Term
Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control gov't contracting?
Enabling Act, procedural acts, and permissive acts
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriation acts
Enabling and procedural acts, Authorization and appropiations acts.
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Definition
Enabling and procedural acts, Authorization and appropiations acts. |
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Term
What agency's objective is it to provide aid and counseling to small business?
Department of Labor
General Services Administration
Small Business Administration
Committee for Purchase from the Blind |
|
Definition
Small Business Administration |
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Term
Which party is the contractor?
Agent
Principal
Third Party
Agent and Third Party |
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Definition
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Term
what are the two categories of actual authority
implied and assumed
implied and apparent
express and implied
express and apparent |
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Definition
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Term
When gov't personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better ________
that neither party should suffer from the mistakes
that the government should suffer from the mistakes
for an individual to occasionally suffer from mistakes
that the individual and the government share the suffering from the mistakes
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Definition
for an individual to occasionally suffer from mistakes |
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Term
Who is responsible for ascerting whether the govt agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?
The CO
The government
the contractor
the agent
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Definition
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Term
the elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except?
the goverment knew or should have known the true facts
contractor DID NOT know and should have known the true facts
government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government
the contractor DID NOT reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the govt
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Definition
the contractor DID NOT reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the govt |
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Term
Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of______
whether the government acted in the public's interest
Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently
who would otherwis have had authority to release the information
whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action |
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Definition
Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently |
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Term
A CO appointment must be reviewed at least ______.
Annually
every two years
every five years
when requested by the appointing authority
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Definition
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Term
Which statement concerning the COs appointment or termination is true?
In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive
The termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the govt best interest
There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection criteria
Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless the Certificate of Appointment contains a provision for automatice termination |
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Definition
In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive |
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Term
Which statement about the offeree is correct?
The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept
The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specifice offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested
The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person
Only the intended offeree can accept the offer. |
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Definition
Only the intended offeree can accept the offer. |
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Term
Which statement about an offer is correct?
It is not enough that only the essential terms of the contract are certain
Every term in the offer must be absolutely certain to each party of the contract
the offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain
You cannot enter a contract with the price implied to be a "reasonable price at the time of delivery." |
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Definition
the offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain |
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Term
An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called?
cancellation
termination
revocation
breach of contract |
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Definition
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Term
Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?
If the time, place, & means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance
The offer cannot dicatate the place or manner of acceptance
Acceptance must be communicated the the US mail
Acceptance must be in writing
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Definition
If the time, place, & means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance |
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Term
what name is given to the exchange of promises?
Sufficiency
Detriment
Acceptance
consideration
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Definition
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Term
what is meant by adequate consideration?
The actual worth or promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit
The consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform
Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment
the consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain |
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Definition
the consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain |
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Term
What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?
Having unsound mind
Ensuring business is not conducted with minors
Having the ability to recognize defective corporations
Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound |
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Definition
Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound |
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Term
Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?
A 23 year old car salesperson
a 17 year old college student
A 25 year old intoxicated person
A 50 year old patient in a mental institution |
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Definition
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Term
as a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is______.
lawful if not challenged w/in 120 days
lawful only to the party who made the offer
unlawful & void; will not be enforced
unlawful but may be enforced under some situations |
|
Definition
unlawful & void; will not be enforced |
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Term
Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when _______.
the agreement concerns minor crimes
only a portion of the contract was illegal
the agreement was made to restrain trade
the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect
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|
Definition
the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect |
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Term
Which situation would preclude a ratification?
Gov't not obtaining a benefit from the performance
A CO determining the price to be fair and reasonable
CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs
Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made
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Definition
Gov't not obtaining a benefit from the performance |
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Term
what action my be taken for a non-ratifiable commitment?
Process of claim under the Disputes Act
Request of a no-cost settlement from the contractor
Charge to the individualwho committed the unauthorized commitment
Resolution by the GAO claim procedures |
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Definition
Resolution by the GAO claim procedures |
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|
Term
What publication series represents Contracting
62
63
64
65 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilites of positions withing the operational contracting squadron?
AFI 38-101
AFI 64-102
AFI 65-109
AFPD 64-1 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The FAR is issued under the joint authority of the ________.
Administrator of General Services, SECDEF, Adminisatrator of NASA
Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, The Administrator of NASA
Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, The SECDEF
SECDEF, The Administrator of NASA, and the National Security Coucil
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|
Definition
Administrator of General Services, SECDEF, Adminisatrator of NASA |
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Term
What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
DAR Council and the Natinoal Security Acquisition Council
DAR council and the CAA council
General Council and the National Security Acquisition Council
General Council and the CAA coucil |
|
Definition
DAR council and the CAA council |
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|
Term
What is meant by implementing the FAR?
Adding material that is unique to the Air Force
Adding material that is unique to the DoD
Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in the FAR
Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with its FAR counterparts |
|
Definition
Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in the FAR |
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Term
Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?
219.502-2
219.502-2-70
5319.502-2
5319.502-70 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
DFARS is updated_____
Daily
Monthly
Quarterly
DAR council and the CAA council |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as ________.
the supplementing regulation
the negotiating authority
rulings
precedents
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?
Federal Register
Federal Acquisitions Circular
Defense Acquisitions Circular
DFARS Appendix A
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Definition
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Term
A government action may be protested by ______.
the next low bidder
an interested party
all responsible bidders
the next low small business bidder |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?
15
30
45
60 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within 5 days after a debriefing date, the CO immediately ________.
begins consolidating a complete report
provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor
Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract
Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation
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Definition
Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract |
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Term
How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of the protest is known, or should have been known?
NLT 10 days
NLT 30 days
within 1 yr
up to six years |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?
30
45
100
120 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What action may the contractor take when a disput cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?
Submit a claim under the default clause
Submit a claim under the disputes clause
File a claim with the US Court of Federal Appeals
File a claim with ASBCA |
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Definition
Submit a claim under the disputes clause |
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Term
Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within ______
30 days after accrual of claim
180 days after accrual of claim
two years after accrual of claim
six years after accrual of claim |
|
Definition
six years after accrual of claim |
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Term
Who is responsible for reviewing the Contracting Officer's final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?
functional area chief
US court of federal claims
AFMC law center
Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals
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Definition
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|
Term
If the CO decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?
With final contract payment
With the next scheduled contract payment
As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal
As soon as possible without waiting for appeal |
|
Definition
As soon as possible without waiting for appeal |
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Term
How long after the Contracting Officer's final decision does the contractor have to appeal the the ASBCA?
90 days from receipt of the contracting officer's decision
180 days from receipt of the contracting officer's decision
six months from the date of the contracting officer's decision
12 months from the date of the contracting officer's decision |
|
Definition
90 days from receipt of the contracting officer's final decision |
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Term
Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the CO must comply with rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in ________.
AFFARS Appendix AA
DFARS Appendix A
AFFARS Appendix CC
DFARS Appendix C
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Definition
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|
Term
Two techniques of ADR are ________.
mitigation and controversy hearings
mediation and controversy hearings
mitigation and arbritration
mediation and arbitration
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Definition
mediation and arbitration |
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Term
Which government requirement is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used?
Procurement Act
Anti-Deficiency Act
Bona fide Needs Rule
Misappropriations Act
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Definition
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|
Term
What act is violated when an organizatoin obligates more funds than are available?
Procurement Act
Anti-Deficiency Act
Misappropriations Act
Continuing Appropriations Act
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Definition
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Term
The Bona Fide need rule requires current year funds be obligated _____________.
prior to expiration of the funds
as necessary to meet mission requirements
for the purpose the funds are authorized for
in the same year the govt will use the supplies or services
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Definition
in the same year the govt will use the supplies or services |
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Term
O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
No year
Annual
Continuing
Multiple year |
|
Definition
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|
Term
NAF's are generated through ________
Appropriations Act
Taxpayer dollars
Enabling and Procedural Acts
Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities
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Definition
Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities |
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Term
Who directs the overall operation of NAF services and facilites at an installation?
MSG CC
FSS CC
Cons CC
NAF CO |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What FAR part determins whether to include contract financing through progress payments?
Part 30
Part 31
Part 32
Part 33 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The aggregate of commercial advance payment cannot exceed what amount of the contract price?
10%
15%
20%
25% |
|
Definition
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Term
Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectivelly meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs?
Contracting Squadron Commander
Director of Business Operations
Plans and Programs flight chief
Contracting Superinendent |
|
Definition
Contracting Squadron Commander |
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Term
Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic, and other public policy programs?
Management analysis and support flight chief
Contracting SQ CC
Director of Business Operations
Contracting Superintendent
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|
Definition
Director of Business Operations |
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Term
Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?
Advising the commander on enlisted issues
Managing the Self-inspection program
Appointing COs
Military career advisor
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|
Definition
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Term
A Contracting Officer's responsiblity includes _______.
entering funding documents into ABSS
ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment
developing requirements for customers
approving improper invoices
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|
Definition
ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment |
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Term
Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?
Contractor
Customer
Contracting Officer
Contract Specialist
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the purpose of the customer education program?
Develop open lines of communication
Increase quantity of contract requirements
Ensure customers follow the chain of command
Teach how to get started as a goverment contractor |
|
Definition
Develop open lines of communication |
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Term
Which of the following topics is used for customer education activities?
Federal Wage Rates
Avoiding wasteful spending
Variations in appropriations
Providing suggested sources
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Definition
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|
Term
The prompt payment act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within ______
30 days of acceptance by the government
60 days of acceptance by the government
14 days from receipt of a proper invoice
45 days from receipt of a proper invoice
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Definition
30 days of acceptance by the government |
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Term
What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?
Pre Award Orientation
Pre Award debriefing
Post Award Orientation
Post Award debriefing
|
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Definition
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|
Term
What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?
6C031
6C051
6C061
6C091 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?
Self Inspection Program
Weekly staff meeting
Quality Indicators
Peer reviews
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|
Definition
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|
Term
What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting in the wrong hands?
ID
OPSEC
EM
AT/FP
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the definition of a classified contract?
Any contract document established for a classified contract
Any contract document that incudes nonclassified information
Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.
Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the customer in the performance of the contract. |
|
Definition
Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract. |
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|
Term
Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?
Unit Safety Monitor
Unit Commander
All Personnel
Supervisors
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who must comply with OSHA requirements?
Contractors only
Govt employees only
Construction personnel only
Contractors and Govt employees |
|
Definition
Contractors and Govt employees |
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Term
What document must contractors and vendors submit when theysupply hazardous material to the govt?
Material Safety Data Sheet
Proof of Liability for potential hazards
Material Shipping Document Sheet |
|
Definition
Material Safety Data Sheet |
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|
Term
Products or Services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as ________
Recycled Materials
Recovered Materials
Environmentally Friendly
Environmentally Perferrable
|
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Definition
Environmentally Perferrable |
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|
Term
The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased ________.
For use in United States
Specifically for commissary resale
at a reasonable price from a domestic source
when the CO determines that domestic preference would be in the public's interest
|
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Definition
Specifically for commissary resale |
|
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Term
What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the non-qualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the duty free clause?
Award the contract at the offered price plus the amount of duty
Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty
Withold award of the contract until certificate of exemption is received
Withold award of the contract until additional funds are verified
|
|
Definition
Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty |
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Term
Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firm-fixed price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance?
Firm-Fixed-Price
Fixed price with economic price adjustment
fixed price with prospective price determination
fixed-ceiling-price with retroactive price redetermination |
|
Definition
fixed price with prospective price determination |
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Term
Incentive contracts are appropriate when the __________.
Contractor requests it
contractor refuses a fixed-price contract
firm-fixed price is not appropriate
govt cannot otherwise provide an accurate estimate |
|
Definition
firm-fixed price is not appropriate |
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Term
What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?
Cost, price, and performance
Cost, delivery, and performance
Price, performance, and delivery
Cost, performance, and financial capability
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|
Definition
Cost, delivery, and performance |
|
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Term
Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas?
United-incentive arrangement
Multiple incentive arrangement
Combined-incentive arrangment
Multi-faceted incentive arrangement
|
|
Definition
Multiple incentive arrangement |
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Term
When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed price contracts because it cannot objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using _________.
fixed-fee provision
award-fee provisions
incentive fee provisions
indefinite fee provision |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?
Letter Contract
Urgent Contract
Unpriced purchase order
BPA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on a direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is __________.
Labor hour
indefinite deliver
time and materials
fixed price with EPA |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for cost-control or labor efficiency?
Labor Hour
Indefinite deliver
time and materials
fixed-price with EPA |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?
Fixed price
Labor hours
Letter contract
Cost Reimbursement
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
the purpose of the simplified acquisition procedure is to ___________.
promote full and open competition
promote inefficiencies in govt contracting
ease the process of acquiring goods and services through interservice acquisitions
reduce admin costs and admin burden on the contractor |
|
Definition
reduce admin costs and admin burden on the contractor |
|
|
Term
Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on the _________.
30
252
1442
1449 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When may a contractor be issued a GPC?
When purchases will be made against a Federal Supply Schedule
When working under a personal services contract
For official use only
Never |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The micro purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is ______.
$3,000
$15,0000
$25,000
$30,000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An SF44 may be used when?
supplies must be backordered
a single delivery and a single payment will be made
other simplified acquisitions are more appropriate
Purchase exceeds the SAT during contingency ops
|
|
Definition
Single Delivery, Single payment |
|
|
Term
Performance based acquisitions ____________.
directs specific performance processes
allow contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives
allows contractors the ability to perform without govt oversight
directs general performance processes with minimal government oversight |
|
Definition
allow contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives |
|
|
Term
Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when __________.
time permits
the award will be made on the basis of price
it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors
there is reasonable expectations of receiving more than one bid
|
|
Definition
it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors |
|
|
Term
What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost element such as overhead and G&A expenses?
taxes
Profit
Coefficients
Design Costs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A SABER contract ________.
is used to compensate for inadequate planning
is a "catch all" for construction requirements
Can be used to acquire engineering services
Complements the tradtional construction program |
|
Definition
Complements the tradtional construction program |
|
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Term
Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a liscensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as ___________.
value engineering contracts
professional service contracts
A-E service contracts
engineering design services contracts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the statutory limitation on the contract for A-E services for the preparation of designes, plans, drawings, and specifications?
six percent of the cost of the design phase
12 percent of the cost of the design phase
6% of projects estimated cost to complete construction
12% of projects estimated cost to complete construction |
|
Definition
6% of projects estimated cost to complete construction |
|
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Term
What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that the construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation?
Design in Phase clause
Statutory Limitations clause
Design within funding limitations clause
Design within statutory limitations clause
|
|
Definition
Design within funding limitations clause |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?
obligates the govty
cites accounting information
does not include terms and conditions
establishes the ground work for future contracts |
|
Definition
establishes the ground work for future contracts |
|
|
Term
The government can exercise its right to the option period ______________.
without providing notice to the customer
after the contractor has completed the base year
without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor
anytime the CO determines it to be in the govt's interest |
|
Definition
without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor |
|
|
Term
Benefits of options include increased __________.
prices
competition
Administration
acquisition lead time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of contracting instrument would have the letter M in the ninth position of the PIIN?
Automated request for quotation
Manual Request for Information
Automated purchase order
Manual purchase order
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Solicitation types using the letter R in the PIIN represent
an IFB
a RFP
Request for Proposal
An automated RFQ
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The commercial contract format uses the SF _______.
SF26
SF33
SF1447
SF1449 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When using the Uniform Contract Format, which section title would you find under Part I-The Schedule?
Contract Clauses
Evaluation factors for award
Contract Administration Data
List of documents, exhibits, and other attachments
|
|
Definition
Contract Administration Data |
|
|
Term
When using the Uniform Contract Format, you include lengthy specs in section _____.
Section B
Section D
Section H
Section J |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When using the Uniform Contract Format, which section contains evaluation factors for award?
Section G
Section H
Section L
Section M |
|
Definition
|
|