Term
Which drug accumulates in the food vacuole of plasmodia and prevents polymerization heme into hemozoin, killing the parasite with toxic levels of heme? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a mechanism of resistance to chloroquine and other anti-malarials? |
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Definition
decreased intracel accumulation via increased activity of membrane pumps, decreased intravaculolar concentrations via a transporter encoded by pfcrt gene |
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Term
What is the DOC for acute attacks of nonfalciparum and sensitive falciparum malaria, and for chemophrophylaxis except in regions where falciparum is resistant? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug has these adverse affects: GI distress, rash, HA, auditory dysfunction and retinal dysfunction at high dose |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug complexes with dsDNA to prevent strand separation, resulting in block of DNA replication and transcription to RNA? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
chloroquine-resistant falciparum, often used with doxycycline or clindamycin to shorten duration of tx, stereoisomer quinidine is used in severe cases |
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Term
Which drug has these adverse effects: cinchonism, hemolysis in G6PD deficiency, blackwater fever |
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Definition
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Term
What is mefloquine used for? |
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Definition
prophylaxis and treatment for resistant falciparum |
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Term
Which drug has these adverse effects: GI distress, rash, HA, cardiac conduction defects and neuro symptoms |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug forms quinoline-quinone metabolites, which are electron-transferring redox compounds that act as cellular oxidants, and works as a tissue schizonticide and also limits malaria transmission by working as a gametocide? |
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Definition
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Term
What is primaquine used for? |
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Definition
eradication of liver stages of vivax and ovale, should be used in conjunction with a blood schizonticide |
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Term
Which drug has these adverse effects: GI distress, methemoglobinemia, hemolysis in G6PD deficiency |
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Definition
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Term
Pyrimethamine, proguanil, sulfadoxine and dapsone are members of which group? |
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Definition
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Term
Which anti-folate drug has a shorter half-life than the others? |
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Definition
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Term
How do sulfonamides work? |
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Definition
act as antimetabolites of PABA and block folic acid synthesis by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthase, |
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Term
Proguanil is bioactivated to... |
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Definition
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Term
pyrimethamine and cycloguanil are selective inhibitors of... |
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Definition
protozoan dihydrofolate reductase |
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Term
How are anti-folate drugs used for malaria? |
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Definition
prophylaxis and treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum |
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Term
Which drug has been used to treat malaria in many countries because of its low cost and effectiveness against chloroquine-resistant falciparum, and has adverse effects including agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug disrupts mitochondrial electron transport in protozoa, and is effective for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of falciparum malaria, but can cause abd pain and GI effects at higher dosage. This is also an alternative treatment for P jiroveci. |
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Definition
atovaquone, a component of Malarone |
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Term
Which drug is active against erythrocytic stages of all malara species, but is not used for chemoprophylaxis due to potential cardiotoxicity (QT prolongation) and embryotoxicity? |
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Definition
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Term
Artesunate and artemether - MOA? Usage? Adverse effects? |
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Definition
metabolized in food vacuole of parasite, forming toxic free radicals. Active against resistant falciparum, but not used for chemoprophylaxis due to short half-lives. ONLY DRUGS RELIABLY EFFECTIVE AGAINST QUININE-RESISTANT STRAINS. N/V/D. |
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Term
What to use for malaria chemoprophylaxis? |
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Definition
chloroquine, mefloquinefor regions with resistant falciparum, doxycycline or Malarone (atovaquine plus proguanil) in areas with multidrug-resistant falciparum |
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Term
Chloroquine, emetines and metronidazole act on organisms located where? |
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Definition
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Term
diloxanide furoate, iodoquinol and paromymycin act on organisms located where? |
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Definition
in the lumen of the bowel |
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Term
For asymptomatic amebiasis, use... |
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Definition
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Term
for mild-severe amebiasis, use... |
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Definition
metronidazole plus a luminal agent |
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Term
for amebic liver abscess, use... |
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Definition
metronidazole plus a luminal agent |
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Term
Diloxanide furoate is converted in the gut to... |
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Definition
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Term
Emetine and dehydroemetine: MOA? |
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Definition
inhibit protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal mvmt along messenger RNA |
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Term
What are emetines used for? Toxicity? |
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Definition
used parenterally as backup drugs for tx of severe intestinal or hepatic amebiasis together with a luminal agent in hospitalized pts. Severe tox - GI distress, muscle weakness, CV dysfunction |
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Term
Which drug is a halogenated hydroxyquinolone used orally as a luminal amebicide for mild-severe intestinal infections? HIgh doses and systemic absorption can lead to what effects? |
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Definition
iodoquinol, thyroid enlargement and neurotoxic effects - periph neuropathy and visual dysfunction |
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Term
Which drug undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferredoxin (present in anaerobic parasites) to form reactive cytotoxic products? |
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Definition
metronidazole, tinidazole |
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Term
Metronidazole or tinidazole is DOC for? |
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Definition
severe intestinal wall disease and in hepatic abscess and other extra-intestinal amebic disease |
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Term
Which drug has these adverse effects: GI irritation, HA, dark color to urine. More serious - leukopenia, dizziness, ataxia. Can have disulfiram-like rxn with ethanol and potentiation of coumarin effects? |
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Definition
metronidazole and tinidazole |
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Term
What is paromymycin? What is it used for? |
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Definition
aminoglycoside antibiotic, used as luminal amebicide, may be superior to diloxanide for asymptomatic infection |
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Term
Paromoycin may have efficacy against ____, in addition to amebiasis |
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Definition
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Term
Systemic abs of paromomycin can lead to... |
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Definition
HA, dizziness, rashes and arthralgia |
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Term
Which drug has activity against various protozoans and helminths, and is currently approved in the US for GI infections caused by giardia and cryptosporidium, and appears to have activity against metronidazole-resistant protozoal strains? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug's MOA is unknown, but may involve inhibition of glycolysis or interference with nucleic acid metabolism of protozoans and fungi, and may be preferentially accumulated by susceptible parasites? |
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Definition
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Term
What is pentamidine used for? |
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Definition
prophylaxis, daily treatment for active pneumocytosis, trypanosomiasis |
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Term
Which drug has severe adverse effects with parental (as opposed to aerosol) use, including respiratory stimulation followed by depression, hypotension from periph vasodilation, hypoglycemia, anemia, neutropenia, hepatitis, and pancreatitis? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is first choice in prophylaxis and treatment of pneumocystis pneumonia? |
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Definition
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Term
Prophylaxis for pneumocytis is recommended when CD4 ct drops below... |
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Definition
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Term
In addition to pneumocystic, TMP-SMX is used for... |
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Definition
toxoplasmosis and isospora belli |
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Term
What are the adverse effects of TMP-SMX? |
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Definition
GI distress, fever, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia |
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Term
For pts allergic to sulfonamides, ______ can be used in combo with pyrimethamine for prophylaxis/tx of toxoplasmosis |
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Definition
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Term
HIgh doses of pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine are assoc with which adverse effects? |
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Definition
gastric irritation, glossitis, neurologic symptoms and hematotoxicity, colitis with clindamycin |
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Term
Which drug is approved for mild-mod PCP, for malaria in combo with proguanil, and works by inhibiting mitrochondrial electron transport and probably folate metabolism? |
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Definition
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Term
Common adverse effects of atovaquone? Should be avoided in who? |
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Definition
rash, cough, N/V//D, fever, abd LFTs, avoid in pts with hx of cardiac conduction defects, psychiatric disorders or seizures |
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Term
Pentamidine, melarsoprol, nifurtimox, suramin and eflornithine are used for... |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is used in the hemolymphatic stages of trypanosomiasis, but doesn't cross the BBB? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is an organic arsenical that inhibits enzyme sulfhydryl groups, enters the CNS, and is the DOC for African Sleeping Sickness? |
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Definition
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Term
How is melarsoprol given? It can cause what fatal adverse effect? |
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Definition
parenterally, reactive encephalopathy |
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Term
Which drug is a nitrofurazone derivative that inhibits the parasite-unique enzyme trypanothione reductase? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is the DOC in American trypanosomiasis, and is an alternative agent for African forms? |
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Definition
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Term
In addition to trypanosomiasis, which drugs have been used for leishmaniasis? |
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Definition
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Term
Nifurtimox can cause severe toxicity, including... |
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Definition
allergies, GI irritation and CNS effects |
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Term
Which drug is the DOC for early hemolymphatic stages of African trypanosomiasis, is an alternative to ivermectin in onchocerciasis, is used parenterally and causes skin rashes, GI distress and neuro complications? |
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Definition
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Term
Which drug is a suicide substrate of ornithine decarboxylase? |
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Definition
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Term
How is eflornithine given? Adverse effects? |
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Definition
oral and IV, penetrates CNS - seizures in overdose, GI irritationa and hematotoxicity |
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Term
What is the primary drug for all forms of leishmaniasis? How does it work? |
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Definition
sodium stibogluconate, inhbiits glycolysis or affects nucleic acid metabolism |
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Term
How is stibogluconate given? Toxicity? Alternative drugs? |
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Definition
parenterally, potentially cardiotoxic (QTc prolongation), pentamidine or miltefosine (visceral), fluconazole or metronidazole (cutaneous), and amphotericin B (mucocutaneous) |
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