Term
| Basic EAS definition and eligibility? |
|
Definition
| Two daily roundtrips six days a week with no more than one intermediate stop each flight. 10 enplanements per service day |
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Term
|
Definition
| Small Community Air Service Development Program; forty grants a year to cover expenses for new advertising, subsidies, staff, studies to improve air service. |
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Term
| Crisis communications plan |
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Definition
| Steps taken in crisis, key personnel and their contacts to prevent or mitigate. |
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Term
| Role of airport spokesperson? |
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Definition
| Signals the airport prioritizes managing the crisis over just PR. Allows incident commander and other personnel and responders to actually manage the crisis. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Federal Govt. agency National Incident Management System designed to be umbrella over all potential crises. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Joint Information Center coordinates the release of emergency info and is the focal point of its release. |
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Term
|
Definition
Sudden
Creeping (employee lawsuits regulatory violations)
Predictable (can be anticipated, strikes or policy protests) |
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Term
| Five audiences of managing crises? |
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Definition
1. PIO
2. Elected/appointed officials
3. Regulatory officials
4. Media
5. Public |
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Term
|
Definition
| Aviation Disaster Family Assistance Act of 1996. |
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Term
|
Definition
| National Incident Management System |
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Term
| Which Grant Assurances cover noise abatement? |
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Definition
5 (Brian Hill) Preserving rights and powers
19 (Johnny Unitas) O&M
22 (Emitt Smith) Economic Nondiscrimination
21 (Ladainian Tomlinson) Compatible land use
26 (Rod Woodson) reports and inspections
31 (Mike Piazza) Disposal of Land |
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Term
|
Definition
| Aviation Noise Abatement Policy |
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Term
| Who pays for the cost of noise reduction through monies paid to the Aviation Trust Fund which is then filtered through the AIP for airport noise abatement programs? |
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Definition
| Passengers through passenger seat taxes and air cargo shippers through air cargo taxes. |
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Term
| What did Title 14 CFR Part 36 establish? |
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Definition
| Noise certification standards that mandated jet design that would help eliminate source noise. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Effective Perceived Noise Level |
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Term
| Noise perspective stages go from 1 Loudest to 5 current noise standard; prop planes and experimental are called what? |
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Definition
| Nonstaged, Part 36 does not apply |
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Term
|
Definition
| Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act predicated FAA Part 150 Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning |
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Term
|
Definition
| Provides incentive to encourage compatible land use around airports through Noise Exposure Maps and Noise Compatibility Programs |
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Term
| What is ANCA and what does it do? |
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Definition
| Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 requires operators to adopt noise restrictions on ops via Title 14 CFR Part 161 |
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Term
| Airport and Airway Safety, Capacity, Noise Improvement and Intermodal Transportation Act of 1992 |
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Definition
| Establish 55, 60 and 65 DNL contours. |
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Term
| What does Title 14 Part 150 do? |
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Definition
| Establishes procedures and methodologies for airport operators for Noise Exposure Maps and Airport Noise Compatibility Programs |
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Term
|
Definition
Noise Exposure Map
Airport Noise Compatibility Programs |
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Term
|
Definition
| Aviation Environmental Design Tool software that models noise, fuel burn and emissions sued by US govt. for environmental policy analysis. |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is ATP and how many hours required? |
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Definition
| Airline Transport Pilot, 1,500 hours total flight time |
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Term
| Class A airspace requirement and elevation? |
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Definition
| 18,000 MSL must be on IFP and radio with tower |
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Term
|
Definition
| Regulatory (A-E) and non-regulatory (military) |
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Term
| Four types of airspace within regulatory and non-regulatory? |
|
Definition
Controlled
Uncontrolled
Special Usse
Other |
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Term
|
Definition
Terminal
Radio
Approach
Control
Facilities |
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Term
|
Definition
A: 18000-60000 MSL
B: Surface-10000 MSL around busy airports TRACON controlled
C: Surface-4000 MSL; not as busy as B
D: Surface-2500 MSL; visual |
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Term
| ATCT towered airport two controllers? |
|
Definition
Ground Controller - taxiways approves entry to Movement Area
Tower Controller - air and runway |
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Term
|
Definition
"Party line"
Common
Traffic
Advisory
Frequency |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two way radio ops four phraseology |
|
Definition
Who calling
Who is
Message or intent
Confirm receipt of message |
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Term
|
Definition
1 Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) 60 miles
2 Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR) 100-250 miles
3 Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDEX) + Airport Movement Area Safety System (AMASS) Ground and five miles
4 Precision Runway Guidance Monitoring (PGRM) simultaneous approaches
5 Precision Approach Radar (PAR) military |
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Term
|
Definition
Discrete code assigned aircraft transmits on transponder
7700 emergency
7600 no radio
7500 hijack |
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Term
|
Definition
| NDB on ground omni directional used by non-precision; GPS has phased out |
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Term
| Very High Frequency Omni Directional Range |
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Definition
| Localizer - VHF VOR along compass headings; affected by terrain and obstructions |
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Term
|
Definition
| Part of ILS located on side of runway provides vertical guidance |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
Recorded messages from ATCT through ASOS
Automated
Terminal
Information
Services |
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Term
|
Definition
Automated
Surface (Weather)
Observations
Stations (Systems) |
|
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Term
| System Wide Information Management (SWIM)? |
|
Definition
| Weather, air traffic info for pilots, atc, military and users of NAS. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Performance Based Navigation |
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Term
|
Definition
| Ability of a portion of airspace/airport/airfield to handle given volume (demand) within a specified period. |
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Term
| Four elements of capacity analysis? |
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Definition
Airspace
Airfield
Terminal
Ground Access |
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Term
|
Definition
| Rate at which aircraft can operate into or out of the airfield without regard to amount of delay. Simulation or modeled only that focuses on geometry of airfield |
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Term
|
Definition
| Rate at which aircraft can operate without exceeding a max acceptable level of delay. |
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Term
| Two measures of practical capacity? |
|
Definition
Practical Hourly Capacity
Practical Annual Capacity - not more than 4 minutes average delay per aircraft in two hour peak period |
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Term
|
Definition
| Reasonable estimate of airport's annual practical capacity |
|
|
Term
| Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR)? |
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Definition
| Agreed upon max number of aircraft that can land at any given aiport in an hour |
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Term
| If traffic demand increases beyond 4 to 6 minutes? |
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Definition
| Delays increase at exponential rate |
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Term
|
Definition
| Plane parked not generating revenue and plane waiting incurs expense. Affected by gate size, gate mix and gate occupancy time. |
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Term
| Five factors that lower capacity/increase dealy? |
|
Definition
Airfield
Airspace
ATC
Weather
Demand |
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Term
|
Definition
Traffic Flow Management
Traffic Management Initiatives |
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Term
|
Definition
| Manage demand by charging cost based landing fees based on peak hour surcharges. Fee system that increases as delay increases. |
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Term
| Elected officials are responsible for ____ and the airport executive is responsible for ____? |
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Definition
Strategic vision of the airport
Carrying out and managing policy & implement plans |
|
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Term
| Airport executive four areas to determine authority? |
|
Definition
Purchasing
Personnel
Agreements
Community relations |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| International Air Transport Association |
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Term
|
Definition
| Airlines for America formerly known as Air Transport Association |
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Term
| What is Cost Per Enplaned Passenger? |
|
Definition
| CPE is all charges paid by airline to airport divided by the number of enplaned passengers at the airport |
|
|
Term
| Instrument Landing System components? |
|
Definition
Localizer radio beam
Glide slope transmitter
Marker beacons or DME |
|
|
Term
| Instrument Landing System categories? |
|
Definition
Cat I has localizer, glide slope, and middle and outer markers
Cat II localizer, glide slope, middle, inner and out markers
Cat III most stringent can autoland |
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|
Term
| Which navigational aid is used for precision approoaches to a runway? |
|
Definition
| Instrument Landing System |
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|
Term
| A homeowner desires to identify whether their property is eligible for noise mitigation measures, under a Part 150 study. The document that best provides this information is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of a Very-High Frequency Omni-Directional Range (VOR) in air navigation? |
|
Definition
| To provide AZIMUTH information to pilots |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of navigation aids RNAV can utilize? |
|
Definition
| Both ground and space based navigation aids, as well as self contained systems |
|
|
Term
| A homeowner desires to identify whether their property is eligible for noise mitigation measure under a Part 150 study. The document that best provides this information is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Under which regulation addresses a study that is necessary for an airport to impose a noise restriction on the operation of Stage 3 aircraft that first became effective after October 1, 1990. |
|
Definition
| Title 14 Part 161 Notice and Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions |
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|
Term
| What are the products of a Part 150 Noise Abatement Study? |
|
Definition
| A Noise Exposure Map and Noise Compatibility Program |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary objective of the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)? |
|
Definition
| To oversee the flow of air traffic on a NATIONAL level |
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|
Term
| Constructive knowledge is presumed if Notice of the existence of the Noise Exposure Map _____ |
|
Definition
| Was published at least three times in a local newspaper |
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|
Term
| Which program/plan, qualifies an airport for the Airport Improvement Program Noise Abatement Set-Aside? |
|
Definition
| An approved Noise Compatibility Plan |
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|
Term
| Which type of short-range radar (60 nautical mile range), is used primarily for identifying and separating traffic in and around airports? |
|
Definition
| Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) |
|
|
Term
| Which component of the ILS provides lateral location information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) do in conjunction with Airport Surveillance Radar? |
|
Definition
| Receives transponder signals to provide position information and identity of the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| What is the weakness of the Airport Surface Observation Station (ASOS)? |
|
Definition
| It can't observe a distant phenomena |
|
|
Term
| What does "non-directional" refer to in the context of Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs)? |
|
Definition
| The type of radio signals it receives |
|
|
Term
| Which entity uses the Airport Acceptance Rate to calculate the desired interval between arrival aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Air Route Traffic Control Centers (FAA) |
|
|
Term
| What can affect the reflectivity of the Glide Slope signal and cause errors? |
|
Definition
| Stockpiled materials, snow, uneven terrain, vehicles, aircraft or construction equipment in the critical area |
|
|
Term
| Which Traffic Management Initiative are flights assigned departure times to regulate their arrival at the impacted airport? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most efficient way to monitor news about your airport? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Commercial dtone operators are required to have _____ |
|
Definition
| A remote pilot certificate |
|
|
Term
| Where is the Localizer antenna array typically located? |
|
Definition
| 1,000 feet past the departure end of the approach runway |
|
|
Term
| What is true about Propeller driven Small Airplanes and Propeller Driven Commuter Category aircraft certificated under Part 36 Certificated Airplane Noise Levels? |
|
Definition
| They don't have a stage classification and are referred to as nonstage |
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|
Term
| What is one function of the Localizer besides aiding precision approaches? |
|
Definition
| It assists with non-precision approaches |
|
|
Term
| What term represents the number of times someone lands on your page, and then leaves it without checking another page on your site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)? |
|
Definition
| To provide a predefined route for aircraft to follow during arrival |
|
|
Term
| Which system provides pilots with information on weather and flight plans? |
|
Definition
| Automated Flight Service Station |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The percentage of seats that are filled by paying passengers on an airliner |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the major system components that are analyzed within the four distinct elements of airport capacity? |
|
Definition
Runways
Taxiways
Aprons
Gate/Terminal area
Terminal Curbside Interface
Vehicle Circulation
Parking areas
Access Roadway |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)? |
|
Definition
| To continuously transmit airport information and reduce repetitive announcements by ATC |
|
|
Term
| What is the main role of the Terminal Radar Approach Control facility (TRACON)? |
|
Definition
| Control aircraft within the terminal area |
|
|
Term
| What is the capability of RNAV (Area Navigation)? |
|
Definition
| To allow aircraft to fly on any desired flight path within the coverage of nav aids |
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