Term
What is the major bee venom allergen? |
|
Definition
Short peptides to phospholipase A2
|
|
|
Term
What are the two major types of Treg cells and which is important in allergy/allergy immunotherapy? |
|
Definition
1 - Thymus derived (tTregs or natural Tregs): characterized as CD4+CD25+T cells that constitutively express thetranscription factor Foxp3. These are important in autoimmunity and are unlikely to be involved in allergy as presentation to the thymus must occur for production (allergens are not presented to the thymus).
2 - Peripherally derived (pTregs or inducible Tregs): pTregs can differentiate from preexisting T-effector lymphocytes or circulating naïve T cells and may or may not express Foxp3 and CD25. This subset is thought to be important in the allergic syndrome and especially the response to allergy immunotherapy. |
|
|
Term
Passive cutaneous anaphylaxis test (describe it) |
|
Definition
-PCA is an immediate dermal response to an allergen-IgE interaction
-It is based on a passively transferred anaphylactic reaction from antiserum
-Subjects are sensitized with antiserum and following a latent period subjects are injected with Evans blue dye bound to antigen |
|
|
Term
Describe how a skin barrier defect activates a Th2 response and contributes to AD pathogenesis? |
|
Definition
-Xerosis (dry skin) occurs which leads to allergens penetrating skin which produces subclinical inflammation and activates skin alarmins (IL-25, IL-33 and TSLP)
-Alarmins activate ILC2 cells to secrete Type 2 cytokines (IL-5 and IL-13) which promotes eosinophil inflammation but also activates TH2 cells that are migrating into the tissue and they will further release Type 2 cytokines (IL-4 and IL-13)
-Alarmins also activate intra-epidermal dendritic cells (Langerhan cells) and dermal dendritic cells)
-Alarmins will also activate Basophils which produce IL-4 which further activate ILC2 to promote the release of more type 2 cytokines (IL-5 and IL-13) to stimulate eosinophils and mast cells
-Staph superantigens (enterotoxins) can also directly stimulate Basophils to make IL-4 (many cells are contributing)
|
|
|
Term
Acute lesional stage of Atopic dermatitis: describe this phase |
|
Definition
-Starting to develop overt inflammation, proteins and lipids in the skin barrier are decreasing, amplified TH2 driven inflammation, increased itch signaling, and increased S.aureus colonization
-Cytokine release of IL-4, IL-31, and IL-13 which can bind to cutaneous nerves to promote itch
-Erythema, papules, papulovesicles, and pruritus occur
-Continued pruritus and scratching promotes chronic stage
|
|
|
Term
Chronic lesional stage of Atopic dermatitis |
|
Definition
-Varied inputs from Th1, Type 22, and Type 17 depending on the phenotype and endotype of the individual (ie. European American AD have big Th2 and Th22, Asian American AD have th2, TH22, and Th17 input, but African Americans have less Th17, etc----> this likely occurs in dogs as well but we need large numbers of individual breeds to understand phenotypes and endotypes in dogs better)
-Lichenification and excoriation occur
-Dermal thickening and fibrosis result
-Perpetuated skin inflammation
|
|
|
Term
Immunotherapy Mechanism of Action |
|
Definition
-Very Early phase (within first few days to weeks): Mast cells and basophils get desensitized to degranulation
-Days to months (T cell tolerance): T regulatory cells and Altered ratio of Th2:Th1 and cytokines
-Months to years: Increase in blocking antibodies (allergen-specific IgG4 and IgG1) and decrease in allergen-specific IgE
Longterm effects: Decreased numbers of inflammatory cells (eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells)
|
|
|
Term
Sublingual mucosa and sublingual immunotherapy MOA |
|
Definition
-sublingual mucosa is very similar to skin which is why immunotherapy can be successful
-Antigen travels through sublingual duct and is absorbed across and activates macrophages/dendritic cells and then those cells will travel via the afferent lymphatic vessel to the submandibular L.N. and take those Naive CD4+ T cells and convert them to FoxP3+ Treg cells
-Result is local and systemic tolerance |
|
|
Term
What is the main difference between irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact dermatitis? |
|
Definition
ACD is an antigen specific reaction to an allergenic irritating agent while ICD is not antigen specific.
*important note: most sensitizers are also irritants. |
|
|
Term
Which inflammatory cytokines play a critical role in irritant contact dermatitis? |
|
Definition
IL-1 alpha (released directly from damaged KCs), IL-1 beta (cleaved after initial IL-1 a release) and TNF-alpha |
|
|
Term
Which endothelial adhesion molecules get upregulated in response to several inflammatory cytokines? |
|
Definition
Selectins (initial weak bonding) and ICAM-1/VCAM-1 (secondary strong bonding) |
|
|
Term
What types of endogenous 'danger' signals (molecules) are released when an irritant damages the skin, that will further directly damage keratinocytes? |
|
Definition
Reactive oxygen species, hyaluronic acid fragments, ATP for example |
|
|
Term
What are the immunologic phases of allergic contact dermatitis? |
|
Definition
Sensitization, elicitation, and resolution.
Sensitization will often present clinically with irritation, as the sensitization agent is often also an irritant. So, can start irritated, and then become a full-blown allergic reaction. |
|
|
Term
What type of allergic reaction is allergic contact dermatitis? |
|
Definition
A type IV hypersensitivity that is antigen-specific, delayed, and involves cytotoxic CD8+ T cells |
|
|
Term
During irritant contact dermatitis, fibroblasts can be activated to continue the inflammation. What types of things do they secrete? |
|
Definition
Collagenases and prostaglandin E2, which will worsen cell injury and local inflammation. |
|
|
Term
What surface molecule do primed T cell express that helps them home back to the skin? |
|
Definition
CLA, cutaneous lymphocyte antigen. |
|
|
Term
What percentage of chicken allergic dogs fed Z/D flared when eating that diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What size are the peptides in partially hydrolyzed and extensively hydrolyzed diets, respectively? |
|
Definition
<5kDa for partially hydrolyzed, <3kDa for extensively hydrolyzed. |
|
|
Term
What minimum size does an antigen need to be to cross-link IgE? |
|
Definition
Likely has to be bigger than 10kDa |
|
|
Term
What is the P-K test (the initial passive cutaneous anaphylaxis test)? |
|
Definition
When serum from an allergic patient is injected into a non-allergic patient, who is then injected with the antigen of question in the same area of the skin to evaluate the wheal/reaction. |
|
|
Term
Atopic Dermatitis is an inherited predisposition to form what in response to environmental allergens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Atopic dermatitis is an imbalance between Th1/Th2 helper subtypes. What are the Th2 vs Th1 cytokines formed? |
|
Definition
- Atopic-Th2- cytokines IL4, 5, 6, 10, 13, 31
- Non-Atopic- Th1- cytokines IL2 and interferon
|
|
|
Term
What breeds of horses are known to have a genetic predisposition to atopic dermatitis? |
|
Definition
-Arabians and Thoroughbreds
-Absorb allergen through skin
-Defective barrier function?
-mRNA IL13 elevated in lesional and nonlesional skin in affected horses
-Increased numbers and imbalance of T cells (CD4/CD8 and FoxP3+ T reg cells) |
|
|
Term
Dog Breed patterns of atopic dermatitis- how is the Westie different than other breeds? |
|
Definition
** Note that Westie may have caudal dorsum pruritus and may be confused with FAD[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the cutaneous nerves involved in atopic dermatitis pruritus? |
|
Definition
- Histamine
- PAR2
- TRPM8- menthol
- TRPV1- capsaicin
- Cannabinoid receptors
- Opioid receptors
- Substance P-NK1 and GABA
- IL31
|
|
|
Term
What cells and cytokine is associated with successful ASIT in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tests are done to rule out Sarcoptes? |
|
Definition
-Can be hard to find
-Trial therapy
-IgG Elisa
-Sarcoptes PCR-uses skin scrapings
-Good specificity and sensitivity
-Can be used to monitor therapy |
|
|
Term
What is the major cell surface receptor, expressed by mast cells, that is associated with mediation of allergic responses. |
|
Definition
- FCER1: high affinity IgE receptor
|
|
|
Term
List the steps or phases in the pathogenesis of allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) |
|
Definition
- Type IV hypersensitivity, T-cell mediated and delayed reaction
- 1) Sensitization phase: allergens captured by Langerhan cells (dendritic epidermal cells) and migrate to LN's and process the antigen to naive, antigen-specific T cells (6-10 days or prolonged for years).
- 2) Naive T cells recognize antigen and expand clonally to differentiate into memory/effector T cells. During the differentiation phase, sensitized T cells express cutaneous homing antigens (cutaneous lymphocyte antigens) and enable them to migrate from cutaneous capillaries to the epidermis
- 3) Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to sensitized T cells to expand and trigger an inflammatory reaction in that location (elicitation) and result in symptoms and signs of contact dermatitis
|
|
|
Term
What are some of the genetic factors reported to predispose to canine atopic dermatitis? |
|
Definition
- Filaggrin gene defects result in epidermal barrier defects
- Filaggrin gene located on 1q21.3 chromosome and leads to truncation of profilaggrin and loss of filaggrin expression will lead to increased skin permeability, allow allergens, irritants, and microbes to pass the barrier, and initiate the inflammatory cascade
- PTPN22 encodes for lymphoid tyrosine phosphatase involved in the prevention of spontaneous activation of T and B cells
|
|
|
Term
Describe the immunological steps involved in atopic dermatitis for adaptive immune response to occur (initial contact with environmental allergen and so on) |
|
Definition
- Th2 and group 2 innate lymphoid cell (ILC2) activation drives type 2 inflammation and express master transcription factor (GATA3)
- Type 2 inflammation is associated with AD in dogs and produce type 2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13) which mediate and elicit pruritus and inflammation, increase IgG1 and IgE production, decrease skin barrier integrity and drive AD pathogenesis
- Transcripts for Type 2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-13, IL-31, and IL-33) are upregulated in the skin and peripheral blood of allergic dogs
- Type 2 effector cells (eosinophils, mast cells, and CD4+ T cells) infiltrate the inflamed epidermis and dermis of atopic dogs
|
|
|
Term
State the percentage of dogs with food hypersensitivity to chicken that reacted to partially hydrolysed chicken-based commercial dog food (Hill's Z/d ultra), but not to the completely hydrolysed poultry-feather commercial dog food (Royal Canin Anallergenic), in a recent study. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name diseases in which paroxysmal (not persistent) cutaneous flushing can be seen in dogs? |
|
Definition
- Pheochromocytoma
- Drug reaction
- Mast cell tumor
- CAEDE
|
|
|
Term
Name the major cell surface receptor, expressed by mast cells, that is associated with mediation of allergic responses |
|
Definition
- FCER1: high affinity IgE receptor
|
|
|
Term
State the minimum molecular size required for dietary antigens to elicit IgE-mediated reactions. |
|
Definition
- Known food allergies 10-70kDa in animals
- Hydrolyzed proteins in elimination diets must have MW less than 5kDa to prevent allergic reactions (eg. Ultamino is likely <3kDa)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the immunological steps that take place in canine atopic dermatitis for adaptive immune response to occur (from initial contact with environmental allergen) |
|
Definition
- TH2 and group 2 innate lymphoid cell (ILC2) activation drives type 2 inflammation and express master transcription factor GATA3
- Type 2 inflammation is associated with AD in dogs and produce type 2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13) which mediate and elicit pruritus and inflammation
- IgG1 and IgE production and decreased skin barrier integrity drive AD pathogenesis
- Transcripts for type 2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-13, IL-31, and IL-33) are upregulated in the skin and peripheral blood in allergic dogs
- Type 2 effector cells (eosinophils, mast cells, and CD4+ T cells) infiltrate the inflamed epidermis and dermis of atopic dog
|
|
|
Term
Allergen-specific immunotherapy is associated with an increase of what type of cells? |
|
Definition
- Increase in circulating CD4+FOXP3+Treg cells
- pre-immunotherapy Treg numbers did not differ from those of healthy control dogs
- Presence of normal or even slightly supranormal FOXP3 expression suggests that clinical disease in canine AD may be associated with a functionally decreased regulatory capability of cells expressing transcript or protein
|
|
|
Term
How does Atopic canine skin exhibit TSLP compared to healthy skin? |
|
Definition
- AD canine skin exhibits increased transcription of thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP) compared with healthy skin
- Dendritic cell activation in the presence of TSLP appears to foster a Th2 promoting phenotype
- production of TSLP by primary canine keratinocytes is induced by stimulation with ligands for Toll-like receptors 3 and 4 (TLR3 and 4), but not TLR2 and TLR7
|
|
|
Term
IL-4 is produced by what cells? |
|
Definition
- IL-4 is commonly considered the archetypical Th2 cytokine
- Produced by some T-cells, mast cells, and possibly basophils
- Gene and protein expression of IL-4 has been variably found in dogs with AD
- IL-4 mRNA transcripts were found in the skin of both healthy and atopic dogs
- Another study found overexpression of IL-4 in atopic relative to healthy skin
|
|
|
Term
What kind of immunoglobulin response to antigens from Dermatophagoides farinae in dogs do healthy and atopic dogs produce? |
|
Definition
- Both healthy and atopic dogs mount an IgG response to proteins derived from the mite
|
|
|
Term
Name 3 Non AD reactions that represent massively eosinophilic hypersensitivity reactions on histopathology? |
|
Definition
- Think Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions
- Insect bites
- Adverse drug reactions
- Ectoparasitism
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- CAEDE: Canine acute eosinophilic dermatitis with edema
- Vomiting and hematochezia
- Before, after or concurrent with skin lesions
- IBD, pancreatitis, ADR
- Resolves GI over 5 days; Skin- 20 days
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Unknown but associated with recent GI disease/treatment
- Many patients have had recent drug therapy with metronidazole, antiemetics, antidiarrheals, antibiotics or heartworm preventatives, vaccines, etc
- May or may not result in mild pyrexia, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, pruritus
|
|
|
Term
Clinical sign differences between Well's like syndrome vs Sweet's Like syndrome |
|
Definition
- Wells-like (CAEDE)
- Macular erythema +/- plaques
- Diffuse to ventral
- Systemic signs: GI disease
- Suspected drug triggers: Metronidazole, other GI drugs
- Recurrence uncommon
- Strongly eosinophilic
- May be pruritic
- Sweet's like
- Plaques/nodules more prominent
- May be regional/limbs
- Systemic signs: lameness, fever, IMPA
- suspected drug triggers: NSAIDs, vaccination
- Possible recurrence
- <12% eosinophils intradermal
|
|
|
Term
Loss of function mutations of which gene represents the strongest known genetic risk factor for atopic dermatitis in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Reprogrammed Th2?
- induced by IL4 and TGFβ
- repressed by IFNγ
- produce IL-9 and IL10
- perpetuate chronic inflammation in allergy
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- epidermal immunity
- infiltrate epidermis in inflammatory skin disease
- produce IL-22, TNF-α (w/o IL-17, FGFs)
- inflammatory skin diseases
- epidermal hyperplasia and wound repair
- amplify TNFα
- induce IL-3, IL-6, TNF-α in KC
|
|
|
Term
Malassezia in AD induce what cytokines? |
|
Definition
- IL-1β
- IL-6
- IL-8
- TNF-α in normal human keratinocytes
|
|
|