Term
New drugs receive a __ yr patent on active ingredient |
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Definition
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|
Term
___: compares the blood level of a drug necessary to acheive a therapeutic effect to the blood level at which toxicity occurs
A narrow one means? |
|
Definition
therapeutic index
narrow = not much difference between beneficial and toxic blood levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ligand gated ion channels
g protein coupled receptors
enzyme linked receptors
intracellular receptors |
|
|
Term
____: drug or hormone stimulates production of more receptors
___: excessive amounts of some drugs or hormones may reduce receptor production. More likely with continuous administration. |
|
Definition
up regulation
down regulation |
|
|
Term
Ways in which drugs can cause toxicity (5) |
|
Definition
excessive activation or receptors
excessive suppression of receptors
drug interactions iwth other receptors
drug triggers immune (allergic) response
drug changes receptor concentration |
|
|
Term
the study of the influence of GENETIC factors on the variation of DRUG METABOLISM in an individual or individuals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two phases of drug elimination |
|
Definition
Phase I: oxidation -- usually renders a drug inactive
- involves CYP450 enzymes
Phase II: conjugation -- increases solubility for fecal and renal excretion by attaching drug to a water molecule |
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|
Term
CYP2D6 --> what is the 2, D, and the 6? |
|
Definition
2: enzyme family
6: isoform
D: subfamily |
|
|
Term
Impact of ___:
genetic diversity Drug interactions & Adverse drug reactions |
|
Definition
CYP450's
vary greatly between different races |
|
|
Term
Pt who complains ____, means ???
1. "that stuff never works for me" 2. "I react strongly to all meds" 3. "Every med I've tried makes me miserable" |
|
Definition
1. Fast/hyperactive drug metabolism
2. slow drug metabolism -- reduced or absent enzymes
3. multiple slow metabolic pathways |
|
|
Term
Drug A is metabolized by enzyme X.
1. What happens if the activity of enzyme X is increased (induced)?
2. If x is decreased (inhibited)? |
|
Definition
1. blood level of drug A plummets bc it's being decgraded too quickly
2. blood level of drug A increases because it's not being degraded |
|
|
Term
CYP inducers/inhibitors: - increase enzyme activity - lower circulating levels of active drug - reduce drug effectiveness
CYP inducers/inhibitors: - diminish enzyme activity - increase circulating levels of active drug - increase risk of side effect or toxicity |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the autonomic two cell paradigm? |
|
Definition
First neuron:
1. parasympathetic: medulla & sacral spinal cord = "craniosacral system" = cranial nerves + sacral nerves (bladder, rectum, reproductive)
2. sympathetic: thoracolumbar spinal cord = "thoracolumbar system"
Second neuron:
1. parasympathetic: terminal ganglia (sa node, sweat glands)
2. Sympathetic: mostly larger vertebral ganglia
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|
|
Term
"Cholinergic" refers to which branch of the ans?
"Adrenergic" refers to which system? |
|
Definition
parasympathetic --> bc ACh is the main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system
sympathetic --> because epineprhine/NE are the main neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
two types of cholinergic receptors and which is pre and post ganglionic
two types of adrenergic receptors |
|
Definition
nicotinic -- preganglionic
muscarinic -- postganglionic
alpha and beta |
|
|
Term
use pupil size to explain the autonomic set point |
|
Definition
tissues are receiving messages from both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems
pupils will shrink if parasympahetic (cholinergic) signals dominate but will dilate if sympathetic signals dominate |
|
|
Term
parasympathetic effects on eyes, heart, vascular, pulmonary, GI, CNS, glands |
|
Definition
ocular: miosis, + near vision
cardiac: slows rate, reduces contractility, decreases CO
vascular: indirect effects
Pulmonary: bronchiolar constriction
GI: increased secretion, relaxed sphincters, increased motility
Bladder: detrusor contraction
sexual response: arousal
CNS: reduced alertness
Glands: + secretion |
|
|
Term
Sympathetic effects on eyes, heart, vascular, pulmonary, GI, CNS, glands, bladder, sexual response |
|
Definition
eyes: mydriasis, + far vision
cardiac: increased rate and contractility
vascular: direct vasoconstriction
Pulmonary: bronchodilator
GI: reduced secretions, contracted sphincters, decreased motility
CNS: increased alertness
Glands: reduced secretions
bladder: relaxation
Uterus: relaxation
Sexual: orgasm |
|
|
Term
Organophosphates (insecticides, nerve gas, ophthalmic) are an example of what kind of drug?
What are the side effects of this and how would you treat ssomeone who ingested it? |
|
Definition
irreversible AChE antagonists
side effects: permenant parasympathetic activation
Tx: block action of ACh |
|
|
Term
What are some indications for cholinergic agonists & anticholinesterases?
What are some adverse effects? |
|
Definition
Indications: ophthalmic (miosis), GI/GU (ileus, bladder atony), myasthenia gravis, mushroom (atropine) poisoning, anesthesia reversal
Adverse effects: miosis, sweating, N/V/D, urinary urgency, bronchospasm, bradycardia, syncope |
|
|
Term
Methacholine, carbechol, bethanechol, pilocarpine are all what kind of drug? |
|
Definition
cholinergic agonists --> all have "chol" |
|
|
Term
Edrophonium, physostigmine, puridostigmine, neostigmine are all what kind of drug?
What about the organophosphates (insecticides, nerve gas, ophthalmic)? |
|
Definition
stigmines: reversible AChE inhibitors
organophosphates: irreversible AChE inhibitors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pralidoxime -- reverses the effects of anticholinesterases by AGING the bond |
|
|
Term
What dx? What tx? how is it tested for?
Weakness of voluntary muscles - diplopia, limb weakness, repetitive movement IMproves with rest
An autoimmune disorder -- antibodies against ACh receptors |
|
Definition
myasthenia gravis
tx: ACh agonist, AChE inhibitors
immunosuppression
tested: edrophonium
thymectomy |
|
|
Term
Adrenergic transmitter synthesis |
|
Definition
tyrosine --> DOPA --> dopamine --> NE --> Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
catecholamine neurotransmitter that is involved in psychotic diseases as well as renal and splanchnic vasculature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for anaphylaxis
side effects of this tx? |
|
Definition
beta sympathetic agonist + glucocorticoids & antihistamines
side effects: tachycardia, arrhythmias, hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
reactive hyperemia caused by afrin |
|
Definition
prolonged vasoconstriction due to chronic afrin use leads to hypoxia which leads to vasodilation
thus tolerance develops |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 general adrenergic agonists (A1, B1, B2)?
what are their indications? |
|
Definition
Epinephrine: anaphylaxis, local anesthetic, acute asthma
NE: hypotension/shock
Dopamine: hypotension/shock |
|
|
Term
Alpha adrenergic agonists and their indications |
|
Definition
phenyleprhine, methoxamine, clonidine, methylNE
vasoconstriction (Afrin and HTN) |
|
|
Term
beta adrenergic agonists and indications and side effects |
|
Definition
isoproterenol,
dobutamine - CHF, cardiogenic shock
terbutaline - asthma, arrest premature labor
side effects: tachycardia, anxiety, tremors, hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
two kinds of antiadrenergic drugs |
|
Definition
alpha blockers - prazosin - HTN, BPH
beta blockers -
- non-selective: propanolol (NOT ASTHMA)
- Selective (B1 >>> B2): metoprolol, atenolol --> Asthma
- Combined (A1, B1, B2): Lebatolol --> HTN, hyperthyroid
beta contraindications: arrhythmias (withdrawal), uncontrolled CHF, bradycardia |
|
|
Term
What are some non-pharmacologic HTN tx? |
|
Definition
weight loss
dietary salt reduction exercise stress reduction
biofeedback
|
|
|
Term
Normal BP Pre-HTN Stage 1 Stage 2 |
|
Definition
Normal: <120/80
PreHTN: 120-140/80-90
Stage 1: >140/90
Stage 2: >160/90 |
|
|
Term
Factors that affect BP control |
|
Definition
Cardiac Output:
- HR
- Contractility
- Filling pressure
Peripheral resistance:
- arterial diameter
- arterial length
- elasticity
BP = CO x PVR <-- Hydraulic Equation |
|
|
Term
___ is the main focus of PVR reduction (and thus BP reduction) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Essence of blood pressure control: __ + ___ |
|
Definition
sympathetic input (Alpha vascular receptors + beta cardiac receptors) + Renal blood flow (RAA system + total blood volume) |
|
|
Term
What is the main side effect of ACE inhibitors and why? |
|
Definition
Cough - due to increase in bradykinin |
|
|
Term
steroid produced by adrenals that alters renal function by increasing Na loop absorption and changing hemodynamics
results in fluid retention, increased vascular volume, cardiac growthy factors, cardiac remodeling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 groups of antihypertensive drugs |
|
Definition
diuretics
sympathoplegic/adrenergic blocking agents
vasodilators
reduce R-A-A system |
|
|
Term
What drug group?
-lol -pril -sin -sartan -pine |
|
Definition
-lol: beta blocker
-pril: ACE inhibitor
-sin: alpha blocker
-sartan: angiotensin receptor blocker
-pine: calcium chennel blocker (other than verapamil, diltiazem) |
|
|
Term
What kind of drug?
reduces sodium and water retention reduces blood volume reduces cardiac output reduces PVR |
|
Definition
thiazide and loop diuretics |
|
|
Term
inidcations, contraindications, and adverse effects of thiazides and thiazide-like diuretics |
|
Definition
indications: HTN
contraindications: kindey failure
adverse effects: HYPOKALEMIA, Hyperglycemia, rash, ED, hyperuricemia, postural HTN
|
|
|
Term
Loop diuretic names, indications, adverse effects |
|
Definition
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid
indications: HTN, pulmonary edema (emergency), kidney hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia
Adverse effects: ototoxicity, HYPOKALEMIA, HYPOMAGNESMIA, hypotension |
|
|
Term
potassium-sparing diuretics: two kinds, adverse effects, indications, contraindications |
|
Definition
luminal membrane agents: triamterene, amiloride
Mineralcorticoid (aldosterone) antagonists: spironolactone, eplerone
Adverse effects:
HYPERKALEMIA
indications:
luminal: combined with thiazides or loops for HTN
mineralcorticoids: cirrhosis, PCOS, HTN adjunct
contraindications:
Luminal: ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs |
|
|
Term
what condition?
muscle weakness myalgia heart arrhythmias deaht |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what condition?
malaise palpitations muscle weakness fatal cardiac arrhtymia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
lithium and demeclocycline are what kind of diuretics?
They are not currently used clinically |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Thiazide + loop
Loop/thiazide + K sparing
pretty much every combo has HCTZ in it
Aldactazide
Dyazide
Maxzide
Moduretic |
|
|
Term
what makes a diuretic clinically useful? |
|
Definition
increases Na excretion (natriuresis) as well as H2O loss |
|
|
Term
How is sodium homeostasis maintained? What is diuretic braking? |
|
Definition
Hypothalamus/posterior pituitary axis: Antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin
Baroreceptors/atrial receptors: atrial natrietic peptide
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
All this results in "diuretic braking" - with continued diuretic use, a new Na+ equilibrium set point is acheived and more diuretic may be needed |
|
|
Term
is loop diuretic ototoxicity reversibl? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 general sympathoplegic drugs - what do they do? |
|
Definition
beta blockers
alpha blockers
central sympathoplegic
HTN meds |
|
|
Term
How do beta blockers work as antihypertensives? |
|
Definition
block beta-1 cardiac receptors which reduce CO
a few also modulate nitric oxide production which vasodilates |
|
|
Term
What arrhythmias could be caused by B blockers? |
|
Definition
dose-dependent bradycardia ---> syncope
AV node conduction slowing
Ventricular arrhythmias upon abrupt cessasion |
|
|
Term
Nonselective b blockers
examples? indications? contraindications? |
|
Definition
propanolol & nadolol
INdiacations: HTN, angina, SVT
Contraindications: COPD, asthma |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of all beta blockers |
|
Definition
FATIGUE BRONCHOSPASM
ARRHYTHMIAS
ED
Metbolic changes |
|
|
Term
Selective beta blockers
examples indications contraindications |
|
Definition
metoprolol and atenolol
indications: HTN, angina (increase exercise tolerance)
contraindications: OK in copd/asthma but needs to be closely monitored |
|
|
Term
Combined b1, b2, and a1 blockers |
|
Definition
labetolol and carvedilol
indications: HTN + need for reduced pvr, heart failure |
|
|
Term
beta blockers/partial agonists |
|
Definition
acebutolol and pindolol
possess partial sympathetic activity (ISA)
indications: HTN pts with DM or slow HR --> lessens metabolic effects |
|
|
Term
How do you take someone off a beta blocker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
metabolic effects of Beta blockers |
|
Definition
reduced HDL
hypoglycemia
Linked to increased risk of Type II DM in elderly |
|
|
Term
Beta blockers have recently lost favor in use for HTN. In what two conditions must they still be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antihypertensive that lowers both arterial and venous resistance but has minimal effect on CO or renal fxn
relaxes bladder sphincter
Adverse effects: first dose phenomenon (reflex tachy, postural syncope. due to immediate vasodilation) more likely in volume/salt depleted --> DIURETICS
ex? |
|
Definition
alpha blockers
-azosin's: doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin |
|
|
Term
how do you prevent the first dose phenomenon seen in alpha blockers? |
|
Definition
1st dose under supervision
cocomitant beta blocker
1st dose at bedtime |
|
|
Term
what drug?
central acting sympathoplegic drug with some alpha 2 activity
indications: htn, renal disease, and vasomotor flushes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2nd tier htn agents that have vasodilation effects and come in three classes: selective, somewhat selective, non-selective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what drug/class?
lower arteriole smooth muscle tone
intrinsic natriuretic effect --> rarely need diuretic
indications: HTN. pts on digoxin or warfarin, asthma, DM, angina |
|
Definition
Selective Ca channel bockers (Nifedipine) |
|
|
Term
___ is a vasodilator that is an adjunct to diuretics and beta blockers in severe htn that also causes hair growth (Rogaine)
___ is a vasodilator that is an adjunct to beta blockers and is used for chronic HTN in pregnancy but may cuase transient lupus like syndrome (pos ANA test) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what drug?
action on RAA system to decrease blood volume and PVR
Indications: HTN
Contraindications: PREGNANCY
Adverse effects: FETOTOXIC, HYPERKALEMIA, COUGH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are antihypertensives that may have renoprotective effects when combied with arbs |
|
Definition
renin inhibitors - aliskiren |
|
|
Term
(-sartan's)
similar effects to ACE inhibitors but with less cough but higher price |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If pt is stage 1 htn... what would you treat them with? |
|
Definition
single drug: diuretic (HCTZ) or ACE inhibitor (-pril)
secondary choices are ARB (-sartan), beta blocker (-ol), Ca channel blocker (diltiazem), or alpha blocker |
|
|
Term
If pt has stage II - III htn, what would you treat them with? |
|
Definition
2-3 drugs wtih different sites of action = "stepped care"
1. ACE inhibitor (increases K+) + diuretic (decreases K+)
2. ACE inhibitor, diuretic, vasodilator
some have fixed dose combinations and can help the pt be compliant
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|
|
Term
if a pt has htn and ___, treat with ___:
1. DM 2. CAD: MI or CHF 3. Renal disease 4. BPH |
|
Definition
1. DM: ACE inhibitor or Ca channel blocker
2. CAD: ACE inhibitor + Beta blocker
3. Renal disease: ACE inhibitor, Ca channel blocker, renin inhibitor (aliskiren), or clonidine + ARB
4. BPH: alpha blocker |
|
|
Term
What is a htn emergency? What should you treat wtih? |
|
Definition
BP > 210/150
hopsitalized
Sodium Nitroprusside (vasodilator)
+
Beta blocker (labetalol)
+
Dopamine agonist (fenoldopam) |
|
|
Term
What are two drugs that interfere with antihypertensives? |
|
Definition
NSAIDS - block prostaglandin production = vasoconstriction
oral contraceptives - increase angiotensinogen production |
|
|
Term
tx for iron deficiency
what are some side effects of this that cause pts not to be compliant? |
|
Definition
1. ferrous sulfate 325 mg tabs 1-4/day for 3-6 mos
PLUS 500 mg vit C to reduce side effects and increase absorption
2. Last resort --> parentaral. Iron dextran, sodium ferric, or iron sucrose. Needs to be administered by hematologist
ORAL: GI upset - n/v/d, CONSTIPATION
Black stools
IM: anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
chronic - hemachromatosis - organ failure
acute (peds) - necrotizing enteritis. >10 tablets can be fatal
caution pts with kids at home to keep iron locked up |
|
|
Term
what causes B12 deficiency? |
|
Definition
loss of intrinsic factor due to: pernicious anemia, gastric surgery, gastric atrophy (DM) |
|
|
Term
what dz?
loss of intrinsic factor due to auto-antibodies, usually after age 50
consists of megaloblastic anemia + PROGRESSIVE NEURO DETERIORATION
Result of folate deficiency
tx? |
|
Definition
pernicious anemia --
tx: folate. Can correct anemia but NOT neuro damage. B12 (cyanocobalamin) DOES correct neuro damage.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an essential cofactor to amino acids and purines (hence, DNA)
that reduces homocysteine levels but does NOT lower risk of cardio disease
and assists in neural tube development (reduced risk for anencephaly and spina bifida
deficiency of this caused by: deit, decreased absorption (phenytoin, sulfas) or increased requirement (pregnancy, hemolytic anemia
what is something to beware of when this type of anemia is present? |
|
Definition
folic acid (folate)
beware of coexisting B12 deficiency |
|
|
Term
___ is produced in the kidneys in response to falling O2 levels to stimulate RBC production. Thus, pts with renal disease often have anemia.
it is commonly used to treat renal failure, cancer, AIDS, rheumatologic dz, autologous RBC donation, CHF, CAD, and for sports doping
toxicities of this drug? |
|
Definition
erythropoeitin
any drug name with "epo" is this --> rHuEpo, epoetin alfa
toxicity: increased blood viscosity due to increased # of rbc (HTN, thrombus), allergy
in pts with anemia of chronic disease, the risk of death from CVA and MI increases significantly when hgb >12, as with increased EPO |
|
|
Term
to form a clot, you need RBC, platelet, and fibrin
how is fibrin made?
how are platelets activated?
what breaks a thrombus apart? |
|
Definition
fibrinogen + thrombin --> fibrin
thrombin comes from prothrombin
platelets must adhere --> activate --> aggregate
plasmin degrades fibrin into D-dimer and fibrin split products
- plasmin comes from plasminogen |
|
|
Term
What are some natural anticoagulants? |
|
Definition
1. antithrombin III - action accelerated by heparin
2. proteins S and C - genetic defects attack here
|
|
|
Term
what is the most common genetic cause of hypercoagulability? |
|
Definition
abnormal factor V --> leiden mutation
- factor V cannot be inactivated by protein C |
|
|
Term
formation of a thrombus where it doesn't belong
what are the triad of risk factors? |
|
Definition
thrombosis
virchow's triad:
hypercoagulable state
circulatory stasis
endothelial injury |
|
|
Term
what drug?
anticoagulant that acts by blocking prostaglandins
used to prevent CV disease in women >50 and men >40
toxicities? |
|
Definition
aspirin (81-325 mg/day)
toxicity: GI irritation/ulcer/bleeding
|
|
|
Term
what drug?
an anti-ADP agent that interferes wtih platelet metabolism and thus works as an anticoagulant
used as an adjunct during coronary stent placement or as chronic supplemental use for MI and CVA prevention
toxicities? |
|
Definition
clopidogrel (plavix) and ticlopidine (ticlid)
toxicity: N/v/d, hemorrhage, leukopenia --> all pretty much with ticlopidine. plavix is safer |
|
|
Term
class of parenteral anticoagulants that are used for PCI or coronary syndromes
ex: abciximab (reopro), eptifibatide, tirofiban |
|
Definition
IIb/IIIa receptor blockers |
|
|
Term
anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vit K-dependent factors, thus levels of factor II, VII, IX and X fall and result in reduced thrombin levels
what test is done to see how pts on the drug are doing?
toxicities |
|
Definition
warfarin
INR - need it between 2-3.5
this checks prothrombin time
toxicities: hemorrhage, fetotoxic, multiple drug interactions
ALWAYS check for potential drug interactions |
|
|
Term
Anticoagulant that works by inhibiting thrombin by enhancing antithrombin III, which inhibits activation of factor X. Is a natural glycosaminoglycan.
2 preparations
indications: MI or clot, surgery, immobility, AV shunt
in what form should this never be given?
how is it monitored?
toxcity |
|
Definition
heparin
unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (lovenox)
never gien IM due to hematoma due to local anticoag
monitor: PTT and Anti-Xa levels
toxicity: hemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, bone loss (osteopenia) |
|
|
Term
PRegnant woman wtih DVT - what do you treat her with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what dz?
two types: benign and dangerous
Benign (type I): mild platelet count drop in first 5-6 days of ___ therapy. Platelet count starts at 175k and drops to 150K
dangerous (type II): immune related serious drop in platelet count (50% or more). Start off at 175K and drops to 50K. Associated wtih THROMBOSIS |
|
Definition
HIT - heparin induced thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
why does HIT cause thrombosis when heparin and thrombocytopenia usually cause bleeding? |
|
Definition
because platelets are consumed in clot formation |
|
|
Term
why give lovenox over heparin? |
|
Definition
less risk of thrombocytopenia/HIT
less risk of osteopenia
less monitoring |
|
|
Term
3 kinds of low molecular weight heparins |
|
Definition
lovenox (enoxaparin)
dalteparin (fragmin)
tinzaparin (innohep)
all end in -aparin |
|
|
Term
anticoagulant that works by inhibiting thrombin by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits factor X. avg molecular weight 4,500.
less monitoring of factor X activity (PTT)
approved for home use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
anticoagulant
synthetic pentasaccharide w/ similar antithrombin III action to heparin
better at DVT prevention than LMW heparin in hip replacements and equivalent in treatment of thrombosis
Indications: prophylaxis for post op thrombosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
THIAZIDES AND LOOP DIURETICS CAUSE ... ? |
|
Definition
hypokalemia -- WILL BE ON TEST |
|
|
Term
Direct thrombin inhibitors (anticoagulants)
recombinant form of hirudin - from medicinal leeches - parenteral for PCI or as heparin alternative (hx of HIT) - not good for long term use due to antibodiese |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1st new oral anticoagulant in 50 years
direct thrombin inhibitor no monitoring but very expensive
may be better at preventing stroke than warfarin for afib
problems: non-reversible, more GI problems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 treatment options of acute thrombus
1. ___: activates plasminogen to become plasmin. needs to be done within 2-6 hours of MI or stroke. also done for DVT, PE, clotted shunts & catheters. recommended when PCI is not available. available options? contraindications?
2. anticoagulation
3. thrombectomy |
|
Definition
1. thrombolysis - all -ase's: streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase. All parenteral.
- contraindications: surgery w/in 10 days, serious GI bleed within 3 mos, hx of HTN, bleeding disorder, previous hemorrhagic CVA, pregnancy
|
|
|
Term
what do you use to reverse anticoagulants?
1. reversing fibrinolytics
2. reversing hepparin
3. reversing warfarin |
|
Definition
1. aminocaproic acid - increased risk of MI, renal failure
2. protamine sulfate
3. vit K, fresh frozen plasma |
|
|
Term
Atherosclerosis:
- ___: when LDL cholesterol accumulates under endothelium - Monocytes collect under this and oxidize LDL - ___: when monocytes becomes macrophages and ingest oxidized LDL - damaged endothelium permits more LDL to accumulate
HDL someohow mitigates the process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
facts about ____:
- it is at it's core an inflammatory process - endogenously-produced lipids are most responsible for it - it is now reversible due to medical therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
main goals and secondary goals of lipid therapy |
|
Definition
Main: lower LDL, raise HDL
seocndary: lower trigs and total cholesterol |
|
|
Term
5 general groups of lipid-lowering agents |
|
Definition
niacin
bile acid binding agents
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors = "statins"
Fibric acid derivatives = "Fibrates"
inhibitors of sterol absorption |
|
|
Term
what lipid-lowering drug?
lowers VLDL and LDL, raises HDL-C - most potent at raising HDL - Not most potent at lowering LDL
gaining popularity, but doesn't seem to be too effective
adverse effects: HEPATOTOXICTY (>2 mg/day), GOUT flares, cutaneous flush, GI problems, impaired glucose tolerance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lipid-lowering drug?
helps break up enterohepatic circulation to block reabsorption of bile acids so lipids are passed through stool.
lowers LDL, may help raise HDL
ex: cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevalam
Adverse effects: Gi issues, impaired absoprtion of fat soluble vitamins & drugs (dig, warfarin, aspirin, statins, thiazides) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what group of lipid-lowering drugs?
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
block sterol synthesis
Lowers LDL, modest rise in HDL
lowers risk of CHD proportionally to fall in LDL
adverse effects: ELEVATED HEPATIC ENZYMES, MYOPATHY & RHABDOMYALYSIS (weakness, sore muscles, renal failure) drug interactions: amiodarone & verapamil
Contraindications: PREGNANCY, TEENS & CHILDREN, LACTATION
Indications: lipid lowering, anti-inflammatory, reduced colon cancer risk, may help lower risk of Alzheimer's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what lipid-lowering agents?
derivatives of fibric acid
enhance lipoprotein lipase activity --> lowers LDL, moderate raise in HDL
lower fibrinogen levels
ex: gemfibrozil, fenofibrate
adverse effects: gall stones, increases warfarin effect
Contraindications: pregnancy, severe liver or kidney dysfxn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what lipid-lowering agent?
ezetimibe (zetia)
drops LDL 15%, synergistic with statins
possible hepatotoxicity |
|
Definition
sterol absorption inhibitor |
|
|
Term
Lipid lowering therapy
1st, 2nd, 3rd lines
in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
1st: statin
2nd: bile acid binding
3. niacin, fibrates
pregnancy: bile acid binding |
|
|
Term
___ is the most potent drug at raising HDL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the key feature of ischemic disease? |
|
Definition
diminished oxygen transport |
|
|
Term
treatment of acute ischemia (MI, unstable angina) |
|
Definition
transport to hospital
aspirin
oxygen
PCI or fibrinolytics |
|
|
Term
prevention of angina and chf |
|
Definition
lifestyle changes
ACE inhibitors
Beta blockers
statins
Aspirin and/or plavix |
|
|
Term
Angina:
1. occurrences are predictable based on level of effort or emotions and are RELIEVED WITH REST -- most common form
2. extreme fatigue with minimal exertion. pt feels wiped out. due to vasospasm. associated with smoking and younger pts
3. pain at rest, change in frequency of pain. increased risk for acute coronary syndrome
all must last less than 20 min to be considered angina |
|
Definition
stable
variant (prinzmetals)
unstable
|
|
|
Term
tx for prinzmetal's angina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
% occlusion and anginal symptoms
50-70% 70-90% >90% |
|
Definition
50-70: sx wtih heavy exertion or vasospasm
70-90%: sx with moderate or light exercise - stable angina
>90: sx at rest: unstable angina |
|
|
Term
what conditions could produce or aggrevate angina? |
|
Definition
hyperthyroidism
severe anemia
arrythmias |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
nitrates
beta blockers
ca channel blockers
ace and arb
hyperlipidemia tx - statins |
|
|
Term
sublingual vs. transdermal nitroglycerin for angina |
|
Definition
sublingual: faster onset, shorter duration
peripheral vasodilation
HA
--> more acute
transdermal: slower onset, longer duration
improved exercise tolerance, helps prevent nocturnal angina from emotional dreams
--> more preventative |
|
|
Term
isosorbide dinitrate + hydralazine = ? |
|
Definition
bildil - for african americans with CHF |
|
|
Term
what drugs are contraindicated wtih nitrates? |
|
Definition
ED drugs -- sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil |
|
|
Term
__ are good drugs in preventing anginal attacks
contraindications? |
|
Definition
beta blockers
contraindications: prinzmetals, severe LV failure
be careful because it can cause severe bradycardia & AV blockade |
|
|
Term
prognosis for stable angina |
|
Definition
some will improve
most progress to MI or CHF in 3-5 years |
|
|
Term
how is the R-A-A system related to CHF? |
|
Definition
aldosterone increases salt and water retention and thus causes cardiac remodeling
cardiac remodeling is the reason CHF gets worse and the heart loses contractility |
|
|
Term
first drug to prove reduced mortality in CHF pts |
|
Definition
enalapril (ACE inhibitor) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hospitalize - O2, loop diuretics
stabilize: inotropic agents, LVADs
evaluate |
|
|
Term
chronic CHF treatment (8 things) |
|
Definition
reduce cardiac workload - limit activity, reduce weight, control htn
restrict sodium - 2 g/day
give diuretic: loop (spironolactone is dangerous)
ACE inhibitor or ARB
dig (esp if comorbid afib)
beta blockers -- stable Class II-IV CHF
vasodilators (bildil for AAs)
treat hyperlipidemia - statins |
|
|
Term
what two drugs can be used for emergency vasodilation in CHF? |
|
Definition
sodium nitroprusside
nesiritide |
|
|
Term
What inotropic agents can be used for CHF? |
|
Definition
cardiac glycosides: dig
--> for outpatient CHF
beta adrenergic agonists:
Dobutamide, dopamine
phosphodiesterase inhibitors: amrinone, milrinone |
|
|
Term
what drug?
only oral inotropic agent increases intracellular Ca increases cardiac parasympathetic tone
low therapeutic index -- easily toxic
toxicity: arrhythmia, anorexia, nausea, HA, visual changes, fatigue, some estrogenic effects
toxicity risk factors: hypokalemia, hypothyroidism, renal insufficiency, drug interactions (verapamil, quinidine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how do you treat dig toxicity? |
|
Definition
stop dig
correct aggravating circumstances (hypokalemia, drug interactions)
neutralize circulating dig -- digoxin immune fab (digibind)
|
|
|
Term
when should you use dig in CHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
revascularization (CABG, PCI)
cardioplasty - reduce left vent volume |
|
|
Term
which way do na and k flow during depolarization of an AP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is the fastest depolarizer in the heart it is the pacemaker -- "leads the orchestra" and is least sensitive to anti-arrhythmic effects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
wolfe parkinson white (wpw) |
|
Definition
form of cardiac arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
Causes of impulse abnormalities leading to arrhythmias |
|
Definition
ISCHEMIA, HYPOXIA
alkalosis/acidosis
excessive catecholamines
drug toxicity
overstretching of cardiac fibers
scars |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Class I: Na channel blockers (quinidine, procainamide, lidocaine)
- "use dependent" - target the most frequently depolarizing cells
class II: Beta blockers
- useful in treating tachyarrhythmias, and preventing ventricular arrhythmias
Class III: K channel blockers (amiodarone, sotalol, bretylium)
- useful in tachyarrhytmias
Class IV: ca channel blockers
- most effeective against atrial arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
Special niches for antiarrhythmics:
V tach?
V fib?
SVT?
A fib? |
|
Definition
v tach: lidocaine, amioderone
vfib: liodcaine, amioderone, epinephrine
svt: adenosine
atrial fib: propanolol, amioderone |
|
|
Term
the most common chronic arrhythmia
loss of normal atrial contraction causes 20-30% drop in LV output
vent rate becomes too rapid and irregular - pulse is IRREGULARLY IRREGULAR
risks: MURAL THROMBI in enlarged left atria --> stroke, tachy to point of hypotension
tx? |
|
Definition
afib
tx:
1. rate control: beta blockers, amiodarone, dig
2. restore sinus rhythm - cardioversion
3. anticoagulant to prevent stroke - warfarin, aspirin |
|
|
Term
what drug?
useful in tx of afib, vfib, vtach
numerous side effects: pulmonary fibrosis, liver toxicity, blocker t4-t3 conversion, photodermatitis (blue-gray skin)
drug interactions: CYP3A4: cimetadine, macrolides (-mycins), fluconazole, grapefruit juice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
young pt with palpitations, Sob, tachycardia
what tx? |
|
Definition
adenosine
they're in PSVT |
|
|
Term
double edged sword of antiarrhythmics |
|
Definition
they can stop arrhythmias but they can also cause them
risky to use them chronically except amiodarone and beta blockers |
|
|
Term
basic endocrine system:
second messengers are ___ hormones
DNA transcription is done by ___ hormones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is an example of a hormone that can interact wtih another hormones receptors and thus influence another system? |
|
Definition
TSH can bind to FSH receptors
thus ovarian cysts can result from untreated hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
target cells stop producing hormone receptors after prolonged exposure to large hormone concetrations
this is an example of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?
the anterior pituitary? |
|
Definition
hypothalamus: releasing and inhibiting factors + vasopressin/oxytocin
anterior pituitary: acth, tsh, fsh/lh, prolactin, somatotropin (growth hormone) |
|
|
Term
what dz can be treated wtih growth hormone? |
|
Definition
Gh deficiency - dwarfism
short kids (normal GH but delayed growth) & turners -- works OK
adverse effects: usually none, hypo thyroidism, myalgia, arthralgia (growing pains), cytochrome P450 activation (may impact other meds), acromegaly (with high doses) |
|
|
Term
somatostatin & analogs
indciations |
|
Definition
analogs: octreotide, lanreotide
indications: acromegaly & carcinoid sndrome |
|
|
Term
what are some conditions in which prolactin levels get too high?
how can this be treated? |
|
Definition
hypothyroidism
idiopathic hyperprolactinemia
pituitary tumor
tx: ergot dopamine agonists - bromocriptine, pergolide, cabergoline |
|
|
Term
a type of fungus that causes smooth muscle contraction and is thus useful HTn, peripheral vasospasm, and contracting postpartum uterus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what hyperprolactinemia-inducing drug is contraindicated in psychotic pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 gonadotropins
for what condition are these used as treatment?
what are some dangers of this? |
|
Definition
FSH
LH
HCG
infertility
multiple births
ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome - ascites, pleural effusion, renal failure, CV collapse, PE |
|
|
Term
produced by hypothalamus - stimulates FSH and LH release from pituitary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
utilization of GnRH treatments:
1. infusion pump (factrel, lutrepulse) for ___
2. GnRH agonists (lupron) to acheive downregulation to produce medical menopause for what diseases?
3. GnRH antagonist (cetrotide, antagon) to prevent ____ |
|
Definition
1. amenorrhea
2. endometriosis, fibroids
3. premature ovulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a less aggressive approach to inducing ovulations than using gonadotropins? |
|
Definition
trigger endogenous release of FSH and LH via: clomiphene citrate (clomid) and aromatase inhibitors (letrozole & anastrozole) |
|
|
Term
2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary and their functions |
|
Definition
1. oxytocin
- induce labor
- augment labor
- milk ejection reflex "letdown"
2. vasopressin (ADH)
- treatment of diabetes insipitus
|
|
|
Term
Thyroid hormones:
What controls what controls what? |
|
Definition
Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) --> thyrotropin (TSH) -- > T3 (triiodothyronine) & T4 (tetraiodothyronine/thyroxine) |
|
|
Term
T3/T4 are stored by __ in the thyroid follicles
they are transported via ___. What happens if you increase or decrease this molecule? |
|
Definition
thyroglobulin (Tg)
thyroxine binding globulin (TBG).
- increase - amount of free t3/t4 drops - estrogen
- decrease - amount of free t3/t4 rises - androgens |
|
|
Term
What drug is used for hypothyroidism or post-thyroid removal?
how do you know what dose to give?
advance dose cautiously in elderly --> why? |
|
Definition
levothyroxine (T4)
adjust dose based on sx:
- lethargic, haven't lost weight --> give more
- jittery, nervous --> give less
elderly --> increases metabolism and cardiac O2 requirements in those who'vehad hypothyroid for a long time |
|
|
Term
causes of hypothyroidism & hyperthyroidism |
|
Definition
HYPO: primary (gland failure) 99%
hashimoto's thyroiditis
absence/destruction
low iodine intake -- goiter
HYPER: grave's disease, Toxic Nodular Goiter |
|
|
Term
sx of ____:
poor memory inability to concentrate hair loss weight gain cold intolerance weakness fatigue dry skin menstrual irregularities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sx of ____:
restlessness insomnia tremor weight loss heat intolerance weakness fatigue muscle cramps menstrual irregularites exophthalmos |
|
Definition
hyperthyroidism
(thyrotoxicosis) |
|
|
Term
exophthalmos is only seen in what kind of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
grave's disease -- not toxic goiter or giving too much T4 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
quickly control sx - beta blockers
utilize antithyroid agents to prevent thyroid storm
- thioamides, iodides, anion inhibitors
DEFINITIVE TX:
- thyroid excision/ablation |
|
|
Term
what drug?
block synthesis of T3/T4 -- used to treat hyperthyroidism
PTU (propylthiouracil) -- used for pregnant pts
Methimazole -- single daily dose
improve sx within a week
adverse rxn: rash, peripheral edema, agranulocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what drug?
prevent reuptake of iodide by thte thyroid limited usefulness (drug induced hyperthyroidism)
main choice: potassium perchlorate
can cause aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what drug?
suppress t3/t4 release to treat hyperthyroidism
quick onset but can only be used 2-8 weeks
interferes with thioamide action and radioactive iodine - start thioamides first - don't use if radioactive iodine is likely |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug?
block T4--> T3 conversion to treat hyperthyroidism
onset of action - few days
choices: iopanpoic acid, diatrizoat sodium, ipodate sodium
for pts who don't respond to other tx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when is radioactive iodine contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
why would you want to do radioactive iodide thyroid ablation over surgical removal? |
|
Definition
surgery causes more t3/t4 to be released --> thyroid storm
recurrent laryngeal in danger of being cut |
|
|
Term
uncommon but life threatening form of hyperthyroidism causes: stress, coexisting illness, idiopathic
sx: high fever, tachycardia, arrhythmia, n/v/d, coma
tx? |
|
Definition
thyroid storm
tx: hospitalization + beta blocker + ca channel blocker + potassium iodide + PTU + hydrocortisone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
estrogen
progestin
glucocorticoid
androgen
mineralcorticoid |
|
|
Term
4 types of glucocorticoids |
|
Definition
cortisol - natural
hydrocortisone - cream
prednisone - oral
methylprednisolone - IM
dexamethasone - iV/IM
triamcinolone - topical or aerosol |
|
|
Term
3 types of corticosteroids |
|
Definition
glucocorticoids
mineralcorticoids
androgens |
|
|
Term
glucocorticoid actions & adverse effects |
|
Definition
glucose production
resistance to stress
hematopoeisis
anti-inflammatory
other
adverse:
1. sx of cushing's syndrome: Bone loss/osteoporosis, adrenal suppression, weight gain,
2. adrenal suppression: poor tolerance of trauma, sepsis, anesthesia |
|
|
Term
glucocorticoid indications |
|
Definition
antiinflammatory
major surgical procedures - anti nausea
cancer chemo - anti nausea
accelerate fetal lung development |
|
|
Term
indications for glucocorticoid inhibitors & mineralcorticoid receptor blockers |
|
Definition
glucocorticoid inhibitors: cushing's
mineralcorticoid RBs (spironolactone): HTn, hyperaldosterone |
|
|
Term
how do you avoid adrenal suppression when using glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
low dose, short course
every other day dose
taper off |
|
|
Term
ACTH secreting pitutiary adenoma causes ____
anything else that causes increased secretion of cortisol is ___ |
|
Definition
cushing's disease
cushing's syndrome |
|
|
Term
glucocorticoid receptor blocker - used as early pregnancy abortion drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what glucocorticoid synthesis blocker can be used as an antfungal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mineralcorticoid blocker risks |
|
Definition
hyperkalemia (spironolactone)
excessive sodium loss |
|
|
Term
which of the following represents a contraindication to the use of salicylates?
Hypercoagulable state CHD Gout Cholelithiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which NSAID is considered by some experts to be the safest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
absorption of which of the following drugs is diminished by antacids containing aluminum and/or magnesium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following enhances the activity of NK cells?
IL2, IL1, inferferon-gamma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is used to treat or prevent allograft rejection?
antithymocyte globulins muromonab-CD3 tacrolimus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hepatic necrosis is possible with large doses of which of the following drugs?
acetaminophen nabumetone aspirin ketorolac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the use of salicylates can increase the plasma concentration of which of the following drugs?
thyroxine propanolol losartan prednisone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is contraindicated in pts allergic to sulfa drugs?
nabumetone celecoxib ketorolac sulindac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 55 year old woman is complaining of intermittent bladder incontinence due to irritability and over activity of her bladder musculature (particularly her detrusor). She is currently on no medications and has no known medical allergies. 1. What autonomic related drug(s) would you recommend for treatment? 2. What side effects would you advise this patient to observe for? 3. Just as you go to write her prescription, she recalls that she was recently diagnosed with narrow (or closed) angle glaucoma. Will this information cause any changes in what you wish to prescribe? |
|
Definition
1. anticholinergic, antimuscarinic -- atropine
2. dependent on dosing - increased HR, oral dryness, inhibition of sweating, increased thirst, mydriasis
3. yes - anticholinergics' mydriasis effect can increase IOP
|
|
|
Term
A 4 year old boy is brought to the emergency department after drinking about a cup full of malathion insecticide.
Which of the following drugs would be most useful in treating this youngster’s toxic symptoms?
Bethanechol Atropine Nesotigmine Propanolol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs might be useful in treating insecticide (organophosphate) poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
: A 22 year old woman develops wheezing and swelling of her lips within a minute of being stung by a bee.
What drug would you give her?
What dose?
What side effects? |
|
Definition
Epinephrine
0.3-0.5 mg IM/SQ
Tachy, arrhythmias, hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
This drug must be used cautiously in pts with asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
these antihypertensive drugs (2) are contraindicated in pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This antihypertensive drugs can cause hypokalemia |
|
Definition
diuretics - thiazides & loops |
|
|
Term
complex of cytologic and chemical reactions in blood vessels and adjacent tissues in reponse to an injury or abnormal stimulation caused by a physical, chemical, or biological agent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Histologic features of inflammation |
|
Definition
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability - fluid gets out to cause swelling
formation of fluid exudate - edema + fibrin
formation of cellular exudate - WBC, macrophages |
|
|
Term
Innate and Adaptive immune system: cellular and humoral components |
|
Definition
Innate:
cellular - macrophages, granulocytes, NKs
humoral - complement
Adaptive:
cellular - T & B lymphocytes
humoral - immunoglobulins |
|
|
Term
4 types of immunosuppressant drugs |
|
Definition
glucocorticoids (steroids)
cytokine inhibitors
antimetabolites
monoclonal antibodies/antithymocyte antibodies |
|
|
Term
3 indications for immunosuppression |
|
Definition
allergy
autoimmune disease
prevention of allograft rejection |
|
|
Term
3 approaches to allergy treatment |
|
Definition
1. suppress immune response via antihistamines and glucocorticoids
2. desensitization immunotherapy (allergy shots)-- induce immune system to make sufficient IgG against an allergen so that IgE won't bind
3. Anti IgE |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
azothioprine
toxicity: bone marrow suppression
mycophenolate mofetil:
more commonly used
- organ transplants, RA
|
|
|
Term
Small protein signaling hormones that modulate immune response by activating macrophages, cytotoxic lymphocytes, and NK cells
ex? |
|
Definition
cytokines
TNF-a
Interleukins
Interferon |
|
|
Term
3 selective cytokine inhibitors & their indications |
|
Definition
cyclosporine - organ transplant and RA
- nephrotoxicity
tacrolimus - more effective than cyclosporine
- nephro and neurotoxicity
sirolimus - effective in graft vs. host reactions
- hyperlipidemia |
|
|
Term
3 types of immunosuppressive antibodies |
|
Definition
antithymocyte globulins - horse or rabbit
- inhibit T cell function
- may stimulate immune response because they're from another animal
IVIG
mabs
- target specific cytokines or lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
Pooled immunoglobulins (mostly IgG) from thousands of donors against all kinds of different infections.
3 main indications of use: - immunodeficiencies - inflammatory/autoimmune disorders - serious acute infection
lasts 2-3 mos |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
custom made antibodies that bind to a target of interest
usual source: mice
are either humanized or chimeric |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
monoclonal antibody nomenclature:
Target: tu = ci or cir = neu = li or lim =
Type: xi = zu = |
|
Definition
tu - tumor
ci/cir - circulation
neu - neural
immune - li or lim
xi - chimeric
zu - humanized |
|
|
Term
excessive initial release of cytokines when giving an immunosuppression med
prevent with premeds, such as? |
|
Definition
cytokine release syndrome
severe form is cytokine storm
premeds: acetominophen
glucocorticoids
antihistamines |
|
|
Term
3 rheumatoid arthritis drugs |
|
Definition
azathioprine
mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)
TNF-a blockers |
|
|
Term
___ are signaling molecules that are secreted and function locally and are part of the body's response to injury and inflammation
ex? |
|
Definition
autacoids
eicosanoids - prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
___ are dietary essential fatty acids that are esterified acids in cell lipids. Arachadonic acid is their precursor.
Functions in cardio, blood, renal, closing the ductus, smooth muscle (bronchial and uterine)
something about chemical stimuli, mechanical stimuli, and phospholipase A2 ??? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Arachidonic acid (eicosanoid precursor) becomes prostaglandind and thromboxanes if exposed to ____, and becomes leukotrienes if exposed to ____ |
|
Definition
cyclooxygenase (cox)
lipoxygenase |
|
|
Term
Difference between cox 1 and cox 2? |
|
Definition
cox 1- ubiquitous, physiologic - found in all tissues
cox 2 - induced only by inflammation
- when treating inflammation, you want to block cox 2, not cox 1 |
|
|
Term
local signaling autacoid that fine tunes cell functions and secretions, is a mediatory of inflammatory response, and has a very short half life |
|
Definition
prostaglandin
E & F are main ones |
|
|
Term
Why would you want to be careful giving an anti-prostaglandin (cox inhibitor) to a pregnant woman or a pt with impaired renal fxn? |
|
Definition
cox inhibitors close the ductus arteriosus -- giving it to a pregnant woman could cause the ductus to close too early
prostaglandins assist in renal function so giving someone a cox inhibitor for a long period of time can cause renal problems |
|
|
Term
3 types of cox inhibitors and an example of each |
|
Definition
1. Non specific and irreversible - Aspirin
2. nonspecific and reversible - all other NSAIDS, including salicylates
3. selective Cox-2 inhibitors |
|
|
Term
What drug?
Antipyretic effect (CNS thermoregulatory center) + analgesic (at hypothalmaus/thalamus & tissues) + anti-inflammatory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
GI: acid production increases, mucus production decreases, chronic blood loss (3-8 ml/day) due to small erosions
Resp: resp alkalosis due to hyperventilation, acidosis at high doses
renal: sodium & potassium retention
drug reactions
overdose potential: 10 g can be fatal to kids
Reye's syndrome |
|
|
Term
Hepatitis and encephalitis in kids who take aspirin for a viral infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ibuprofen (motrin & advil) and naproxen (aleve, anaprox, naprosyn) are all what kind of NSAID? |
|
Definition
propionic acid derivatives |
|
|
Term
___ is an indolacetic acid derivative (an NSAID) that has greater anti-inflammatory effect than aspirin but is also more toxic.
it is used to close patent ductus arteriosus' |
|
Definition
indomethacin
other indolacetic acids: slindac & etodiac |
|
|
Term
what are piroxican and meloxicam? |
|
Definition
oxicam derivatives - a type of salicylate |
|
|
Term
What are mefenamic acid and meclofenamate? |
|
Definition
fenemates -- types of salicylates |
|
|
Term
what drug?
an NSAID with very strong anti-inflammatory reaction (the strongest of the NSAIDs) but weak antipyretic and analgesic action
it is not available in the US due to irreversible agranulocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is an NSAID used in acute pain settings - emergencies, post-op. It is only available IM or IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs?
Cox-2 specific inhibitors - although they still act somewhat on Cox-1 (still some ulcers), they produce far less ulcers than non-specific NSAIDs
used in pts who require long term NSAIDs and have GI disorders (GERD, peptic ulcer hx) |
|
Definition
Celecoxib (celebrex)
Valdecoxib (bextra)
rofecoxib (vioxx) --> now off the market due to increased MI/CVA risk |
|
|
Term
These antiHTN can cause hyperkalemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
These antiHTN are helpful in pts with prior MI |
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Definition
ACE inhibitor, Beta Blocker |
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Term
What is the most common reason for failure of antiHTN therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
For a pt who has developed the dangerous form of HIT, what alternative anticoagulant would you recommend? |
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Definition
lepirudin, argatroban, fondaparinux |
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Term
What drug has proven efficacy in reducing pain cuased by sickle cell? |
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Definition
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Term
maximum anti-factor Xa activity of lovenox is achieved about __ hours after subQ dose |
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Definition
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Term
which diuretic can cause drowsiness and paresthesias?
furosemide triamterene spironolactone acetazolamide |
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Definition
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Term
which of the following electrolyte imbalances can predispose a pt to dig toxicity?
hypokalemia hypercalcemia hypomagnesmia |
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Definition
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Term
the intense cutaneous flush often seen after ingestion of niacin can be reduced or prevented by taking __ beforehand |
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Definition
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Term
which class of diuretics has the greatest ability to increase Ca excretion in the urine? |
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Definition
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Term
Drugs such as sildenafil (viagra) are contraindicated in pts taking ....? |
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Definition
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Term
which of the following drugs would be best for prinzmetal's angina?
nifedipine propanolol losartan adenosine |
|
Definition
nifedipine (calcium channel blocker) |
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Term
which class of lipid modifying drugs would you recommend for a 35 y/o woman with hereditary hyperlipidemia who is 7 weeks pregnant? |
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Definition
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Term
which drug has been shown to increase survival in pts diagnosed with CHF?
lisinopril propanolol spironolactone valsartan |
|
Definition
lisinopril
propanolol
valsartan |
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Term
what drug would you recommend to help control the sx of a thyroid storm in a pt with asthma? |
|
Definition
calcium channel blocker - diltiazem |
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Term
which of the following glucocorticoids has the greatest anti-inflammatory effect? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would be an indication for the use of aminoglutethimide?
thyroid storm autoimmune disease breast cancer adrenal insufficiency |
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Definition
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Term
which class of drugs is normally the first choice for a fib? |
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Definition
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Term
which of the following is useful in the tx of refractory acromegaly?
follitropin beta cabergoline desmopressin pegvisomant |
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Definition
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Term
which antiarrhythmic drug commonly used to treat ventricular arrhythmias is structurally related to thyroxine? |
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Definition
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Term
in addition to hydrocortisone, what other drug may be necessary in tratment of addison's disease |
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Definition
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Term
name a drug which can induce the CYP450 enzymes responsible for degrading thyroxine and thereby result in lower circulating levels of t4? |
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Definition
phytoin, rifampin, phenobarbitol |
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