By integrating joint forces, we are able to rapidly and efficiently exploit what attributes of the adversary?

a. Mission necessities.

b. Governing directives.

c. Critical vulnerabilities.

d. Distinctive capabilities.

Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in all of these values except

a. having a joint perspective.

b. conducting force shaping training.

c. applying strategic and operational art.

d. thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities.

Which is not a value that has special impact on the conduct of joint operations?

a. Integrity.

b. Competency.

c. Physical courage.

d. Excellence in all we do.

d. Excellence in all we do.

Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?

a. Integration.

b. Coordination.

c. Familiarization.

d. Synchronization.

The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of these except

a. control.

b. planning.

c. authority.

d. direction.

The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned

a geographic

a. deputy commander.

b. assistant commander.

c. area of responsibility (AOR).

d. temporary duty (TDY) location.

Which is not a unified combatant command?

a. United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).

b. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).

c. United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).

d. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

Unity of command means that all forces operate under

a. a single commander.

b. a joint force commander.

c. the secretary of the Army.

d. the secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

Major commands (MAJCOM) report directly to

a. the base commander.

b. headquarters, USAF (HQ USAF).

c. the secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

d. the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Which major command (MAJCOM) delivers war-winning expeditionary capabilities to the warfighter through development and transition of technology?

a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

b. US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).

c. Pacific Air Forces (PACAF).

d. Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSPC).

Before you implement a new personnel policy, procedure, or program, you must receive approval from the

a. MAJCOM/USAF.

b. appropriate level.

c. CJS/SECAF.

d. POTUS/CSAF.

The architecture of the base-level authorizations was dispersed between the

a. military personnel flight (MPF) and military personnel section (MPS).

b. MPF and commander’s support staff (CSS).

c. MPF and geographically separated unit (GSU).

d. MPS and CSS.

What authorizations were reduced during program budget decision (PBD) 720 to save money?

a. Programs.

b. Manpower.

c. Equipment.

d. Additional duties.

Program budget decision (PBD) 720 introduced the need for an immediate Air Force interim solution to enable the reduced personnel service providers at the base level to deliver quality service to meet our strategic delivery goal. What was that Air Force interim solution?

a. Program implementation review team (PIRT).

b. Personnel service delivery memorandum (PSDM).

c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

d. Automated records management system (ARMS).

Which is not one of the three main components of the base-level service delivery model (BLSDM)?

a. A new organizational structure composed of existing military personnel flight (MPF) and centralized commander support staff (CSS) personnel.

b. Personnel assets that provide efficient base-level service through a learning organization.

c. Decentralized CSS with the ability to provide fully trained personnelists within the existing MPF.

d. An information technology (IT) solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs.

Manpower, Personnel, and Services (MP&S) structures were not organized to

a. reduce overhead.

b. minimize overtime.

c. achieve efficiencies.

d. maximize customer service.

What was the goal during Phase I of the force support squadron (FSS) transformation?

a. Integrate as many flights as possible into the mission support squadron (MSS).

b. Consolidate seven flights into five while maintaining efficiency and maximizing customer service.

c. Consolidate seven flights into four with fewer personnel, while still expecting excellent customer service.

d. Increase the number of personnel in the FSS.

Which element is not part of the new military personnel section (MPS) structure?

a. Customer support.

b. Career development.

c. Career enhancement.

d. Force management operations.

The five flights of the Force Support Squadron (FSS) include Force Development, Manpower and Personnel, Airman and Family Services, Sustainment Services, and

a. Mortuary Services.

b. Career Development.

c. Resource Management.

d. Community Services.

d. Community Services.

How did the implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720, affect the structure of the commander’s support staff (CSS)?

a. The CSS disbanded.

b. The CSS was consolidated into a single organization.

c. The CSS was divided into 2 parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel flight (MPF).

d. The CSS was divided into 2 parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel section (MPS).

The standardized force support squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all of these flights except

a. force management.

b. force development.

c. sustainment services.

d. community services.

Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC) stood up, when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted

a. numbered Air Force (NAF) staff.

b. major command (MAJCOM) personnel.

c. the military personnel section chief.

d. the manpower and personnel flight commander.

If you are in the rank of E–7 or above and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, the person you speak with will

a. place a trouble ticket into the system with your name and your question attached to a subject matter expert (SME).

b. take a message and call you back within 12 hours.

c. take a message and call you back within 48 hours.

d. locate and connect you to a SME to answer your question.

d. locate and connect you to a SME to answer your question.

Which group is not serviced by military personnel section (MPS) personnelists?

a. Air Force retirees.

b. Air Force dependents.

c. Air Force active duty members.

d. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.

d. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.

What area is the focal point for the translation of all military personnel policies and programs into individual actions affecting people?

a. Customer support element.

b. Career enhancement element.

c. Military personnel section (MPS).

d. Commander’s support staff (CSS).

The difference between the new concept of the military personnel section (MPS) and the old concept of the military personnel flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks,

a. the base training manager will assist the personnelist.

b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in his or her area.

c. manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task.

d. each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks.

On average, in-house training should be held how many times per week?

a. Once.

b. Twice.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Who assures training is accomplished and decides which training will be taught in the military personnel section (MPS)?

a. MPS chief or designated representative.

b. Force support squadron (FSS) commander.

c. NCOICs from each section.

d. MPS commander.

Once program budget decision (PBD) 720 was implemented, many of the daily operations of the commander’s support staff (CSS) were

a. dissolved.

b. streamlined.

c. reassigned to individuals within the squadron.

d. reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies.

Which personnel action is not required to be completed by individuals in the commander’s support staff (CSS)?

a. Allocation notices.

b. Performance feedback notices.

c. Enlisted/officer performance report on individual personnel (RIP).

d. Rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies.

d. Rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies.

The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for activities within the

a. geographically separated unit (GSU) and satellite personnel activity (SPA).

b. customer service element and force management operations element.

c. commander’s support staff (CSS) and customer service element.

d. GSU and total force service center (TFSC).

Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the satellite personnel activity (SPA)?

a. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

b. Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander.

c. Host military personnel section (MPS) commander.

d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) commander.

An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a

a. listing of experience needed to qualify for position.

b. grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications.

c. listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position.

d. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.

d. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.

Where can you find the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty?

a. Recruiter’s Directory.

b. Enlisted Classification Directory.

c. Enlisted Force Structure Directory.

d. Retraining Classification Directory.

The item within the classification structure used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified is the

a. reporting identifier.

b. special duty.

c. Air Force specialty code.

d. special experience.

If an Airman fails to progress in training due to reading and comprehension, how would the Airman be disqualified within the classification structure?

a. Within reasons beyond their control.

b. Within reasons within their control.

c. Drug and alcohol involvement.

d. Substandard duty performance.

Which is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member’s control?

a. A medical condition.

b. Loss of security clearance.

c. Drug or alcohol involvement.

d. Failure to progress in training.

What is not a duty of the personnelist career field?

a. Performs personnel actions.

b. Creates, maintains, and audits personnel records.

c. Conducts interviews to determine individual interests.

d. Advises officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs.

Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to

a. administer the casualty program.

b. update computerized personnel data.

c. oversee personnel activities and functions.

d. record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records.

The National Security Act of 1974 established all of the military departments except

a. Air Force

b. Marines.

c. Navy.

d. Army.

Which office prepares and distributes the unit manpower document (UMD)?

a. Career development.

b. Force support squadron.

c. Manpower office.

d. Airman and family readiness.

How often is the unit manpower document (UMD) used?

a. Daily.

b. Weekly.

c. Monthly.

d. Annually.

Who publicizes availability of the Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalog (EPRRC)?

a. Commander’s support staff.

b. Military personnel section admin.

c. Force support squadron secretary.

d. Military support group staff.

The commander’s support staff (CSS) is responsible to assist unit personnel with all of these Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) requirements except

a. identifying reference requirements.

b. printing out and distributing Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalogs (EPRRC) to all individuals.

c. obtaining study reference materials such as career development courses (CDC) and the Airman Handbook.

d. ensuring availability of non-CDC reference materials.

Leave accrues at how many days per calendar month?

a. 1.5.

b. 2.5.

c. .5.

d. 3.0.

Leave must begin and end where?

a. Local area.

b. Home of record.

c. Base.

d. Work.

Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset the cost for a member’s

a. clothing allowance.

b. health insurance.

c. electric bill.

d. meals.

d. meals.

The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?

a. Food and housing requirements.

b. Room and laundry services.

c. Rations and transportation.

d. Room and board.

d. Room and board.

What is furnished to enlisted personnel at government expense as essential station messing (ESM)?

a. Food.

b. Clothing.

c. Housing.

d. Cleaning supplies.

What is an Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)-standardized managed computer support system that effectively executes formal training across the Air Force?

a. Orders processing application (OPA).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

d. Oracle training administration (OTA).

d. Oracle training administration (OTA).

Oracle training administration (OTA) is the source of record for all Air Force

a. professional military education (PME) and formal training.

b. temporary duty (TDY).

c. leave.

d. upgrade training.

A training line number (TLN) is

a. an 8-character number that identifies where the projected training will take place.

b. a 10-character number that is used repeatedly by the same student for every training class.

c. an 8-character number that identifies the beginning and ending dates of the projected training.

d. a 10-character number associated with a specific student projected for or completed training.

d. a 10-character number associated with a specific student projected for or completed training.

What do the first two positions of a training line number (TLN) identify?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).

b. Base.

c. Fiscal year (FY).

d. Unit.

Six-year enlistees applying for retraining may apply the first duty day of the month when completing how many months of their current enlistment?

a. 57.

b. 59.

c. 61.

d. 63.

US documents that contain foreign government information (FGI) are marked on the

a. front cover only.

b. front cover or first page.

c. middle of the front cover.

d. front cover or back cover.

When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance. Which standard form (SF) cover sheets can be placed on all documents?

a. SF 701, SF 702, SF 703.

b. SF 701, SF 703, SF 704.

c. SF 702, SF 703, SF 704.

d. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.

d. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.

When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief executes these actions except

a. initiates a security incident report.

b. denies the individual access to classified information.

c. initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

a. The material may get confiscated.

b. You will bring attention to yourself.

c. The foreign government may want to take it from you.

d. The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

If you require assistance when assessing the risks of hand carrying sensitive material, what agency can you contact?

a. Secret service.

b. Security forces (SF).

c. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).

d. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

d. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must perform all of these requirements except

a. password protect laptops.

b. remove hard drives and place them in a separate bag before transporting.

c. mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1–R, DOD Information Security Program.

d. keep laptops and disks containing classified information under constant surveillance.

Documentation is not required for hand carrying classified material to activities

a. in off base buildings.

b. during non-duty days.

c. within an installation.

d. during duty hours.

Who is responsible for reinforcing the importance of safeguarding personal information (PII)?

a. Unit commander.

b. First shirt.

c. Immediate supervisor.

d. Wing commander.

Release of personal information (PII) to third parties is appropriate when the subject

a. is considering civilian employment.

b. agrees over the telephone.

c. is under investigation.

d. agrees in writing.

d. agrees in writing.

What is one of the critical customer service techniques?

a. First impression.

b. Good memory skills.

c. Problem resolution.

d. Personnel management.

When dealing with customers on a daily basis, directly or indirectly, what ability is considered a valuable asset?

a. Document missed phone calls for others.

b. Communicate with others.

c. File source documents.

d. Keep your area clean.

How many months’ minimum time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?

a. 0.

b. 6.

c. 12.

d. 24.

How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?

a. One.

b. Three.

c. Five.

d. Eight.

To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?

a. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.

b. The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.

c. A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements.

d. The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.

Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests that usually warrant approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

a. Problems associated with child care arrangement.

b. The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.

c. The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.

d. A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.

The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed

a. prior to purchasing a plane ticket.

b. prior to final out-processing.

c. prior to scheduling TMO pick-up.

d. three weeks after they receive the relocation notification.

Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?

a. AF Form 100.

b. AF Form 973.

c. DD Form 1610.

d. AF Form 899.

An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet these requirements except

a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.

b. a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.

c. the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.

d. a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request.

What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?

a. Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.

b. Decide on which member gets to stay and which member has to leave.

c. Opportunity to stay at any base of your preference.

d. Decline orders if you don’t like the assignment.

If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he or she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?

a. Critical.

b. Restricted.

c. Controlled.

d. Responsible.

Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Article 15?

a. 10.

b. 12.

c. 14.

d. 16.

Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?

a. J.

b. K.

c. L.

d. M.

If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to the member’s bonus eligibility?

a. Member is not eligible.

b. Eligible after reclassification.

c. Eligible after completing six months.

d. Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount.

What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?

a. 3-skill, GS–3.

b. 5-skill, GS–5.

c. 7-skill, GS–7.

d. 9-skill, GS–9.

The virtual out-processing (vOP) is designed to allow Airman to out-process their unit and task organizations without having to visit each office due to these reasons except

a. reassignment.

b. retirement.

c. separation.

d. emergency leave.

Whose responsibility is it to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies?

a. Member.

b. Supervisor.

c. First shirt.

d. Squadron commander.

When does the career development element (CDE) create a relocation folder due to a member’s separation?

a. Upon notification of an approved separation.

b. When a member first received notification.

c. 90 days before separation date.

d. 30 days before separation date.

Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?

a. 973.

b. 100.

c. 907.

d. 899.

Who prepares the AF Form 100?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).

b. Wing command personnel.

c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

d. Squadron command staff.

Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?

a. DD Form 214.

b. DD Form 899.

c. AF Form 910.

d. AF Form 911.

Whose responsibility is to ensure that members’ records are current and up-to-date?

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

b. Military personnel section (MPS).

c. Service member.

d. Supervisor.

At least how many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

Which agency is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end-of-month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?

a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

b. Major command (MAJCOM).

c. Total force service center (TFSC).

d. Personnel systems management (PSM) section.

Which integrated subsystem does the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.

d. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s date of original grade?

a. 1 and 3.

b. 3 and 6.

c. 6 and 12.

d. 12 and 18.

The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification?

a. Third.

b. Fourth.

c. Fifth.

d. Sixth.

Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?

a. Absent without leave (AWOL).

b. Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.

c. Declined promotion testing.

d. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).

Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?

a. Absent without leave (AWOL).

b. Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.

c. Declined promotion testing.

d. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).

Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions?

a. Personnel Concept III (PC-III).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

d. Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES).

The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) that are

a. highly qualified.

b. experienced.

c. proficient.

d. on-time.

Airmen may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are ineligible due to all of these reasons except

a. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) not commensurate with grade.

b. Ten or more days lost time.

c. Civil court conviction.

d. Insufficient grade.

When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, which code is updated in the personnel data system?

a. 1R.

b. 2X.

c. 3C.

d. 4E.

When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?

a. Date of original entry on active duty.

b. Date entered into delayed enlistment.

c. Date completed basic military training.

d. Date agreed to sign up for active duty.

Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but elects separation?

a. 1A.

b. 1J.

c. 1K.

d. 1M.

Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member’s reenlistment?

a. 2A.

b. 2B.

c. 2F.

d. 2G.

What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?

a. 15.

b. 30.

c. 45.

d. 60.

First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration?

a. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).

b. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).

c. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).

d. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).

An Airman cannot reenlist in their current Air Force specialty code (AFSC) if a Career Job Reservation (CJR) has not been approved by how many months prior to their date of separation (DOS)?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?

a. Critical.

b. Balanced.

c. Overmanned.

d. Undermanned.

What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?

a. $30,000.

b. $60,000.

c. $75,000.

d. $90,000.

The career status bonus (CSB) election is effective the date the Airman reaches how many years of service?

a. 13.

b. 14.

c. 15.

d. 16.

The Customer Support Element (CSE) normally disposes of the clearance file within how many days after the member’s report not later than date (RNLTD)?

a. 120.

b. 90.

c. 60.

d. 30.

The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to

a. ensure accurate input of current data before the Airman arrives.

b. assist the military personnel section (MPS) in creating valid position numbers.

c. outline the MPS in-processing requirements.

d. help Defense Finance Accounting Service (DFAS) determine pay transactions.

Which form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?

a. AF IMT 63.

b. AF Form 899.

c. AF IMT 330.

d. AF IMT 2096.

Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are

a. kept by the member and used for future travel overseas.

b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

c. collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. destroyed by the member.

Confirmation of an accession’s arrival to the permanent duty station affects which type of accountability?

a. Strength.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Unit.

The Individualized Newcomers Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) program does not provide Airman relocating to a new assignment with information on

a. housing.

b. household goods weight limitations.

c. training for new job skills.

d. concurrent and noncurrent travel for family members.

Which item is not provided by the sponsor prior to the newcomer’s arrival?

a. Travel voucher template.

b. Welcome letters.

c. City map.

d. Base guide.

Guard and reserve personnel qualify for military benefits when they are activated for a period in excess of how many days?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 120.

To avoid fraud, most customer support elements require how many forms of identification before processing an ID card?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. None.

If the member is a civilian employee, what documentation is required to get an ID card?

a. AF Form 899.

b. DD Form 363.

c. SF Form 50.

d. DD Form 214.

Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?

a. Verifying official (VO).

b. Military personnel specialist.

c. Military member.

d. Supervisor.

Any questionable data with Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) must be resolved with the

a. member.

b. supervisor.

c. verifying official (VO).

d. superintendent.

Additions, such as family member data, dependent eligibility, and residential addresses must be reported to Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) within how many days?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 75.

Within how many days must members retrieve and surrender an ID card from dependents who are longer eligible to the nearest card issuing activity?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

Family Member Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to insurable

a. spouses only.

b. children only.

c. parents of sponsor.

d. spouses and children.

Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI) policy is renewable regardless of

a. geographic location.

b. branch of service.

c. health.

d. age.

What is the maximum allowed coverage for Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI)?

a. $400,000.

b. $450,000.

c. $500,000.

d. $550,000.

When a member is covered under full time Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI), the member’s Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) coverage is

a. covered for only 120 days at a time.

b. covered only if they have a spouse.

c. full time as well.

d. not covered at all.

For foreign adoptions, all requested documentation must be submitted to Defense Finance and Accounting System (DFAS) within how many calendar days of the request?

a. 60.

b. 75.

c. 90.

d. 120.

A line-of-duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and the

a. member.

b. squadron.

c. dependents.

d. military installation.

You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at any of these locations except

a. Air Force military personnel section.

b. most veterans’ service organization.

c. Air Force Review Boards office.

d. Finance Services office.

The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for

a. E5 and E6.

b. officers only.

c. E1 through E4 only.

d. all active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events.

Officers usually serve indefinite active duty tours by appointment of the president. If the officer requests release or discharge from their appointment, it is approved by the

a. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

b. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF).

c. wing commander.

d. unit commander.

Passports are provided by the government at whose expense?

a. The state in which they pay taxes.

b. Member and government.

c. Government.

d. Member.

Which is not a reason for downgrade/withdrawal of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC), special duty identifier (SDI), reporting identifier (RI), or chief enlisted manager (CEM) code?

a. Inability to perform at skill/qualification level.

b. Lack of recent job performance.

c. Reduction/demotion in grade.

d. Commander’s preference.

At which grade will commanders initiate withdrawal action when a member is unable to perform tasks associated with his or her skill/qualification level?

a. Only officers.

b. Only enlisted.

c. Officers or enlisted.

d. E1 – E6 only.

The purpose of the Air Force classification system is to identify job requirements and the personnel who are

a. available.

b. unqualified.

c. qualified.

d. available and qualified.

What is the first character of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that is associated with medical or dental?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

What is the three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?

a. Special experience identifier (SEI).

b. Rules of engagement (ROE).

c. Unit line number (ULN).

d. Course of action (COA).

Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who

a. are looking for a new assignment that does not require extensive technical knowledge in any field.

b. are wanting to gain specialized experience in a new field and need extensive training.

c. already have the experience to meet assignment requirements.

d. do not have experience, but can fill the critical manning requirement with training.

The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating the following data except?

a. Report identifiers (RI).

b. Special experience identifiers (SEI).

c. Special duty identifiers (SDI).

d. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores.

Reporting identifiers normally describe conditions rather than

a. duties.

b. specialty.

c. qualification.

d. special duty assignment.

To ensure a member is qualified for a special duty assignment pay (SDAP), the unit commander

a. delegates his or her authority to identify members who are qualified and eligible.

b. counsels unit members on changes in SDAP ratings and initiates and certifies the changes.

c. produces the monthly SDAP roster and sends it to the wing commander for certification.

d. announces the date when SDAP decreases or ends.

On the unit personnel manning roster (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Within the military personnel section (MPS), who is responsible for managing the unit personnel management roster (UPMR)?

a. Customer service.

b. Customer support element.

c. Career development element.

d. Force management operations element.

Which form is used to track all permanent change of assignment (PCA) moves?

a. AF IMT 2096.

b. DD Form 2096.

c. AETCI 2096.

d. SF Form 2096.

When an inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) occurs, what action does the military personnel section (MPS) complete?

a. Forwards the AF IMT 2096 to the losing unit commander.

b. Initiates the PCA actions with information provided by the gaining unit.

c. Updates the duty information in Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

d. Notifies the finance office that funds are needed.

The Air Force Strength Accounting Duty Status Program (SADSP) duty status information is used to assist commanders with all of these except

a. allow the selection for assignment of deployed personnel who are non-volunteers for assignment.

b. document the utilization of Guard and Reserve personnel, which affects man-day funding.

c. identify personnel who are projected to deploy or already deployed to support combatant commander requirements.

d. identify the availability of personnel to meet combatant commander requirements.

Award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual’s

a. grade.

b. retirement.

c. reassignment.

d. level of responsibility and manner of performance.

A control roster (CR) provides an observation period for how many months?

a. 3.

b. 6.

c. 9.

d. 12.

Which form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action?

a. SF 1058.

b. DD Form 1058.

c. AETCI 1058.

d. AF IMT 1058.

Who may impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) on members of their command for minor offenses?

a. First sergeant.

b. Any commissioned officer.

c. Commanders who are commissioned officers.

d. Any military member with a higher rank than the member who committed the minor offense.

When issuing letter of admonition (LOA) actions, commanders should use the "preponderance of the evidence" standard, which means

a. the evidence of the allegation is beyond a reasonable doubt.

b. one-third of credible evidence points to the offense committed.

c. less than 50 percent of the credible evidence points to the offense committed.

d. the greater weight of credible evidence points to the offense committed.

When establishing an unfavorable information file (UIF), which side(s) of the folder do you mark with "For Official Use Only"?

a. Front and back.

b. Inside the folder.

c. Back only.

d. Front only.

Who is responsible for the accuracy and validity of unfavorable information file (UIF) data?

a. Commander.

b. Supervisor.

c. Military personnel section (MPS).

d. Both supervisor and commander.

Which unfavorable information file (UIF) code is used to update Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) when a member has a UIF only?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

One purpose of the officer and enlisted evaluation systems is to provide a

a. program that consolidates all enlisted performance reports (EPR) and officer performance reports (OPR) so the commander can see, at a glance, who is best suited for promotion.

b. reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance.

c. way for Airmen to submit an appeal to remove a letter of admonition (LOA) from their file.

d. means to punish individuals by deflating ratings.

Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for AB–TSgt?

a. 931.

b. 932.

c. 724A.

d. 724B.

Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for 2LT - CAPT?

a. 931.

b. 932.

c. 724A.

d. 724B.

What system is used for active duty Airmen seeking correction to, or removal of, an evaluation report?

a. Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS).

b. Case Management System (CMS).

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

What date is used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for long overseas tours?

a. Short tour return date.

b. Long tour return date.

c. Overseas duty selection date.

d. Total active federal military service date.

Long tours can be accompanied or unaccompanied and are for how many months or more?

a. 6.

b. 12.

c. 18.

d. 24.

Credit is given for overseas service performed in which branch of service?

a. Army and Air Force only.

b. Navy and Marines only.

c. Air Force only.

d. All branches.

If errors are discovered on any of the documentation for an overseas tour, then the military personnel section (MPS) must thoroughly research and verify the errors prior to submitting a correction of records to

a. finance.

b. the legal office.

c. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

d. Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).

The Personnel System Management (PSM) office serves as specialists in these areas of Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) except

a. implementation.

b. maintenance.

c. strategy.

d. operation.

The Personnel System Management (PSM) office assists users of the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) with which type of operations?

a. Day-to-day.

b. Weekly.

c. Monthly.

d. Annual.

Management assessment products (MAP) will help assist the military personnel section with clean-up and identification of database errors and should be produced, as a minimum,

a. daily.

b. weekly.

c. monthly.

d. annually.

Which organization requires the assistance of all military personnel section (MPS) work centers to ensure management assessment products (MAP) stays current?

a. Squadron.

b. Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).

c. Major command (MAJCOM).

d. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

In addition to Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) actions and transaction registers, what other method helps the personnelist ensure the integrity of the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)?

a. Date tracking.

b. Financial services office (FSO) actions.

c. Master military pay account (MMPA) transactions.

d. Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) transactions.

Once a military member fills out the required worksheet to elect reenlistment, the first thing a personnelist in the career development element does is

a. conduct a quality check.

b. immediately enter the information into Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. pull the T18 product from the master military pay account (MMPA) file.

d. immediately forward the paperwork to Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) for processing.

To access Human Resources-Case Management System (HR-CMS), the user must have

a. access to the internet.

b. an AFPC-secure account.

c. a computer in the .com environment.

d. an activated Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) account.

The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as what element of accountability?

a. Tasked wing.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Which element of accountability does this describe?

a. Tasked wing.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

d. Strength.

Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?

a. Replacement.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in these operations except

a. relief.

b. offensive.

c. defensive.

d. deterrence.

d. deterrence.

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

a. federal and overseas missions.

b. federal and state missions.

c. state and community missions.

d. overseas and community missions.

What force is composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments under a single Joint Force Commander (JFC)?

a. Combined.

b. Joint.

c. Operational.

d. Strength.

Which system does the Air Force use to account for joint forces?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

c. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

d. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

The air expeditionary force’s (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

a. warfighter support.

b. stability to Airmen.

c. predictability to Airmen.

d. fair share tempo band support.

The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except

a. deploy.

b. sustain.

c. present.

d. organize.

What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

a. Air Staff.

b. Joint Staff.

c. HQ Air Force (HAF).

d. Department of Defense (DOD).

Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating an air base?

a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

d. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?

a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

b. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

c. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?

a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) supports all phases of operations planning and execution at all of these levels except

a. wing/squadron.

b. major command (MAJCOM).

c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

d. numbered Air Force (NAF).

d. numbered Air Force (NAF).

During a catastrophic event, Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) standardizes a method for the Air Force to account, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for

a. military personnel only.

b. military and civilian personnel only.

c. wing, group, and squadron commanders only.

d. all personnel and their families affected.

d. all personnel and their families affected.

Who serves as the force support squadron (FSS) war planner for the personnel facet of all contingencies, exercises, and deployments?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Airmen and Family Readiness.

d. Customer Support.

Who does the installation personnel readiness (IPR) work with to ensure the installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for movement of personnel?

a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Which organization helps define the requirements and improve deployment procedures in conjunction with the installation’s responsible agencies, subordinate commanders, and functional managers?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Logistics Plans.

d. Manpower.

d. Manpower.

Which organization must Manpower coordinate with to ensure success of deployment operations?

a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

b. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

c. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

What is a centralized function aligned under the logistics readiness squadron/commander (LRS/CC) and generally located within the LRS facilities?

a. Logistics plans.

b. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

c. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

d. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consist of all of these organizations except

a. logistics plans.

b. installation deployment officer (IDO).

c. installation personnel readiness (IPR).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

Who is a member assigned to a unit that manages all deployment readiness and training aspects for all deployable personnel and equipment within their units to ensure they are deployment ready?

a. Manpower commander.

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR) personnel.

c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) chief.

Before tasking individuals to deploy, the unit commander must review not only duty status codes but also the

a. member’s mental state.

b. deployment availability (DAV) codes.

c. last three enlisted performance reports (EPR).

d. results of the member’s physical training (PT) test.

Who uses Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) to update, maintain, and correct deployment availability (DAV) codes?

a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR) and Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

b. IPR and military personnel section (MPS).

c. A&FRC only.

d. IPR only.

During a disaster, commanders must take all prudent measures to apply guidance to account for

a. all personnel.

b. enlisted only.

c. officers only.

d. active duty only.

Who is the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing accountability of forces?

a. Unit commander.

b. Unit control center.

c. Personnel control center.

d. Force support squadron commander.

Which type of accountability is maintained of all deployed locations employment requirements manning document (ERMD) requirements and personnel against those positions?

a. Unit.

b. Strength.

c. Total force.

d. Replacement.

Which type of accountability do deployed commanders use to account for the personnel assigned to them?

a. Replacement.

b. Total Force.

c. Strength.

d. Unit.

d. Unit.

Installation personnel readiness (IPR) also serves as what organization that reports directly to the Base Crisis Action Team during exercises, inspections, disaster control exercises and accomplishes personnel actions required to respond to natural disasters, chemical, biological or nuclear attacks?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Personnel control center (PCC).

c. Reception control center.

d. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

To whom does the personnel control center (PCC) provide the capability to determine how many personnel, by skill, are available at any time?

a. Military personnel section (MPS).

b. Supervisors only.

c. Commanders only.

d. Commanders and staff.

d. Commanders and staff.

To ensure accurate accountability, what must the PERSCO team (PT) establish?

a. Reception and inprocessing procedures.

b. Order and control.

c. Pressure tactics.

d. In-processing only.

How many copies of contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders must PERSCO teams (PT) must collect from each member?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 5.

When members in-process, the PERSCO team (PT) must review all of these documents for accuracy except

a. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

b. AF Form 623.

c. Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI).

d. ID tags.

Accountability will be maintained in how many separate places by the PERSCO team (PT)?

a. 0.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. 3.

Air Force active duty (AD), Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), Air National Guard (ANG), major commands (MAJCOM), wings, groups, and units will make every effort to meet all

a. requests.

b. goals.

c. deployments.

d. taskings.

d. taskings.

Once a disaster has been officially declared, all Department of Defense (DOD) components shall report personnel accountability utilizing which system?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).

d. Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).

Who plays a large part in monitoring Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) during evacuation/emergency events in order to track the personal needs of personnel and their family members?

a. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

Who is responsible for total force accountability (TFA) in a deployed environment?

a. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

b. Wing commander.

c. Unit commander.

d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

Which team is the basis for forming an Expeditionary Force Support Squadron (EFSS) and includes a commander, superintendent, and the basic PERSCO accountability team?

a. RFPF2––PERSCO Augmentation Team.

b. RFPF3––PERSCO Sustainment Team.

c. RFL01––Command and Control Team.

d. RFL02––Manpower and Personnel Force Management Team.

The component command personnel planner determines the PERSCO team (PT) requirements at each location based on a variety of factors. The formula of one personnel per how many individuals is used as a guide?

a. 275.

b. 290.

c. 375.

d. 390.

The personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) is a multifunctional entity consisting of representatives from all of these agencies except

a. legal.

b. chaplain.

c. finance.

d. communications.

d. communications.

The installation deployment officer (IDO) in conjunction with whom determines base requirements for standing up a personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?

a. FSS commander.

b. MPS commander.

c. MPS chief.

d. OIC.

Whenever a personal deployment facility (PDF) line is not required, what will the deploying personnel be provided to ensure they visit the required services offered in a formal personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?

a. They are exempt.

b. Out-processing checklist.

c. Numbers of the out-processing agencies.

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED) updates.

Strength accountability provides valuable planning and decision making information to senior leaders at all levels concerning all except

a. deployed force closure.

b. force sustainment.

c. force structure.

d. force availability.

How often will PERSCO teams (PT) update Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?

a. Daily.

b. Twice a week.

c. Three times a week.

d. Bi-weekly.

Duty status change (DSC) reports will continue to be sent by what local time?

a. 1400 hrs.

b. 1700 hrs.

c. 2000 hrs.

d. 2400 hrs.

d. 2400 hrs.

Promotion selection results for enlisted/E5 and above are released simultaneously through which system?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. AF Portal.

d. Email.

What will deployed PERSCO teams (PT) have access to as “read only”?

a. PT scores.

b. Bank accounts.

c. Military records.

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

What is an individual considered when he/she arrives at a location that is not their final destination and stays in AF billeting?

a. Deployer.

b. Transient.

c. Coalition force.

d. PERSCO team member.

Which AF form and system is used to account for transients?

a. 910 and installation personnel readiness (IPR).

b. 245 and Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. 245 and Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

d. 910 and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

The rotation and redeployment concepts apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to

a. home station.

b. home of record.

c. the area of responsibility (AOR).

d. contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders.

A redeployment assistance team (RAT) may be established to facilitate

a. redeployments.

b. travel vouchers.

c. family separation pay.

d. airline tickets.

What provides the PERSCO team (PT) a list of in-place and employment requirement authorizations for the deployed location?

a. Duty status change (DSC).

b. Unit manning document (UMD).

c. Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Which agency can provide deployed commanders and their troops with general information or respond to specific inquiries across the entire spectrum of personnel programs?

a. Military personnel section (MPS).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Total force service center (TFSC).

d. AF Portal.

A member must respond within how many days of assignment selection notification of intent to separate or retire?

a. 3 duty days.

b. 3 calendar days.

c. 7 duty days.

d. 7 calendar days.

d. 7 calendar days.

If a deployed member is separating/retiring you should include how many additional days to complete out-processing actions?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90

d. 120.

Who is the focal point for personnel readiness within AF USAF/A1XO?

a. AFPC/DPWOR.

b. AFPC/ROW.

c. HAF.

d. HAF/XP.

Which web-based application is managed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

Which agency is able to update personnel actions while deployed?

a. PERSCO team (PT).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)

a. Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only.

b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.

c. Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt.

d. CMSgt only.

What is the department’s functional information system of record for the DD Form 1300?

a. Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS).

b. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

Which Hasty Report is a follow-up report to the Hasty Report (Initial)?

a. Civilian.

b. Medical Progress Report.

c. Deceased.

d. Missing.

All duty status whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) casualties require search progress reports every

a. 24 hrs.

b. 48 hrs.

c. 72 hrs.

d. 96 hrs.