? |
|
Definition
1) Level of drug in blood when given orally/IV
Ex) Flouroquinolones are good (0.9)
Ex) Vancomycin is poor (0.2)- Give it IV! |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs have good/poor Distribution? |
|
Definition
1) Tobramicin and other Aminoglycosides are BAD and don't get to CNS
2) Rifampin, which acts against a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and is associated with many drug:drug interactions has good CNS distribution (0.9 L/kg) |
|
|
Term
| Which important drugs are time-dependent? |
|
Definition
Given at lower doses more often.
1) Beta-lactams
2) Linezolid |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics could be considered "one-sided" in that they preferentially target gram (+) bacteria? |
|
Definition
1) Vancomycin
2) Daptomycin
3) Linezolid
4) Rifampin
5) Pennicillinase-resistant PCNs
6) Fidoxamicin
7) Penicillin |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics could be considered "one-sided" in that they preferentially target gram (-) bacteria? |
|
Definition
1) Polymyxn
2) Ceftavidime
3) Ciprofloxacin
4) Aztreonam |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics cover Bacteroides? |
|
Definition
These Many Meds Can Confidently Cover Bacteroides
1) Tigecycline
2) Moxifloxacin
3) Metranizadole
4) Carbapanems
5) Cefoxitin
6) Clindamycin
7) Beta-lactam+ beta-lactamases |
|
|
Term
| What drugs could you use to treat the Atypical bacterial infections? |
|
Definition
Cough May Lessen with Three Fair Meds
Chlamydiae
Mycoplasma
Legionella
Tetracyclines (tetra, doxi, mino)
Flouroquinolones (cipro, levo, moxifloxacin)
Macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin) |
|
|
Term
| What are the most effective treatments against C. dificile infection? |
|
Definition
1) Clindamycin
2) Flouroquinolones |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can cause rashes? |
|
Definition
1) Trimethorpine/Sulfamethoxazole
2) B-lactams
3) Vancomycin (red man's) |
|
|
Term
| Which Flouroquinolone does not require renal adjustment? |
|
Definition
| Moxifloxicin (treat Strep pneumo and Anaerobes, as well as atypicals) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are commonly used agents for CNS Infections (moderate penetration) |
|
Definition
1) 3rd/4th gen Cephalosporins
2) Meropenem
3) Vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs have low Vd (not useful for CNS)? |
|
Definition
Am Pm = Day Night
1) Aminoglycosides
2) Polymyxins
3) Daptomycin
4) Nitrofurantoin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are Bacteristatic? |
|
Definition
1) Tetracyclines
2) Macrolides
3) Clindamycin
4) Linezolid
5) Tigecycline |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are Bactericidal? |
|
Definition
1) Beta-lactams
2) Aminoglycosides
3) Vancomycin
4) Flouroquinolones
5) Monobactams
6) Daptomycin |
|
|
Term
| How can resistance arise to Beta-lactam drugs? |
|
Definition
1) Altered PBPs (gram +)
2) Efflux pumps
3) Loss of porins (gram -)
4) Beta-lactamases (periplasmic space of gram - and outside cell wall of gram +) |
|
|
Term
| How does Vancomycin/Televancin treat MRSA? |
|
Definition
Vancomycin binds D-Ala and interrupts chain synthesis (before cross-linking)
Televancin may also interrupt cell membrane |
|
|
Term
| How can resistance to Vancomycin arise? |
|
Definition
1) Altered binding site (D-ala-D-ala may change to D-ala-D-serine).
2) Thickened cell wall may prevent Vancomycin from reaching target inside. |
|
|
Term
| What do Aminoglycosides, Macrolides, Tetracyclines, Linezolid, Clindamycin and Tigecycline have in common? |
|
Definition
All inhibitors of protein synthesis at Ribosome.
1) 50S- Linezolid (initiation), Macrolides/Clindamycin (translocate peptididyl-rRNAs to inhibit elongation)
2) 30S
- Tetracyclin/Tigecycline (block access of tRNA to ribosome)
- Aminoglycoside (bind 16sRNA leading to mistranslation) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs disrupt protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosome subunit? |
|
Definition
1) Tetracyclin/Tigecycline (block access of tRNA to ribosome)
2) Aminoglycoside (bind 16S rRNA leading to mistranslation) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs disrupt protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosome subunit? |
|
Definition
1) Linezolid (initiation)
2) Macrolides/Clindamycin (translocate peptididyl-rRNAs to inhibit elongation) |
|
|
Term
| What do Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, Rifampin, Flouroquinolones and Fidoxamycin have in common? |
|
Definition
They are all inhibitors of RNA/DNA synthesis.
TM/SMX (purine synthesis)
Rifampin (inhibits DdRp)
FQ (Topoisomerase)
Fidoxamicin (inhibit bacterial RNA Poli) |
|
|
Term
| How is Trimethoprin/Sulfamethoxazole treatment adjusted for in cases of renal failure? |
|
Definition
EXCELLENT BIOAVAILABILITY
Trimethoprine portion is altered, because it is renally excreted.
SMX is excreted by the liver. |
|
|
Term
| What side effects are associated wtih Trimethoprin/Sulfamethoxazole treatment? |
|
Definition
1) Skin- 3-4%, especially with HIV
2) Renal- Creatinine/Potassium
3) Hematological |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are DNA damaging agents? |
|
Definition
1) Nitrofurantoin (Pro-drug that is reduced to form oxygen radicals)
**resistance with reductase-inhibitory mutations**
2) Metronidazole (Pro-drug that is anaerobically reduced and binds DNA)
**resistance is rare** |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are cell membrane damaging agents? |
|
Definition
1) Daptomycin (binds potassium efflux pump and causes depolarization).
2) Polymyxins (Inserts into membranes, interacts with phospholipids and acts as cationic detergent). |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are Hepatically eliminated? |
|
Definition
1) Tigecycline
2) Rifampin
3) Nafcillin/Oxacillin
4) Ceftriaxone
5) Clindamycin
6) Metranidazole |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs have very good oral absorption and are negatively effected by di and tri-valent cations? |
|
Definition
1) Tetracyclines
2) Flouroquinolones |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is only used to treat cystitis, due to its low systemic levels? |
|
Definition
| Nitrofurantoin (DNA-damaging agent). |
|
|
