Term
| How many bones in appendicular skeleton |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Total # of bones
appendicular?
Axial Skelton? |
|
Definition
Total # of bones -206
appendicular- 126 bones
Axial Skelton-80 |
|
|
Term
This structure on the patella marks an attachment site of the patellar ligaments?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rib 11 and 12 are known as?
and Why?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
Floating ribs
they are not connected to the sternum |
|
|
Term
The clavicle articulates with the ______of the sternum
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure forms the point of the elbow and is accepted into the posterior fossa of the humerus when the arm is extended?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure is the most superior point of the pelvic girdle. Don't just name the bone
Quiz 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protuberance that can be palpated on the lateral side of the ankle is the _____a____. It is a structure on the _________b.
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
a lateral malleolus
b. fibula |
|
|
Term
| Name the roatator cuff muscles (4) |
|
Definition
1. subscapularis
2 Supraspinatus
3. Infraspinatus
4. Teres Minor |
|
|
Term
| Longest largest bone of the upper extremity ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Carpal Bones
8 4 proximal/4distal
Shawn Likes to Push The toy Car Hard |
|
Definition
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrum
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Carpitate
Hamate |
|
|
Term
| Structural characteristics of the pectoral girdle that adapt it to a wide range of movement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The broad, relatively flat portion of the clavicle that articulates with the scapula is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bone articulates with the hip bone at the acetabulum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The protuberance that can be palpated on the lateral side of the ankle is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Structural characteristics of the pelvic girdle that adapt it to the role of bearing the weight of the body |
|
Definition
heavy bones
stable joints
limited range of movement |
|
|
Term
which is the following characteristics of the male pelvis?
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
| coccyx points into the pelvic outlet |
|
|
Term
| The _______of the radius assists in the stabilization of the wrist joint |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The olecranon is found on the ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The small anterior projection of the scapula tht extends over the superior margin of the glenoid cavity is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Observable differences between the male and female pelvis are a result of what |
|
Definition
smoother surface and lighter bones of the female pelvis
less curvature of the sacrum and coccyx in the female
a more circular pelvic outlet
Quiz 4 |
|
|
Term
| identification of an individual by examination of the skeleton can be made by use of which of the following? |
|
Definition
| matching dental records from prior to death |
|
|
Term
| Characteristic that specifically identify a skeletal element as belonging to a male include |
|
Definition
| Heavy orbital ridges on the frontal bones |
|
|
Term
| To determining the age of a skeleton, what pieces of information would be helpful? |
|
Definition
| to determine the age of a skeleton one would consider some or all of the fusion of the epiphyseal plates, the amount of mineral content and the size of the bone amrking of the teeth, bone mass of the mandible and interveterbal disc. |
|
|
Term
| What is the importance of mainitaining the correct amount of curvature of the of the longitudinal arch of the foot |
|
Definition
| weight transfers occur along the longitudinal arch of the foot. Ligaments maintain this arch by tying the calcaneus to the distal portions of the metalateral, calcaneal side of the foot carries most of the weight of the body eight normally. |
|
|
Term
| Why are fractures of the clavical so common? |
|
Definition
| Fracture of the medial portion of the clavical are common because a fall opn the palm of a hand of an outreached upper limb produces compressive forces that conducted to the clavicle and its articulation with the manubrium |
|
|
Term
| Why is the tibia but not the fibula involved in the transfer of weight to the ankle and foot? |
|
Definition
| The tibia is a part of the knee joint and is involved in the transfer of weight to the ankle and foot. The fibula is excluded from the knee joint and does not transfer weight to the anle and foot |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the olecranon of the ulna? |
|
Definition
| The olecranon of the ulna is the point of the elbow. During extreme extension, this process swings into the ocecranon fossa on the posterior surface of the humerous to prevent overextension of the forearm relative to the arm |
|
|
Term
| How is the body weight transfered to the metatarsal bones? |
|
Definition
| Body weight is passed to the metatarsal bones through the cuboid and cuneiform |
|
|
Term
| the ______of the rib articulates with the transferse costal articular facet of a thoracic vetebra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| while jumping off the back step of his house, Mark lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. What bone is likely broken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would a broken clavicle affect the mobility of the scapula? |
|
Definition
| The clavicle attaches the scapula to the sternum and thus restricts the scapula's range of movement. If the clavicle is broken, the scapula will have a greater range of movement and will be less stable. |
|
|
Term
| WHich antebrachial bone is lateral in the anatomical? |
|
Definition
| The radius is in a lateral position when the forearm is in the anatomical position |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the olecranon? |
|
Definition
| The olecranon is the point of the elbow. During extension of the elbow, the olecranon swings into the olecranon fossa on the posterior surface of the humerus to prevent overextension |
|
|
Term
| Which bone is the only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton? |
|
Definition
| The clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum, and this provides the only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skelton |
|
|
Term
| WHat three bones make up the hip bone? |
|
Definition
| The three bones that make up the hip bone are the ilium, ischium, and pubic bones |
|
|
Term
| The fibula does not participate in the knee joint, nor does it bend; but when it is fractured, walking is difficult why? |
|
Definition
| Although the fibula is not part of the knee joint it does not bear weight , it is an important point of attachment for many leg muscles. When the fibula is fractured, these muscles cannot function properly to move the leg, and walking is difficult and painful The fibula also helps stabilize the ankle joint |
|
|
Term
| Describe at least 3 differences between the male and female pelvis |
|
Definition
female adaptations for childbearing, an enlarged pelvic outlet, a wider more circular pelvic inlet; a relatively broard, low pelvis, ilia that project father laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum, and a broader pubic arch , with the inferior angle between the pubic bones greater than 100 degrees
Quiz #4 |
|
|
Term
| Why would a person who has oseoporosis be more likely to suffer a broken hip than a broken shoulder? |
|
Definition
| in osteoporosis, a decrease in the calcium content of the body leads to bones that are weak and brittle. Since the hip joint and leg bones must support the weight of the body weakening of these bones may result in insufficient strength to support the body mass, and as a result the bone will break under weight. The shoulder joint is not a load-bearing joint and is not subject to the same great stressers or strong muscles contractions as the hip joint. as a result bones break in the joint less. |
|
|
Term
| Archaeologists find the pelvis of a primitive human and are able to tell the sex, the relative age, and some physicial characteristicsof the individual. How is this possible from the pelvis only? |
|
Definition
| the general appearance of the pelvis, the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the characteristics of the ischium are all important in determining an individuals sex of the skeleton. Age can be determined by the size, degree of mineralization, and various marking on the bone. The individual's general appearance can be constructed by looking at the markings where muscle attach to the bones. this can indicate the size, shape of muscle and thus the individual |
|
|
Term
| How would a forensic scientist decided whether a partial skeleton found in the forest is that of a male or female? |
|
Definition
| Many cranial characteristics would reveal the sex of the individual, but there are also characteristics in other skeletal elements, such as robustness of the bones, the angles at which the pubic bones meet, the width of the pelvis , the angle s of the femurs and more |
|
|
Term
| The condition of lower than normal longitudinal arches is known as "flatfeet" what structure problem causes flatfeet. |
|
Definition
| The condition known as flatfeet is due to a lower-than normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A weakness in the ligaments and tendons the attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals would most likely contribute to this condition |
|
|
Term
These two carpal bone articulate with the radius?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the distal aspect of the articular condyle of the humerus to which the ulna articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the scapula that the head of the humerus articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Three muscles attach to (insert on) the greater tubercle of the humerus?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The biceps brachii attaches to (or originates on) these two structures of the scapula. Name them
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
supraglenoid tubercle
coracoid process |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the ulnar tuberosity?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| brachialis muscle attaches |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the intertubercular groove?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| A tendon biceps brachii passes through |
|
|
Term
This is the depression on the anterior and distal surface of the humerus that a projection from the ulna goes into when you flex your arm?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prominence of your elbow is called ______and is part of this bone
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If someone is wearing a wedding ring, it is wore around what bone?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name all of the distal carpal bones. Lateral----
Medial______
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
Lateral: trapezium and trapezoid
Medial: hamate, Lunate |
|
|
Term
This is the structure that is the most superior aspect of the pelvic girdle. This structure can be easily palpated
name the muscle that attaches to this structure?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
--illeac crest
muscle gluteus maximus |
|
|
Term
Name the structure that the head of the femur articulates with the pelvic girdle?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the head of the radius proximal or distal?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This coxal bone is both anterior and inferior?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are several differences between the pelvis of a male and female. Name three?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
rounder pelvic inlet in females
less curvature of sacrum and coccyx in females
bigger/wider pelvic outlet in females |
|
|
Term
This is the posterior projection of the scapula and is an attachment point for several muscles. Name the projection here and on the following line, name the muscle that attaches to it>
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The subscapularis muscle attaches to 2 bone structures that we discussed in class. Name both of them (one is the orgin and the other is the insertion)
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
subscapular fossa (scapula)
lesser tubercle (humerus) |
|
|
Term
Pronation is a special movement that can occur at this joint?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| Joint between radius and ulns at end of both bones proximal radial ulnar joint |
|
|
Term
Many muscles orginate on the posterior surface of the scapula. Name one of them and indicate how they are associated with the scapula ?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| infraspinatus, attached to infraspinous fossa, inferior to spine of scapula |
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the pelvic girdle which bears your weight when seated?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the proximal carpal bones ?
See Lisa peel tomatoes |
|
Definition
Scaphoid
lunate
pisiform
triquetrum |
|
|
Term
Name the tarsal bones?
Crazy Timmy Never Could Cooperate |
|
Definition
Calcaneus, talus, Navicular, cuneiforn
cuboid |
|
|
Term
This structure on the patella marks an attachment site of the patellar ligaments?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rib 11 and 12 are known as?
and Why?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
Floating ribs
they are not connected to the sternum |
|
|
Term
The clavicle articulates with the ______of the sternum
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure forms the point of the elbow and is accepted into the posterior fossa of the humerus when the arm is extended?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure is the most superior point of the pelvic girdle. Don't just name the bone
Quiz 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protuberance that can be palpated on the lateral side of the ankle is the _____a____. It is a structure on the _________b.
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
a lateral malleolus
b. fibula |
|
|
Term
which is the following characteristics of the male pelvis?
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
| coccyx points into the pelvic outlet |
|
|
Term
| while jumping off the back step of his house, Mark lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. What bone is likely broken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Archaeologists find the pelvis of a primitive human and are able to tell the sex, the relative age, and some physicial characteristicsof the individual. How is this possible from the pelvis only? |
|
Definition
| the general appearance of the pelvis, the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the characteristics of the ischium are all important in determining an individuals sex of the skeleton. Age can be determined by the size, degree of mineralization, and various marking on the bone. The individual's general appearance can be constructed by looking at the markings where muscle attach to the bones. this can indicate the size, shape of muscle and thus the individual |
|
|
Term
These two carpal bone articulate with the radius?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the distal aspect of the articular condyle of the humerus to which the ulna articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the scapula that the head of the humerus articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Three muscles attach to (insert on) the greater tubercle of the humerus?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The biceps brachii attaches to (or originates on) these two structures of the scapula. Name them
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
supraglenoid tubercle
coracoid process |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the ulnar tuberosity?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| brachialis muscle attaches |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the intertubercular groove?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| A tendon biceps brachii passes through |
|
|
Term
This is the depression on the anterior and distal surface of the humerus that a projection from the ulna goes into when you flex your arm?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prominence of your elbow is called ______and is part of this bone
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If someone is wearing a wedding ring, it is wore around what bone?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name all of the distal carpal bones. Lateral----
Medial______
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
Lateral: trapezium and trapezoid
Medial: hamate, Lunate |
|
|
Term
This is the structure that is the most superior aspect of the pelvic girdle. This structure can be easily palpated
name the muscle that attaches to this structure?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
--illeac crest
muscle gluteus maximus |
|
|
Term
Name the structure that the head of the femur articulates with the pelvic girdle?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the head of the radius proximal or distal?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This coxal bone is both anterior and inferior?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are several differences between the pelvis of a male and female. Name three?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
rounder pelvic inlet in females
less curvature of sacrum and coccyx in females
bigger/wider pelvic outlet in females |
|
|
Term
This is the posterior projection of the scapula and is an attachment point for several muscles. Name the projection here and on the following line, name the muscle that attaches to it>
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The subscapularis muscle attaches to 2 bone structures that we discussed in class. Name both of them (one is the orgin and the other is the insertion)
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
subscapular fossa (scapula)
lesser tubercle (humerus) |
|
|
Term
Pronation is a special movement that can occur at this joint?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| Joint between radius and ulns at end of both bones proximal radial ulnar joint |
|
|
Term
Many muscles orginate on the posterior surface of the scapula. Name one of them and indicate how they are associated with the scapula ?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| infraspinatus, attached to infraspinous fossa, inferior to spine of scapula |
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the pelvic girdle which bears your weight when seated?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Support-Provides support soft tissue-points of attachment for sketal muscle.
Storage of minerals and lipids
blood cell production
protection of internal organs and tissues
Leverage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Outer surface of bone
found around the bone surface not covered by articular cartilage
at joints the periosteum is continous with ligaments that bind the bones together
Seperates bone from surrounding tissue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lines the marrow cavity
covers trabeculae of spongy bone and lines the inner surface of the centeral canal
incomplete cellular layer containing the epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Found on the inner or outer surface of the bone
Synthesize and secrete the organic components of bone matrix (osteoid)
Responsible for the production of new bone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
large mulitnucleate cells
secrete acids through the exocytosis of lyosomes
acids dissolve the bony matrix and released the stored minerals of calcium and phosphate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
produce daughter cells differentiate into ostoblasts
important for fracture repair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
rounded passage for blood vessels and/or nerves
Example: Mental foramen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
shallow depression
Example olecranon fossa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Expanded articular end of an epiphysis
Example Femoral Head |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Prominent ridge
Example lilac crest |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
small rough projection
Example : deltoid tubersoity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Any projection or bump
Example Coracoid process |
|
|
Term
Classification of Bone by shape
Long |
|
Definition
| relatively long and slender, contain 2 diaphyses, metaphyses, epiphyses and a marrow cavity (humerous and femur) |
|
|
Term
Classification of bones by shape
Short |
|
Definition
| boxlike in appearance, exterior-compact, interior-spongy (carpal and tarsal bones) |
|
|
Term
Classification of bone by shape
Flat |
|
Definition
| Thin relatively parallel surface of compact bone. Resembles a spongy sandwich . Provides extensive surface area for muscle attachment (skull bones, sternum, ribs and scapulae) |
|
|
Term
Classification of bones by shape
Irregular |
|
Definition
| complex shapes with short flat, notched or ridge surfaces. Internal structure equally varied(vertebrae) |
|
|
Term
Classification of Bone by Shape
Sutural |
|
Definition
| Between flat bones of the skull in the suture line. Size can vary form a grain of sand to a quarter |
|
|
Term
Classification of bone by shape
Sesamoid |
|
Definition
small, round, flat
develop inside tendons (patella) |
|
|
Term
Describe the bone structure:
Matrix |
|
Definition
solid because of calcium depositesd around protein fibers
Bone is a protein-crystal combination with properties between collagen and pure mineral crystal
cells less than 2% of the mass of bone |
|
|
Term
| Describe the bone cell osteocytes |
|
Definition
Mature bone cells
monitor and maintain the mineral and protein content of surrounding matrix
diects and releases calcium and depositionof calcium salts
found in lacunae-sandwiched between layes of calcified matrix (lamella) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| remains staionairy, proximal to the insetion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| moves distal to the origin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| has two tendons of origin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| has three tendons of origin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| has four tendons of origin |
|
|
Term
Function Action in naming muscle
(Flexor) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Functions of skeletal muscles |
|
Definition
1. produce skeletal movement
2. Maintain posture and body position
3. support soft tissue
4. Regulating entering and existing of material openings of the digestive and urinary tracts
5. Maintain body temperature |
|
|
Term
| How does the skeletal movement happen? |
|
Definition
| muscles contract pull on tendons and move the bones of the skeleton. |
|
|
Term
| Hoe does the body maintain posture and body position? |
|
Definition
| Constant muscular contraction of specific muscles |
|
|
Term
| Describe how the skeletal muscles support fot tissue? |
|
Definition
| the abdominal wall and floor of the pelvic cavity consist of layers of skeletal muscles that support the weight of visceral organs and help protect internal issue from injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe how the skeletal muscles maintain body temperature |
|
Definition
| muscles contract require energy and whenever whenever energy is used in body some of it converts to heat. Heat lost by contracting muscles keep our body temperature in notmal range. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and binds it to the neighbor
-supports capillaries that supply the individual fibers
-consists of a delicate network of reticular fibers
-scattered myostelitte cells lie between the endomysium and the muscle fibers
-function in the repair of damaged muscle fibers |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 layers of the epidermis in thick skin (from deep to superficial) |
|
Definition
stratum germinativum
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum |
|
|
Term
| What has changed about the epidermis when someone has a callous? |
|
Definition
| Increase friction causes increased keratohyalin and keratin production resulting in a thicker epidermis |
|
|
Term
| At what point in their movement through the epidermal layers are the keratinocytes considered dead cells? |
|
Definition
| Keratinocytes die in the Stratum Granulosum after producing keratohyalin and keratin |
|
|
Term
| Whats the function of keratin? |
|
Definition
| Keratin gives the skin structure, strength and waterproof qualities |
|
|
Term
| Melanocytes (location and function) |
|
Definition
| pigament producing cells, found in Stratum Germinativum and Spinosum. They inject pigment into the keratinocytes through vesicles called melanosomes |
|
|
Term
| Merkel cells (location and function) |
|
Definition
| Found in epidermis sections that lack hair in the Stratum germinativum. They are sensitive to touch and release chemicals that stimulate nerve endings |
|
|
Term
| Langerhans cells (location and function) |
|
Definition
| found in the Stratum Spinosum. Initiate immune response against pathogens and epidermal cancer cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cornification process by which the epithelium becomes strengthened by large amounts of keratin. Keratinocytes thicken and the organelles disintegrate, resulting in cell death and tightly woven keratin fibers, surrounded by keratohyalin |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for cells to move from the stratum germinativum to the stratum corneum? |
|
Definition
| cell move from the stratum germinativum to the stratum corneum in 15-30 days. They remain in the stratum corneum for 2 weeks until they are shed. |
|
|
Term
| How does the pigment melanin protect cells from UV radiation? |
|
Definition
| Melanin protects from UV radiation when it is contained in melanosomes close to the surface (corneum) of the epidermis. The melanin is able to absorb the UV rays before they damage the nuclear DNA of the keratinocytes |
|
|
Term
| What accounts for the difference in skin color? |
|
Definition
| Skin colors vary based on the number of melanosomes that are transfered to the stratum granulosomes are larger and travel all the way to the stratum granulosum, but in lighter skinned individuals, the melanosomes are smaller and only make it to the stratum germinativum and spinosum |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of acquiring a tan. What processes occur in the epidermis? Why isn't a tan permanent? |
|
Definition
| when UV exposure occurs, the melanocytes produce more melanin to protect the skin. Once UV exposures decreases, the melanocytes go back to normal melanin production. The tan is not permanent because the skin sheds its surface layers |
|
|
Term
| WHy are tattoos permanent when a tan is not? |
|
Definition
| in the case of a tattoo, insoluble ink is injected into the dermal layer, a part of the skin that fairly stable and unchanging throughout a person's lifetime. |
|
|
Term
| What happens with a sunburn? What type of burn is this considered? |
|
Definition
| Sunburns occur whenthe skin is not protected form UV exposure by melanin. This burn is usually first or second degree. |
|
|
Term
| What is cyanosis and why does the skin appear bluish in this condition. |
|
Definition
| cyanosis: condition that occurs when blood lacks oxygen. Can be caused by circulatory and repiratory disorders or extreme cold. |
|
|
Term
| Both maligant melanoma and basal cell carcinoma are types of epidermal skin cancer, what cells are affected in each case. |
|
Definition
malignant melanoma: cancer of melanocytes
basal cell carcinoma: cancer that orginates in stratum germinativum |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 layers of the dermis and what type of tissue is found in each WHich is thicker? |
|
Definition
papillary layer-thinner made of loose connective tissue, capillaries, axons and dermal papillae.
reticular layer-dense irregular connective tissue,blood vessels, hair follicles, nerves, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands. name derivied from collagen fibers. |
|
|
Term
| Is the epidermis vascular? dermis? what is cutaneous plexus? papillary plexus? |
|
Definition
The epidermis is avascular, while the dermis is vascular.
Cutaneous plexus: Arteries and veins supplying the skin in the subcutaneous layer along the border of the reticular layer.
papillary plexus: network of small arteries and capillaries that are connected to the cutaneous plexus. Supplies the epidermal/dermal boundary. |
|
|
Term
| How can the skin help regulate body temperature? |
|
Definition
| the skin regulates body temperature by increasing blood supply to dispel excess heat and decreasing blood supply to retain heat. |
|
|
Term
| what are the dermal papillae and how does that structure create your fingerprints. |
|
Definition
| dermal papillae are ridges that extend up from the dermal layer. Along with the epidermal ridges that extend from the dermal layer. Along with the epidermal ridges, they form the ridge pattern that make up fingerprints, projections on the skin that increase surface area and grip. |
|
|
Term
| What are the names for the nerve receptors in the skin (hint: corpuscles)? |
|
Definition
tactile corpuscles: located in the dermal papillae, sensitive to light touch
root hair plexus: surround each hair follicle. sensitive to light touch.
ruffini corpuscles: located in the reticular layer, sensitive to stretch
lamellated corpuscles: located in the reticullar layer, sensitive to deep pressure and vibration |
|
|
Term
| What are the "lines of cleavage" and why are they important for a surgeon to know? |
|
Definition
| the lines of cleavage refer to the parallel arrangement of the collagen and elastic fibers of the skin. The fibers are aligned for max. stress resistance. A surgeon cuts parallel to the lines of clevage to speed healing and prevent scarring. |
|
|
Term
| What changes in the skin lead to stretch marks? be specific about anatomical changes |
|
Definition
| stretch marks occur when elastic and collagen fibers are stretched to the point of breaking. The skin then wrinkles and creases. Pregnancy is a common cause of stretch marks. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| wrinkles occur with age, hormones, and the destructive effects of UV radiation reduces the thickness and flexibility of the dermis. |
|
|
Term
| What's the difference between the 1st, 2nd and 3rd degree of burns? |
|
Definition
1st-only affect the epidermis
2nd: affect the epidermis and dermis
3rd affect the epidermis, dermis and tissue below. |
|
|
Term
| Why would areas with 2nd degree burns be red, blistered and painful, while the 3rd degree burns are generally paale in appearance and not as painful? |
|
Definition
| 3rd degree burns go all the way through the skin and destroy nerves on the way, so pain may not be detected. 2nd degree burns end in the dermis, and activate the nerves there resulting in pain. |
|
|
Term
| What is done clinically for the 1st. 2nd and 3rd degreee burns? |
|
Definition
1st: aloe vera or antibotic creme
2nd: antibiotic cream and other ointments
3rd skin grafts,antibiotic cream and IV antibiotics |
|
|
Term
| Function of the integumentary system: |
|
Definition
physical protection from the enviromental hazards
-thermoregulation's
-synthesis and storage of lipid reserves
-excretion
-synthesis of vitamin D3
-sensory information
-coordination of immune response to patogen and cancers of the skin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| largest organ in the body-7% of body weight |
|
|
Term
Anatomically "thick skin" and "thin Skin" refer to the differences in the thickness of the
a. papillary layer
b. dermis
c. hypodermis
d. epidermis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effects of aging on the skin include?
a. a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands
b. increased production of vitamin D
c. thickening of the epidermis
d. an increased blood supply to the dermis |
|
Definition
| a. a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands |
|
|
Term
Skin color is the product of the
a. dermal blood supply
b. pigment composition
c. pigment concentration
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sensible perpiration
a. cools the skin surface to reduce body temperatureb. provides an excretory route for water and electrolytes
c. dilute harmful chemicles and discourages bacterial growth on the skin
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The layer of the skin that contains both interwoven bundles of collagen fibers and the protein elastin, and is responsible for the strength of the skin, is the
a. papillary layer
b. reticular layer
c. epidermal layer
d. hypodermal layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The layer of the epidermis that contain cells undergoing division is the ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Water loss due to penetration of interstitial fluid through the surface of the skin is termed?
a. sensible perspiration
b. insensible perspiration
c.latent perspiration
d. active perspiration |
|
Definition
| b. insensible perspiration |
|
|
Term
All of the following are effects of aging except
a. the thinning of the epidermis of the skin
b. an increase in the number of Langerhans cells
c. a decrease in melanocyte activity
d. a decrease in glandular activity |
|
Definition
| b. an increase in the number of Langerhans cells |
|
|
Term
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system EXCEPT
a. protection of underlying tissue
b. excretion
c. synthesis of vitamin C
d. thermoregulation |
|
Definition
| c. synthesis of vitamin C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a orange yellow pigment that accumulates inside epidermal cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it extends from the hair bulb to the point where the internal organization of the hair is complete |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin. |
|
|
Term
| Why do fair skinned individuals have to shield themselves from the sun more than dark skinned individuals? |
|
Definition
| fair skinned individuals produce less melanin in their melanocytes, and are therefore less able to prevent the absorption of potientally damaging ultraviolet radiation. Since more UV radiation reaches the deeper skin layers, it may cause a greater amount of damage |
|
|
Term
| How and why to calluses form? |
|
Definition
| mechanical stresses cause cells in the stratum basale to divide more rapidly, increasing the thickness of the epithelium |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics make the subcutaneous layer a region frequently targeted for hypodermic injection (shots) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do washing the skin and applying deodrant reduce the odor of apocrine sweat glands? |
|
Definition
| These activites either reduce the amount of potentially odorous secretion on the surface of the skin or inhibit the activity of bacteria on these secretions |
|
|
Term
| What happens to an individual who is cyanotic, and what body structures whould show this condition most easily? |
|
Definition
| an individual who is cyanotic has a decrease in circualtion to the skin. As a result the skin takes on a bluish skin. |
|
|
Term
| Why are elderly people less able to adapt to temperature extremes? |
|
Definition
| In elderly people the blood supply to the dermis and the activity of seat glands secrease. This combination makes the elderly less able to lose body heat and less able to cool themselves when exposed to high temperatures. |
|
|
Term
| Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occured because? |
|
Definition
| stem cells persist in both the epithelial and connective tissue components of the skin even after injury |
|
|
Term
| In a condition called sunstroke, the victim appears flushed the skin is warm and dry and the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain the observation based on what you know.... |
|
Definition
| the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the skin. the red pigment in the blood gives the skin a redder than usual color and accounts for the person's flushed appearance. The skin is dry, and becomes more flushed and the temperatures rise |
|
|
Term
| You are about to undergo surgery. Why is it important that your physician have an excellent understanding of the lines of clevage of the skin. |
|
Definition
| lines of clevage are important because a cut that runs parallel to a clevage line closes more easily. will heal faster and less scaring |
|
|
Term
| Many medications can be administered transdermally by applying a patch that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the skin and the soles of the feet. Why? |
|
Definition
| the palms and soles have a thicker epidermis and an extra layer in the epidermis, the stratum luciiiidum. The thicker layer slows down the absorption of the medication, decreasing the effectiveness. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the dermis is stretched excessively, the elastic fibers are overstretched and are not able to recoil. The skin then forms folds or wrinkles, called stetch marks |
|
|
Term
| Whats the purpose of the hair follicles? |
|
Definition
Produce hairs that protect skull
Produces hair that provide delicate touch snesations on general body service |
|
|
Term
| What are the accessory structures of the integumentary system? |
|
Definition
-Hair Follicles
-Exocrine glands
-Nails |
|
|
Term
| What the function of exocrine glands? |
|
Definition
Assist in thermoregulation
Excretes wastes
Lubricates epidermis |
|
|
Term
| Describe the function of Nails? |
|
Definition
| Protect and support tips of fingers and toes. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the function of the epidermis? |
|
Definition
-Protects dermis from trauma, chemical
-Controls skin permeability, prevents water loss
-prevents entry of patogens
-synthesizes Vitamin D3
-Sensory receptors to detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature
-Coordinates immune response to pathogens and skin cancers |
|
|
Term
| What's the 2 layers of the dermis? |
|
Definition
Papillary layer
Recticular layer |
|
|
Term
| Describe the sebaceous glands and follicles function |
|
Definition
| secrete oily lipid that coats hair shafts and epidermis. provide lubrication and antibacterial action. |
|
|
Term
| What changes happen to the skin with aging? |
|
Definition
-Changes in distribution of fat and hair. Due to the decrase in sex hormone levels
-Fewer active follicles-Thinner, sparse hairs
-fewer melanocytes: pale skin, decrease tolerance to sun exposure
-reduces blood supply: slow healing;reduce ability to lose heat
-thin dermis: sagging and wrinkling due to fiber loss
-reduce sweat gland activity : tendency to overheat
-thin epidermis :slow repairs, decrease vit.D. production reduce number of Langerhams cells |
|
|
Term
| Describe Stratum Germinativum (basale layer) |
|
Definition
| contains epidermal stem cells, melanocytes and merkel cells. Attach to basal lamina |
|
|
Term
| Describe stratum spinosum |
|
Definition
| 8-10 layers of interlocking keratinocytes. Melanocytes insert melanin into keratinocyte here. Langerhans immune cells are found here. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the layer stratumgranulosum? |
|
Definition
| keratinocytes in which the nuclei and organelles begin to degenerate. Marks the transition between metabolically active and dead cells. Cells have dark staining granules of keratohyalin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| More apparent in thick skin than thin. Appears clear. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Stratum Corneum? |
|
Definition
| Many layers of flattened, dead interlocking keratinocytes |
|
|
Term
| S. Basale and S. Spinosum contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fibroblasts, macrophages and adipocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers |
|
|
Term
| Excessive shedding of cells from the outer layer of skin in the scalp causes dandruff. What is the layer of this skin? |
|
Definition
| cells are constantly shed from the outer layer of the stratum corneum |
|
|
Term
| What is keratinization? what are the stages of the process? |
|
Definition
| Keratinization is the production of keratin by epidermal cells. It occurs in the stratum granulosum. As keratin fibers are produced, these cells become tinner and flatter and their plasmalemmae become thicker and less permeable. As the cells die, they form the densley paked layers of the stratum lucidum and stratum corneum. |
|
|
Term
| some criminals sand the tips of their fingers so as not to leave recoginiable fingerprints. ? would this practice permanetly remove the fingerprints? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
| Sanding the tips of one's fingers will not permanently remove fingerprint. SInce the epidermal ridges of the fingerprints are formed in layers of the skinthat are constantly regenenerated and will be reformed. The actual pattern of the ridges is determined by the arrangement of tissue in the dermis. |
|
|
Term
| Identify the sources of color of the epidermis? |
|
Definition
| The color of the epidermis is due to a combination of the dermal blood supply and variable quantities of two pigaments: carotene and melanin. |
|
|
Term
| What condition is produced by the contraction of the arrector pili? |
|
Definition
| Contraction of the arrector pili pulls the hair follicle erect, depressing the area of the base od the hair to appear higher. "goosebumps" |
|
|
Term
| What is sensible perspiration? |
|
Definition
| sensible perspiration is the sweat produced by merocrine sweat glands. |
|
|
Term
| Describethe functions of the reticular layer? |
|
Definition
restricts spread of pathogens penetrating epidermis.
-stores lipid reserves
-attaches skin to deeper tissuesensory receptors dtetect touch, pressure, pain , vibration and temperature.
-vessel assist in thermoregulation |
|
|
Term
| How does hair color vary? |
|
Definition
| Variations in hair color reflect differences in hair structure and variations in the pigment produced by melanocytes zt the papills |
|
|
Term
This structure on the patella marks an attachment site of the patellar ligaments?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rib 11 and 12 are known as?
and Why?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
Floating ribs
they are not connected to the sternum |
|
|
Term
The clavicle articulates with the ______of the sternum
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure forms the point of the elbow and is accepted into the posterior fossa of the humerus when the arm is extended?
QUIZ 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This structure is the most superior point of the pelvic girdle. Don't just name the bone
Quiz 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protuberance that can be palpated on the lateral side of the ankle is the _____a____. It is a structure on the _________b.
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
a lateral malleolus
b. fibula |
|
|
Term
which is the following characteristics of the male pelvis?
QUIZ4 |
|
Definition
| coccyx points into the pelvic outlet |
|
|
Term
| while jumping off the back step of his house, Mark lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. What bone is likely broken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Archaeologists find the pelvis of a primitive human and are able to tell the sex, the relative age, and some physicial characteristicsof the individual. How is this possible from the pelvis only? |
|
Definition
| the general appearance of the pelvis, the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the characteristics of the ischium are all important in determining an individuals sex of the skeleton. Age can be determined by the size, degree of mineralization, and various marking on the bone. The individual's general appearance can be constructed by looking at the markings where muscle attach to the bones. this can indicate the size, shape of muscle and thus the individual |
|
|
Term
These two carpal bone articulate with the radius?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the distal aspect of the articular condyle of the humerus to which the ulna articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the scapula that the head of the humerus articulates?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Three muscles attach to (insert on) the greater tubercle of the humerus?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The biceps brachii attaches to (or originates on) these two structures of the scapula. Name them
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
supraglenoid tubercle
coracoid process |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the ulnar tuberosity?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| brachialis muscle attaches |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the intertubercular groove?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| A tendon biceps brachii passes through |
|
|
Term
This is the depression on the anterior and distal surface of the humerus that a projection from the ulna goes into when you flex your arm?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The prominence of your elbow is called ______and is part of this bone
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If someone is wearing a wedding ring, it is wore around what bone?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name all of the distal carpal bones. Lateral----
Medial______
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
Lateral: trapezium and trapezoid
Medial: hamate, Lunate |
|
|
Term
This is the structure that is the most superior aspect of the pelvic girdle. This structure can be easily palpated
name the muscle that attaches to this structure?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
--illeac crest
muscle gluteus maximus |
|
|
Term
Name the structure that the head of the femur articulates with the pelvic girdle?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the head of the radius proximal or distal?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This coxal bone is both anterior and inferior?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are several differences between the pelvis of a male and female. Name three?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
rounder pelvic inlet in females
less curvature of sacrum and coccyx in females
bigger/wider pelvic outlet in females |
|
|
Term
This is the posterior projection of the scapula and is an attachment point for several muscles. Name the projection here and on the following line, name the muscle that attaches to it>
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The subscapularis muscle attaches to 2 bone structures that we discussed in class. Name both of them (one is the orgin and the other is the insertion)
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
subscapular fossa (scapula)
lesser tubercle (humerus) |
|
|
Term
Pronation is a special movement that can occur at this joint?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| Joint between radius and ulns at end of both bones proximal radial ulnar joint |
|
|
Term
Many muscles orginate on the posterior surface of the scapula. Name one of them and indicate how they are associated with the scapula ?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
| infraspinatus, attached to infraspinous fossa, inferior to spine of scapula |
|
|
Term
This is the name for the structure of the pelvic girdle which bears your weight when seated?
Quiz #4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Connective tissue proper
Loose fibers |
|
Definition
Loose fibers
Areolar tissue
Adipose tissue
Reticular tissue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lines the joint cavities-reduce friction within the joint |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| makes up skin and is waterproof |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lines pleural, pericardial and peritoneal cavities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lines digestive and respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| Three types of muscle tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe skeletal muscle tissue
location
function |
|
Definition
muscle tissue cells are long, cylindrical, striated, multinucleate
location: combine connective tissue and neural tissue in skeletal muscle
Function: moves are stabilizes the portion of skeleton, guards entrance and exits of digestive system, respiratory, urinary tracts generates heat and protects organs |
|
|
Term
| Describe smooth muscle location and function |
|
Definition
cells are short, spindle shaped, non-striated and single ventral nuclei
Location: walls of blood vessels and in digestive system, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive
Functions moves food, urine, reproductive fluids, regulates diameter of vessels |
|
|
Term
Cardiac muscle tissue
Location
Function |
|
Definition
cells are short, branched, striated, single nuclei, cells are interconnected
location: heart
Function: Maintains circulation, and b/p |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
specialized to conduct electrical signals through the body
neurons-cells that transmit impulse
neuroglia- supporting cells of of the neural tissue |
|
|
Term
| The skeletal system is made of: |
|
Definition
Cartilage
ligaments
connective tissue to stabilize the skeleton
skeletal bones |
|
|
Term
| Funtion of the skeletal system |
|
Definition
Support
Storage of minerals
Leverage
Protection
|
|
|
Term
| Outer lining of bones called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inner lining of bones called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe histological organization of mature bones |
|
Definition
the matrix-calcium phosphate eventually coverts to hydroxyapatite crystals which resist compression
Collagen fibers- make up 2/3 bone matrix
contribute to tensile strength of bones
bone cells
|
|
|
Term
| Name the cells of the mature bone |
|
Definition
osteocytes
osteoblasts
osteoprogenitor cells
osteoclasts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
mature bone cell
maintain the protein and mineral content of the matrix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
immature bone cells
found on inner and outer surface of bone
produce osteoid; which is involved in making the matrix
can convert to osteocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
found on inner and outer surface of bone
heavily involved in the repair of bone once broken |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dissolve bone thereby causing the release of stored calcium ions into the blood |
|
|
Term
| name the 2 types of osseous tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dense and solid
forms the walls of bone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Structural difference between compact and spongy bone |
|
Definition
compact
-consists of osteons
makes updense solid portion of bone
Spongy
trabeculae are arranged in parallel struts form branching platesand open networks. Create the lightweight nature of the bone |
|
|
Term
| Functional difference between compact and spongy bone |
|
Definition
Compact
conducts stress from one part of body to another
generates tremendous strength from end to end
weak strength when stress applied to side
spongy
trabeculae create strength to deal with stress from side to side |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
epiphysis-each end of long bone
diaphysis-shaft of long bone
metaphysis- narrow growth zone inbetween
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
outer surface of bone
isolates and protects bone from surrounding tissue
provides a route and place of attachment for circulatory and nervous supply
active in bone growth and repair
attaches bone to the connective tissue network |
|
|
Term
| decribe the relationship of periosteum and tendons |
|
Definition
Tendons are cemented into the lamellae by osteoblasts
therefore tendons are actually part of the bone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inner surface of bone
consists of osteoprogenitor cells
actively involved in growth and repair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Four major sets of blood vessels associated with the long bones. |
|
Definition
1. nutrient vessels-centeral canals odosteons
2. Metaphyseal vessels-supply nutrients to the diaphyseal edge of the epiphysis
3. Epiphyseal vessels- supply nutrients tot he medullary cavities of the epiphysis
4. Periosteal vessels- supply nutrients to the superfical osetons |
|
|
Term
| Factors that regulate bone growth |
|
Definition
nutrition
calcium ions
phosphate ions
magnesium ions
citrate
carbonate ions
sodium ions
Vitamins A,C,D calcitriol
Hormones- release parathyroid hormone and stimulates osteoclasts and osteoblast and < calcium absorption
|
|
|
Term
| Hormones that regulate bone growth |
|
Definition
thyroid gland releases calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts removes calcium ions from blood and adds to bones
releases thyroxine (T4) maintains normal activity of epiphyseal cartilage
Pituitary gland -release growth hormone (somatotropin)
Maintains normal activity of epiphyseal cartilage |
|
|
Term
| Fractures are described by this classification |
|
Definition
Position of the bone
compllletness of break
wheter the skin was penetrated
also describe the location external appearance and nature of the break |
|
|
Term
Describe the position of the bone ends after fracture
Nondisplaced- (______)
Displaced - (________)
completeness of the break
Complete-(________)
Incomplete-(________)
open- (compound) (________)
closed (simple) (________) |
|
Definition
Nondisplaced-ends retain in normal position
displaced-ends out of normal alignment
completeness of the break
Complete-broken all the way through
Incomplete-not broken all the way through
whether skin is penetrated-
open- (compound) skin is pentrated
closed (simple) skin is not penetrated
|
|
|
Term
Type of fracture
comminuted |
|
Definition
| bone fragment into 3 or more pieces. Particulary common in the aged whose bones are more brittle |
|
|
Term
Type of fracture
compression |
|
Definition
| Bone is crushed. Subject to extreme trauma, as in a fall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied.
such as sports injury or child abuse cases |
|
|
Term
Type of fracture
Epiphyseal |
|
Definition
| tends to occur where cartilage cells are dying and calcification of the matrix is occuring |
|
|
Term
Type of fracture
Depressed |
|
Definition
| Typical fracture of skull. Broken bone portion is pressed inward |
|
|
Term
Type of fracture
Greenstick |
|
Definition
| Bone breaks incomplletely, much the way a green twig breaks. one side breaks and the other side bends. Common in children because their bones are more flexable than adults |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reduction-re-align bone ends. Closed reduction the doctor manipulates the bone to get it back into place
or
open reduction is sugery with pins and wirres
Immoblization-by cast or traction till healed |
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
Osteomalacia |
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Definition
| bones are poorly mineralized, calcium salts not adequate. soft, weak, with pain upon bearing weight. |
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
rickets |
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Definition
Bowed legs and other bone deformatiy
Bones ends enlarged and abnormally long
Cause: Vitamin D deficiency or insufficient dietary calcium
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
Giantism |
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Definition
Due to hypersecretion of growth hormone before puberity
if it occurs in adullthood it is called "acromegaly" |
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
Dwarfism |
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Definition
caused by the pituitary
hyposecretion of growth hormone before puberty |
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
achondroplasia |
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Definition
"Little people"
due to abnormal epiphyseal activity; it grows very slowly
adults will have short stocky limbs but truncks of normal size and sexual and mental development is normal
condition arises from an abnormal gene in chromoosome 4 that effects fibroblast growth factor |
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Term
Disorders of the skeleton-
Marfan's syndrome |
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Definition
linked to defective tissue structure development, resulting in extremly lonf and slender limbs.
due to excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal plate
condition arise from an abnormal gene in chromosome 15, that codes for the protein fibrillin |
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Term
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Definition
bone resorption outpaces depossssit .
spongy bone of spine and neck of femur most susceptable
vetebral and hip fractures
30% 60-70 years of age; 70% after 80
men to a lesser degree
petite body formation
insuffient exercise to stress bones
smoking, hormone related |
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