Term
1. Support
2. Protection
3. Facilitate Movement
4. Storage
5. Hematopoiesis |
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Definition
Name the 5 functions of Bones |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
The _____ acts as a pool for the body's calcium supply. |
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Term
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Definition
These bones are longer than wide. |
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Term
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Definition
These bones consist of a shaft and two extremities |
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Term
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Definition
_____ are composed of three ossification centers (one shaft and two ends) |
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Term
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Definition
_____ are composed primarily of compact bone with considerable spongy bone |
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Term
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Definition
All bones of the limbs are _________; except the patella, carpals, and tarsals |
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Term
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Definition
______ are roughly cubelike and mostly spongy bone with a think layer of compact bone on the outside. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
____ are short bones embedded within a tendon or joint capsule. |
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Term
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Definition
_____ are thin, flattened, and usually curved. |
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Term
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Definition
_____ consist of two roughly parallel compact bone surfaces with a layer of spongy bone in between. |
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Term
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Definition
_____ are derived from intramembranous ossification (bone formation through a fibrous collagenous membrane.) |
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Term
Sternum and most skull bones |
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Definition
Name some examples of flat bones. |
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Term
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Definition
______ are bones that fit none of the preceding categories including some of the skull bones, the vertebrae, and the hip bones. |
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Term
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Definition
This describes the tubular shaft of a bone with a thick collar that surrounds a medullary cavity. |
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Term
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Definition
In adults, the medullary cavity contains ____ |
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Term
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Definition
The fat in the medullary cavity is called _______. |
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Term
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Definition
In youth, the medullary cavity is the ______. |
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Term
1. Diaphysis
2. Epiphyses
3. Epiphyseal Line
4. Periosteum
5. Endosteum
6. Articular Cartilage |
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Definition
Name the 6 structural indicators of a typical long bone |
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Term
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Definition
_______ is the bone ends/extremities and is expanded from the diaphysis. |
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Term
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Definition
________ is composed of a thin layer of compact bone with an internal core of spongy bone. |
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Term
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Definition
The _____ is a remnant of the epiphyseal plate. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ lies on the outer surface of the diaphysis and is rich in blood and lymph vessels and nerve fibers. |
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Term
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Definition
In the periosteum, blood vessels penetrate the periosteum and enter the shaft via a ________. |
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Term
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Definition
The _____ is a glistening white, double layered membrane |
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Term
Osteogenic Layer & Fibrous Layer |
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Definition
Name the 2 layers of the periosteum |
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Term
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Definition
______ secrete the bone matrix |
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Term
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Definition
______ are multinucleate and are the cells that reabsorb the bone matrix |
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Term
Dense irregular connective tissue |
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Definition
The fibrous layer of the periosteum is composed of ________. |
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Term
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Definition
The periosteum is secured to underlying bone by tufts of collagen fibers called ______. |
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Term
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Definition
This is the cellular layer between the medullary cavity and the compact bone of the diaphysis. |
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Term
Osteoblasts & Osteoclasts |
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Definition
The endosteum contains _____ & ______. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? The endosteum is composed of 2 layers |
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Term
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Definition
The _____ is composed of a layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyseal surfaces. This also absorbs mechanical stress during bone movement. |
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Term
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Definition
Flat bone consists of two thin layers of _______. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Flat bone contains no diaphysis, epiphyses, or medullary cavity. |
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Term
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Definition
In a flat bone, a layer of spongy bone called the ______ is sandwiched between the two compact bone layers. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Bone surfaces of a flat bone are covered by a periosteum and endosteum. |
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Term
1. Osteoprogenitor Cells
2. Osteoblasts
3. Osteocytes
4. Osteoclasts |
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Definition
Name the 4 types of bone tissue cells. |
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Term
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Definition
What is the functional unit of compact bone? |
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Term
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Definition
The _____, which is in the center of the osteon, contains vessels and nerves. |
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Term
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Definition
These are lateral canals are perpedicular to the haverian canal |
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Term
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Definition
Spongy bone is composed of _______, instead of osteons |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Spongy bone is rather regular in appearance. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Red bone marrow will be converted to yellow marrow at puberty. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Yellow bone marrow can be converted to red marrow during extreme physiological stress |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Skeletal cartilages contain no blood vessels or nerves. |
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Term
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Definition
New chrondroblasts arise from the perichondrium and deposit new cartilage on the "outside" of the cartilage. |
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Term
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Definition
The chondrocytes inside the lacunae divide and secrete new matrix from "within" the cartilage |
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Term
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Definition
This type of skeletal cartilage has the following characteristics:
* Most Abundant; provides support with flexability.
*Chondrocytes normally arranged into isogenous groups.
* Exhibit type 2 collagen fibers and basophilic matrix, and chondronectin. |
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Term
|
Definition
This skeletal cartilage has the following characteristics:
*Withstands repeated bending better than hyaline cartilage
* Exhibits elastic fibers in addition to type 2 collagen
* Perichondrium present
*Found in the external ear and the epiglottis |
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Term
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Definition
This type of skeletal cartilage exhibits the following characteristics:
* Highly compressible with great tensile strength
*Contains type 1 collagen fibers in an acidophilic matrix
* Perichondrium absent.
*Found at the intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, and menisci of the knee joint. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ means formation of bone |
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Term
Intramembranous ossification |
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Definition
This type of bone development is derived from a membrane (made by mesenchymal cells). This will form the flat and irregular bones |
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Term
Cartilaginous ossification |
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Definition
This type of bone development is derived from hyaline cartilage that will eventually form long and short bones |
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Term
1. Kidneys
2. Intestine
3. Bone |
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Definition
Name the 3 most important organs for controlling calcium ions |
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Term
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Definition
What is the primary regulator for calcium ions? |
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Term
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Definition
What is the minimal recommended daily intake of calcium? |
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Term
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Definition
Intestinal absorption of calcium is mostly _____(active or passive?). |
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Term
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Definition
About ___% of the body's calcium is located in the skeleton. |
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Term
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Definition
Absorption of calcium from the GI tract occurs in the _______ &________. |
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Term
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Definition
The total plasma calcium level is normally about _____ mg/dL. |
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Term
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Definition
A decrease in free plasma calcium is called _______. |
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Term
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Definition
This means a sensation of tingling/pricking. |
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Term
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Definition
This means muscle spasms-- especially in extremities and the larynx. |
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Term
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Definition
An increase in free plasm calcium is called _______. |
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Term
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Definition
What produces the parathyroid hormone (PTH)? |
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Term
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Definition
The reactions in the skin and liver are, for the most part, __________. |
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Term
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Definition
Vitamin D3 is a __________ (a steroid that has its ring structure opened). |
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Term
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Definition
__________ is a 32- amino acid hormone synthesized by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. |
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Term
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Definition
The receptors for calcitonin are located on the ______ and are members of the ______. |
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Term
False; it inhibits osteoCLAST activity |
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Definition
T or F? Calcitonin inhibits osteoblast activity. |
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Term
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Definition
Does the removal of the thyroid or thyroid medullary carcinomas alter plasma calcium levels? |
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Term
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Definition
_______ is the primary hormone that brings about longitudinal bone growth. |
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Term
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Definition
_________ is the hormone responsible for milk production. |
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Term
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Definition
Prolactin increases the activity of _______. |
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Term
False; decrease in skeletal mass |
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Definition
T or F? an increase in 1- hydroxylase activity leads to an increase in skeletal mass. |
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Term
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Definition
________ initially stimulate longitudinal bone growth. |
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Term
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Definition
What is the main factor involved with sex steroids? |
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Term
PTHrP (parathyroid hormone- related peptide) |
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Definition
This is thought to play a role in cartilage development. |
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Term
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Definition
_________ is a childhood disease that results from inadequate or dysfunction of vitamin D. |
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Term
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Definition
What is the adult form of rickets called? |
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Term
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Definition
Some signs and symptoms of this disorder include: bending or distortion of the bones. |
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Term
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Definition
This results from too much vitamin D. |
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Term
Involutional Osteoporosis |
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Definition
This means post- menopausal osteoporosis and it is associated with increasing age and menopause. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ means individual muscle cells |
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Term
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Definition
This type of muscle tissue typically has the longest fibers and composes 40% of the total body mass. |
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Term
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Definition
Who proposed the sliding filament hypothesis? What year? |
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Term
1. Excitability
2. Contractility
3. Extensibility
4. Elasticity |
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Definition
Name the 4 functional characteristics of all muscle tissues. |
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Term
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Definition
Is smooth muscle involuntary or voluntary? |
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Term
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Definition
Is smooth muscle striated or non-striated? |
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Term
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Definition
Are smooth muscle tissues multicellular or unicellular? |
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Term
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Definition
________ muscle tissue composes 5% of the total body mass. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs |
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Term
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Definition
Is cardiac muscle tissue striated or non striated? |
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Term
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Definition
Cardiac muscle fibers are joined by ________. |
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Term
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Definition
________ muscle tissue is unicellular. |
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Term
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Definition
Cardiac muscle tissue composes _____% of the total body mass. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ forms the muscular wall of the heart. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ muscle tissue contains multinucleated cells and striated fibers. |
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Term
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Definition
______ muscle tissue composes 40% of the total body mass. |
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Term
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Definition
_________ muscle tissue typically has the longest fibers. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ are bundles of myofilaments. |
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Term
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Definition
______ = cell; cylindrical with many nuclei. |
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Term
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Definition
The ______ is the connective tissue that binds muscle groups and other structures. |
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Term
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Definition
The gross skeletal muscle is surrounded by a sheath composed of dense fibrous connective tissue called the _________. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Mature skeletal muscle fibers do not divide. |
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Term
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Definition
Each fiber of skeletal muscles is surrounded by a thin areolar connective tissue wrapping called the _________. |
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Term
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Definition
_____ is the primary protein that makes up the filament; it exhibits high- affinity binding sites for myosin. |
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Term
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Definition
__________ is a fibrous protein and binds to the actin chain. |
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Term
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Definition
Myofilaments are composed of ________. |
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Term
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Definition
Each myosin filament is composed of ___ light chains and ____ heavy chains. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? the myosin heads hydrolyze ATP to produce the energy for muscle contraction. |
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Term
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Definition
T or F? Myofilaments change length during contraction. |
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Term
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Definition
The signal that causes the muscle machinery to contract is _______. |
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Term
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Definition
________ occurs in dead muscle because of the lack of ATP. |
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Term
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Definition
Skeletal muscle contraction is controlled by the _________. |
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Term
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Definition
The point where the motor neuron communicates with a skeletal muscle fiber is the ______. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
The most important factors for regulating the muscle contraction are _______ and ______. |
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Term
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Definition
A _________ is a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. |
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Term
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Definition
A _______ refers to the contractile response of a muscle due to a single threshold stimulus. |
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Term
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Definition
A graphical recording of a muscle's contractile activity is called a ________. |
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Term
Incomplete (unfused) tetanus |
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Definition
__________ occurs when the muscle is allowed to partially relax between successive contractions, giving rise to a "sustained by quivering contraction" |
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Term
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Definition
_________ occurs when there is a sustained contraction without relaxation. |
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Term
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Definition
________ is the "staircase effect". |
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Term
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Definition
_______ is defined as the state of physiological inability to contract. |
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Term
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Definition
Is the speed of contraction of slow oxidative fibers fast or slow? |
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Term
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Definition
Is the speed of contraction in fast glycolytic fibers fast or slow? |
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Term
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Definition
Is myosin ATPase activity slow or fast in slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
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Definition
________ is the first stage of glucose metabolism. |
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Term
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Definition
Is myosin ATPase activity in fast glycolytic fibers fast or slow? |
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Term
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Definition
What is the primary way of ATP synthesis in slow oxidative fibers? (anerobic or aerobic?) |
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Term
|
Definition
What is the primary way of ATP synthesis in fast glycolytic fibers? (Aerobic or anerobic?) |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the myoglobin content of slow oxidative fibers high or low? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the myoglobin content high or low in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the glycogen stores of slow oxidative fibers low or high? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the glycogen stores high or low in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the rate of fatigue fast or slow in slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the rate of fatigue fast or slow in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
What color are slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
What color are fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
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Definition
Is the fiber diameter of slow oxidative fibers small or large? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is the fiber diameter large or small in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are there many or few mitochondria in slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are there many or few mitochondria in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are there many or few capillaries in slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are there many or few capillaries in fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
Endurance & posture maintenance |
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Definition
What activities are best suited for slow oxidative fibers? |
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Term
Short-term intense/ powerful movements |
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Definition
What activities are best suited for fast glycolytic fibers? |
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Term
long, multinucleate, cylindrical fibers; striated |
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Definition
What is the cell shape and appearance of skeletal muscles? |
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Term
Single fusiform cells; uninucleate; no striations. |
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Definition
What is the cell shape and appearance of smooth muscle? |
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Term
epimysium, perimysium and endomysium |
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Definition
What kind of coverings do skeletal muscles have? |
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Term
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Definition
What is the covering of smooth muscle? |
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Term
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Definition
Are myofibrils and sacromeres present in skeletal muscle? |
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Term
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Definition
Are myofibrils and sacromeres present in smooth muscle? |
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Term
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Definition
Are T-tubules present in skeletal muscle? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are T- tubules present in smooth muscles? |
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Term
Yes; elaborate with later cisternae |
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Definition
Is sarcoplasmic reticulum present in skeletal muscles? |
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Term
|
Definition
Is sarcoplasmic reticulum present in smooth muscle? |
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Term
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Definition
Are gap- junctions present in skeletal muscles? |
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Term
yes, in single unit. No in multiunit |
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Definition
Are gap junctions present in smooth muscle? |
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Term
|
Definition
Are neuromuscular junctions present in skeletal muscle? |
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Term
Yes, in multiunit. No in single- unit |
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Definition
Does smooth muscle have neuromuscular junctions? |
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Term
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Definition
What is the regulation of contraction of skeletal muscles? (voluntary or involuntary?) |
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Term
|
Definition
What is the regulation of contraction of smooth muscle? (voluntary or involuntary?) |
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Term
|
Definition
What is the calcium source for contraction in skeletal muscles? |
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Term
SR and extracellular fluid |
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Definition
What is the calcium source for contraction in smooth muscle? |
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Term
|
Definition
What is the site for calcium regulation in skeletal muscle? |
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Term
|
Definition
What is the site for calcium regulation in smooth muscle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
what is the speed of contraction of skeletal muscle? |
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|
Term
|
Definition
What is the speed of contraction of smooth muscle? |
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Term
|
Definition
What type of metabolism does skeletal muscle have? |
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Term
|
Definition
What type of metabolism does smooth muscle have? |
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Term
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Definition
________ are commonly known as "joints" |
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Term
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Definition
___________ represent the point at which two (or more) bones meet |
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Term
Secure bones together & allow the rigid skeleton to be mobile |
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Definition
What are the two fundamental functions of articulations? |
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Term
1. Fibrous
2. Cartilaginous
3. Synovial |
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Definition
Name the three types of articulations |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fibrous joints are generally ________. |
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Term
|
Definition
Cartilaginous joints are generally _______. |
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Term
|
Definition
Synovial joints are generally ____. |
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Term
1. Sutures
2. Syndesmoses
3. Gomphoses |
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Definition
Name the three types of fibrous joints. |
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Term
|
Definition
Fibrous joints in which the bones are connected by a cord or sheet of fibrous connective tissue. |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
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Definition
T or F? Movement in syndesmoses is generally prevented; however, these joints are allowed to "give" a little. |
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Term
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Definition
These are joints that attach the teeth to the bony alveoli of the jaw bones. |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This type of joint lacks a joint cavity and the articulations are united by cartilage. |
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|
Term
Synchondroses & symphyses |
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Definition
Name 2 characteristics of cartilaginous joints. |
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Term
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Definition
_____ includes the majority of the joints found in the body. |
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Term
|
Definition
All synovial joints are _______. |
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|
Term
Bursae and tendon sheaths |
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Definition
__________ act as "ball bearings." |
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Term
|
Definition
_________ are flattened fibrous sacs with an internal synovial membrane. |
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Term
|
Definition
______ are found where ligaments, muscles, skin, or tendons overlie and rub against bone. |
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Term
|
Definition
_______ = essentially elongated bursae that become completely wrapped around a tendon |
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|
Term
1. Articular Surfaces
2. Ligaments
3. Muscle Tone |
|
Definition
Name 3 factors that influence the stability of synovial joints. |
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Term
|
Definition
T or F? If articular cartilages are large and fit together snuggly, stability is improved. |
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Term
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Definition
__________ help direct movement by preventing undesirable motion. |
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Term
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Definition
_______ is defined as the low levels of contractile activity that keeps a muscle healthy/ready to react to a stimulus. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
________ is only applicable to muscles whose tendons cross a joint. |
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|
Term
1. Plane Joints
2. Hinge Joints
3. Pivot Joints
4. Condyloid Joints
5. Saddle joints
6. Ball and socket joints |
|
Definition
Name 6 examples of synovial joints. |
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Term
|
Definition
_____ occur when reinforcing ligaments become stretched or torn. These don't heal rapidly due to poor vascularization |
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|
Term
|
Definition
______ occur when bones are forced out of their normal alignment |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_________ is a partial disclosure |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_______ is inflammation of a bursa; usually caused by friction or by an injury |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_________ is inflammation of a tendon sheath; usually caused by overuse |
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|
Term
|
Definition
________ is inflammation of the joints |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_______ is "wear and tear" arthritis associated with advancing age. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_______ is an autoimmune disease; flares up then subsides; treatment usually involves anti-inflammatory drugs and immunosuppressants. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
_______ is a metabolic dislease that results in a build up of uric acid; crystals of uric acid are deposited in the joint cavities and cause swelling and pain; can be treated with allopurinol; also can be reduced by dietary restrictions. |
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|