Term
An acid is a substance that dissociates into one or more ________.
A. Hydroxide ions
B. Hydrogen ions
C. Potassium ions
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
This membrane protein selectively moves a polar substance or ion from one side of the membrane to the other.
A. Ion channels
B. Linkers
C. Carriers
D. Receptors |
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Definition
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Term
What is the main difference between an ionic and covalent bonds?
A. Ionic bond is a sharing of electrons, while a covalent bond involves the gain and loss of an electron
B. Ionic bond involves a loss and gain of an electron, while a covalent bond involves the sharing of a pair of electrons
C. Ionic bonds involve a gain and loss of of an electron, while a covalent bond involves bonding of atoms
D. None of the Above |
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Definition
B. Ionic bond involves a loss and gain of an electron, while a covalent bond involves the sharing of a pair of electrons |
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Term
If transporters move two substances in the same direction they are called
A. Antiporters
B. Symporters
C. Co-porters
D. Tri-porters |
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Definition
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Term
These can contain as many as 60 kinds of powerful digestive and hydrolytic enzymes that can break down a wide variety of molecules.
A. Autozomes
B. Golgi complex
C. Lysosomes
D. Membrane vesicles |
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Definition
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Term
An ionic compound that breaks apart into a positive an negative ion in solution is called?
A. Cation
B. Anion
C. Covalent bond
D. Electrolyte |
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Definition
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Term
Ligand-receptor complexes trigger infolding of a clathrin-coated pit that forms a vesicle containing ligands.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Bulk-phase endocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Transcytosis |
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Definition
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis |
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Term
In this type of secretion the cell matures, it ruptures and becomes the secretory product.
A. Merocrine
B. Holocrine
C. Apocrine |
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Definition
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Term
This type of junction are found where a leak-proof seal is needed between cells.
A. Tight
B. Adherens
C. Gap |
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Definition
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Term
Histology is the study of
A. disease
B. tissues
C. cellular structures
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Besides protection, the skin contributes to:
A. Regulation of the body's temperature
B. Sensory perceptions
C. Reservoir of blood
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Melanin is produced by melanocytes in the stratum basale. Eumlanin is the:
A. Yellow to red
B. Orange to red
C. Tan to black
D. Brown to black |
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Definition
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Term
Destroys the epidermis and part of the dermis - some skin functions are lost.
A. First-degree burns
B. Second-degree burns
C. Third-degree burns
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
This chemical class of hormone binds to receptors of the surface of the cell.
A. Lipid soluble hormones
B. Water soluble hormones
C. All of the above
D. None of the above |
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Definition
B. Water soluble hormones |
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Term
The two major types of Eicosanoids are...
A. Peptide hormones and protein hormones
B. Prostaglandins and Peptide hormons
C. Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes
D. Protein hormone and Leukotrienes |
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Definition
C. Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes |
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Term
This is the major link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.
A. Thyroid
B. Pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pineal gland |
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Definition
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Term
The shaft or body of the long, cylindrical main portion of the long bone is called...
A. Metaphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. Endosteum |
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Definition
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Term
This is the tough connective tissue sheet and associated blood supply that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not covered by the articular cartilage.
A. Endosteum
B. Particular cartilage
C. Periosteum
D. Epiphysis |
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Definition
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Term
Compact bone tissue is composed of repeating structural units called...
A. Lacunae
B. Osteons or haversian systems
C. Canalicule
D. Central canals |
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Definition
B. Osteons or haversian systems |
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Term
Type of ossification where bone forms directly within mesenchyme, which is arranged in sheet like layer that resemble membranes.
A. Endochondral ossification
B. Intramembraneous ossification
C. Periosteal ossification
D. None of the above |
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Definition
B. Intramembraneous ossification |
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Term
This bone forms the forehead, the roofs of the orbits (eye sockets), and most of the anterior part of the cranial floor.
A. Ethmoid bone
B. Shenoid bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Parietal bone |
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Definition
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Term
These paired bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor.
A. Parietal bones
B. Temporal bone
C. Ethmoid bones
D. Sphenoid bone |
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Definition
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Term
This bone lies at the midline part of the base of the skull. This bone is called the "keystone" of the cranial floor because it articulates with all other cranial bones, holding them together.
A. Occipital bone
B. Ethmoid bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone |
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Definition
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Term
These are paired bones, the smallest bones of the face, are posterior and lateral to the nasal bones and form a part of the medial wall of each orbit.
A. Maxillae bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Lacrimal bones
D. Vomer bones |
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Definition
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Term
These paired bones unite to form the upper jaw bone.
A. Mandible
B. Maxillae
C. Vomer
D. Palatine |
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Definition
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Term
How many freely moving vertebrates are in the vertebral column?
A. 27
B. 33
C. 24
D. 32 |
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Definition
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Term
The hand consists of how many bones?
A. 13
B. 19
C. 28
D. 27 |
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Definition
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Term
The wrist consists of how many carpal bones?
A. 7
B. 9
C. 8
D. 10 |
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Definition
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Term
The femur articulate with the pelvis at the ______.
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Acetabulum
C. Iliac fossa
D. Pubic crest |
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Definition
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Term
The talus is located _____ to the calcaneus.
A. Posterior
B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Anterior |
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Definition
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Term
The tarsus is proximal to the foot and contains how many tarsal bones?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 7 |
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Definition
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Term
A sleeve-like structure that surrounds a synovial joint, encloses the synovial cavity and unites the articulating bone.
A. Articular cartilage
B. Articular capsule
C. Synovial membrane
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
In the synovial joint, the convex surface of one bone fits into the concave surface of another bone, producing and opening and closing action.
A. Planar joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Condyloid joint |
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Definition
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Term
This type of synovial joint, the convex oval-shaped projection of one fits into the oval-shaped depression of the other bone (allowing movement around two axes).
A. Planar joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Condyloid joint |
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Definition
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Term
In this group of joint movement, there is an increase or a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
A. Gliding
B. Angular movement
C. Rotation
D. Special movement |
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Definition
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Term
In this group of joint movement, a bone revolves around its own longitudinal axis.
A. Gliding
B. Angular movement
C. Rotation
D. Special movement |
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Definition
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Term
This particular special movement, the joint moves the body part in a downward motion.
A. Elevation
B. Depression
C. Protraction
D. Retraction |
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Definition
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Term
Muscles are excitable and irritable like nervous tissue, but unlike nerves muscles are also:
A. Contractible
B. Extensible
C. Elastic
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Skeletal muscle functions are:
A. Pump blood continuously
B. Peristalses, blood pressure, pupil size and erect hairs
C. Movement, heat, posture
D. None of the above |
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Definition
C. Movement, heat, posture |
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Term
The plasma membrane of an individual muscle fiber is called:
A. Sarcoplasm
B. Sarcolemma
C. Sarcomere
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What binds to the troponin-tropomyosin complex to allow the myosin binding sites to be exposed?
A. K+
B. Na+
C. Ca++
D. Acetocholine |
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Definition
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Term
In the neuromuscular junction the motor end plate is on the:
A. Neuron
B. Muscle cell
C. Dendrite
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The sequence of events from the nerve axon, to the synaptic neuromuscular junction is:
A. Chemical event, electrical event, chemical event
B. Chemical event, electrical event, electrical event
C. Electrical event, chemical event, electrical event
D. Electrical event, chemical event, chemical event |
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Definition
C. Electrical event, chemical event, electrical event |
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Term
What percentage of the energy used by muscle is lost as heat?
A. 50%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-70%
D. 70-80% |
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Definition
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Term
These fibers are large, white and powerful. Well suited to intense anaerobic activity of short duration.
A. Slow oxidative
B. Fast glycolytic
C. Fast oxidative-glycolytic
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Give an example of a muscle named due to size.
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Transverses abdominus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Levator scapulae |
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Definition
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Term
Give an example of a muscle named due to location.
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Transverses abdominus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Levator scapulae |
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Definition
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Term
Give an example of a muscle named die to its origin and insertion.
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Levatorscapulae
D. Gastrocnemius |
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Definition
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Term
Somatic sensory neurons that convey information receptors in the head, body walls and limbs toward the central nervous system (CNS).
A. Efferent
B. Interneurons
C. Afferent
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Transport system that moves materials in both directions.
A. Slow axonal transport
B. Fast axonal transport
C. None of the above
D. Superfast axonal transport |
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Definition
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Term
The portion of the brain and spinal cord that is formed from aggregation of myelinated axons from many neurons.
A. Grey matter
B. White matter
C. Substancia negra
D. Substancia blanco |
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Definition
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Term
Grey matter of the cord:
A. Contains major sensory and motor tracts to and from the brain
B. Is a site for integration of postsynaptic potentials
C. None of the above
D. A & B only |
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Definition
B. Is a site for integration of postsynaptic potentials |
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Term
Of the three meninx of the cord, the middle one is...
A. Dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Pia mater
D. Subarachnoid space |
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Definition
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Term
The pia mater has how many pairs of the dentriculate ligaments?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 21
D. 19 |
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Definition
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Term
The anterior (ventral) root and rootlets contain axons of:
A. Sensory neurons
B. Motor neurons
C. None of the above
D. A & B only |
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Definition
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Term
The lateral grey horns are found only in the _____.
A. Thoracic segments
B. Lumbar segment
C. Sacral segment
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The spinalthalamic tract is an afferent tract that...
A. Transmits pain, temperature, itching, etc.
B. Discriminative touch, vibration, proprioception
C. Voluntary movement of the skeletal muscles
D. None of the above |
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Definition
A. Transmits pain, temperature, itching, etc. |
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Term
The phrenic nerve arises from the _____.
A. Brachial plexus
B. Cervical plexus
C. Lumbar plexus
D. Sacral plexus |
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Definition
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Term
Reflex arcs can be ____.
A. Ipsilateral
B. Contralateral
C. All of the above
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Babinski reflex is normal in an adult if the toes ______.
A. Extend
B. Flex
C. Neither
D. Both |
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Definition
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Term
The long thoracic nerve emerges from the cords of the brachial plexus to supply:
A. The biceps
B. The triceps
C. Serratus anterior
D. Pectoralis major |
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Definition
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Term
In the development of the brain, the mesencephalon becomes...
A. Forebrain
B. Midbrain
C. Hindbrain
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A small triangular process that separates the two cerebellar hemispheres...
A. Falx cerebri
B. Falx cerebelli
C. Tentorium cerebelli
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The brain represents only 2 percent of the total body weight, but receives about ____ of the body's blood supply.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The majority of the CSF is produced from the ependymal cells in the _____.
A. Luska
B. Magendie
C. Choroid plexus
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
CSF is gradually reabsorbed back into the blood through the ______.
A. Arachnoid space
B. Arachnoid granulation
C. Arachnoid villi
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The brachial plexus is divided into: |
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Definition
ROOTS → TRUNKS → DIVISIONS → CORDS → BRANCHES (NERVES) |
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Term
Name all the major nerves that derive from the brachial plexus. |
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Definition
- Radius, ulnar, median, long thoracic |
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Term
The posterior spinal roots or rootlets contain only:
A. Motor nerves
B. Sensory nerves
C. Ganglionic nerves
D. Autonomic nerves |
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Definition
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Term
Damage to the RAS can cause...
A. Insomnia
B. Coma
C. All of the above
D. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Vision is possible because of _______ that are able to "catch" photons of EM radiation in the ____-____ nm wavelengths. |
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Definition
- photoreceptors
- 400 - 700 |
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Term
The wall of the eyeball consists of __ layers or tunics. What are their names? Describe them. |
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Definition
- 3
1. Fibrous tunic - outer layer composed of sclera (white) and cornea (transparent epithelium protecting the front of the eye)
2. Vascular tunic - uvea is the middle layer and composed of the choroid, the ciliary body, and the iris
3. Nervous tunic - inner retinal layer |
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Term
These sensory receptors are named according to mode of activation and are responsible for response to painful stimuli. |
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Definition
- Nociceptors
- Chemoreceptive free nerve endings activated by tissue damage from intense thermal, mechanical, or chemical stimuli |
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Term
Any motor neuron that is not directly responsible for stimulating target muscles is called an ________. |
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Definition
- upper motor neuron (UMN)
- UMNs connect the brain to the appropriate level in the spinal cord |
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Term
________ descend to innervate skeletal muscle. One of the two major spinocerebellar tracts. Provide output from the CNS to skeletal muscle fibers, they are also called the final common pathway. |
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Definition
- Lower motor neurons (LMNs) |
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